8.2 Gene expression Flashcards

1
Q

What are differentiated cells

A

Cells that are specialised for a particular function

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2
Q

What is an example of a gene that is permanently switched on

A

Genes for respiratory enzymes

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3
Q

What is an example of a gene that can be switched on and off

A

Lac operon, which is a digests lactose in bacteria

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4
Q

What are stem cells

A

Undifferentiated cells

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5
Q

What can all stem cells do

A

Continually divide

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6
Q

What can totipotent stem cells do

A

Divide and produce any type of body cell

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7
Q

What can pluripotent stem cells do

A

Divide and differentiate into almost any type of cells

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8
Q

What is the only mammalian cell that is totipotent

A

Zygote

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9
Q

What plant cells are totipotent

A

All

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10
Q

What are multipotent stem cells

A

Divide and differentiate into limited number of cells

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11
Q

Where might you find multipotent stem cells in humans

A

Bone marrow

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12
Q

What mammalian cells are pluripotent

A

Embryonic

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13
Q

What can unipotent stem cells do

A

Divide and differentiate into 1 type of cell

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14
Q

What type of mammal would you find multipotent and unipotent stem cells

A

Mature mammals

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15
Q

What does iPS cells stand for

A

Induced pluripotent stem cells

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16
Q

What type of cell becomes an iPS cell

A

Unipotentn stem cell

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17
Q

What happens to the unipotent stem cell to become iPS cells

A

Inducing genes and transciption factors to express themselves

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18
Q

Why are iPS cells more valuable than embryonic stem cells

A

iPS cells can limitlessly divide whereas embryonic stem cells can limitly divide

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19
Q

What risk arises when using iPS

A

Cancer

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20
Q

Why is there a risk of cancer when using iPS cells

A

As the cells can divide limitlessly

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21
Q

What type of clone is used to specific produce embryonic stem cells

A

Therapeutic

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22
Q

How effective are iPS cells

A

Not that effective and therefore don’t always work

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23
Q

What triggers transciption to start

A

The binding of a protein to the DNA

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24
Q

What is the name of the site on DNA where the transcription factor binds

A

Promoter region

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25
Q

If the transcription factor didn’t bind to the DNA at the promoter region, what happens to the gene

A

The gene is switched off and is not expressed as a protein

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26
Q

What does steroid hormone mean in terms of transport across membranes

A

Lipid soluble so simply diffuse

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27
Q

What is the example of the steroid hormone on AQA spec

A

Oestrogen

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28
Q

What is the role of the steroid hormone oestrogen in initiating transcription

A
  • Oestrogen simple diffuse into the cytoplasm of the cell.
  • Oestrogen then binds to the transcription factor that is already in the cytoplasm.
  • The transcription factor changes shape so is now complementary in shape to the promoter region on DNA
  • The binding of the transcription factor stimulates RNA polymerase
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29
Q

After oestrogen diffuses into the cell, what happens

A

Oestrogen binds to the transcription factor

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30
Q

What is the effect of oestrogen binding to the transcription factor

A

The transcription factor changes shape to become complementary to the promoter region

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31
Q

What does the shape change in the transcription factor, make the transcription factor complementary to

A

The promoter region on DNA

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32
Q

What does the binding of the transcription factor to the promoter region of DNA stimulate

A

RNA polymerase

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33
Q

Define epigenetics

A

Ability to control gene expression by factors other than change in DNA base sequence

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34
Q

What does epigenetics do the genes

A

Switches them on and off

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35
Q

What are the 2 types of epigenetic modifications

A
  • DNA methylation
  • Histone modification
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36
Q

What DNA bases usually is methylated

A

Cytosine

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37
Q

What happens to the base when DNA methylation occurs

A

A methyl group (-CH3) is added to a base

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38
Q

What is the effect of DNA methylation

A

Reduces the ability of the the methylated base to be recognised in transcription so reduces ability of gene to be expressed

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39
Q

Why are heavily methylated DNA bases less likely to be transcribed

A

As transcription factors are less likely to bind

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40
Q

What are the 2 types of histone modification

A
  • Histone methylation
  • Histone Acetylation
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41
Q

With histone methylation, what happens to the affinity between DNA and histones

A

Increase in affinity

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42
Q

What is the effect on the chromatin when the affinity between DNA and histones is high, histone methylation

A

Chromatin is more condensed

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43
Q

When chromatin is more condensed, what does this mean for the genes

A

The genes are less accessible to transcription factors

44
Q

When genes are less accessible to transcription factors what does this mean

A

Less likely to be expressed, the gene is essentially switched off

45
Q

What is the name of the marker associated with histone methylation

46
Q

What is the affinity like between DNA and histones in histone acetylation

A

Lower affinity

47
Q

What does low affinity between DNA and histones mean for chromatin

A

Less condensed

48
Q

When chromatin is less condensed, what does this do to the accessiblity of the gene

A

More accessible to transcription factors

49
Q

When genes are more accessible to transcription factors, what does this mean in terms of expression

A

More likely to be expressed, switched on

50
Q

What does amino acids being methylated or acetylated determine

A

How tightly packed the nucleosome is

51
Q

What does siRNA stand for

A

Small interfering RNA

52
Q

What is siRNA made from

A

Formed from dsRNA (double stranded RNA)

53
Q

What does dsRNA stand for

A

Double stranded RNA

54
Q

What happens to dsRNA to form siRNA

A

dsRNA is broken into smaller siRNA by an enzyme

55
Q

What bonds does the enzyme the cuts dsRNA, catalyse the hydrolysis of

A

Phosphodiester bonds

56
Q

Once the siRNA strands are formed, what happens to the strands

A

The hydrogen bonds between the 2 strands are hydrolysed so a single strand is produced

57
Q

What does the single strand of siRNA do

A

Combines with an enzyme

58
Q

What is the name of the enzyme the siRNA combines with

59
Q

What does RISC stand for (not on spec)

A

RNA induced silencing complex

60
Q

What happens to the siRNA and enzyme

A

The siRNA guides the enzymes to mRNA where there is complementary base pairs between siRNA and mRNA

61
Q

Once the siRNA and mRNA have formed complementary base pairs, what does the enzyme then do

A

Enzyme then cuts the mRNA into smaller pieces, hydrolysing the phosphodiester bonds

62
Q

What is the effect of cutting the mRNA into smaller pieces

A

The mRNA cannot be translated at the ribosome

63
Q

If the mRNA cannot be translated, what is the gene said to be

A

Silenced as the gene protein is not formed

64
Q

What happens to the smaller pieces of mRNA that cannot be translated

A

Hydrolysed into individual nucleotides that can be reused

65
Q

What is a tumour

A

A group of abnormal cells that form a growth

66
Q

What are the 2 types of tumours

A
  • Beign
  • Malignant
67
Q

What type of tumours cause harm to the body

68
Q

How may a tumour cause harm

A
  • Blockages, obstructions
  • Damage the organs by pressure
69
Q

What is the growth rate of a beign tumour like

70
Q

What type of molecules do beign tumours make

A

Adhesion molecules

71
Q

What do the adhesion molecules of a beign tumour result in the formation of

A

A capsule around the abnormal cells

72
Q

What does the capsule around a beign tumour mean the tumour cannot do

A

Metastasise, spread out

73
Q

Do the cells or beign tumour tend to be differentiated or undifferentiated

A

Differentiated

74
Q

Why are beign tumours relatively easy to cut out

A

Because all the abnormal cells are contained within a capsule

75
Q

Is the impact of a beign tumour localised

76
Q

What may lead to the formation of a beign tumour

A
  • Inflammation
  • Injury
  • Diet
  • Genetics
  • Toxins
  • Radiation
77
Q

What is the growth rate of a malignant tumour like

78
Q

Are tumour cells in a malignant tumour differentiated or undifferentiated

A

Undifferentiated

79
Q

With the cells being undifferentiated in a malignant tumour, what does this mean they can form

A

Can generate own blood supply

80
Q

What does the undifferentiated malignant tumour cells secrete

A

Chemicals which can form the tumours own blood vessels

81
Q

Why does the formation of the tumours own blood vessels mean the malignant tumour cells can metastasise (move)

A

Can break out from the group of tumour cells and enter the blood supply

82
Q

Why are malignant tumours hard to cut out

A

As no capsule and the cells can metastasise

83
Q

What might cause a malignant tumour

A
  • UV or x-ray exposure
  • Tobacco smoke
  • Aspestos
  • Processed food
84
Q

In the majority of cases, what is the main reason as to why cancer cells arise

A

The gene that regulate mitosis mutates

85
Q

What is the name of transcription factors that stimulate gene expression

A

Activators

86
Q

What is the name of transcription factors that inhibit gene expression

A

Repressors

87
Q

What is the role of the protoncogenes

A

Express protein that involves in the initiation of DNA replication and mitosis

88
Q

What are oncogenes

A

Mutated protoncogenes

89
Q

What do oncogenes cause

A

Permanent activation of the protein that is involved in the initiation of DNA replication and mitosis

90
Q

What are tumour-suppressors role

A

Express proteins that slow down cell division and cause apotosis which DNA replication errors are detected

91
Q

What happens when a tumour suppressor gene is mutated

A

The gene that codes for the protein that slows down cell division is permanently switched off

92
Q

When the protein that slows down cell division is switched off, what is the result

A

Cell division is uncontrolled

93
Q

When a tumour suppressor gene is mutated apotasis is inhibitied, what is the effect of this

A

Mutated cells are not identified and therefore programmed cell death does not occur so mutated cells divide and lead to tumour formation

94
Q

Are oncogenes hypomethylated or hypermethylated

A

Hypomethylated

95
Q

When oncogenes are hypomethylated, what happens to the chromatin

A

Less condensed chromatin

96
Q

How does hypomethylation of oncogenes lead to permanently switching on the protein that initiates DNA replication and mitosis

A
  • Chromatin is less condensed
  • Gene is more accessible to transcription factors
  • Increased expression of gene/ the gene is permanently switched on
97
Q

Are tumour suppressor genes hypomethylated or hypermethylated

A

Hypermethylated

98
Q

How does hypermethylation of a tumour suppressor gene inactivate the gene

A
  • More condensed chromatin
  • So gene is less accessible to transcription factors
  • Gene is less expressed
  • So gene is switched off
99
Q

What do tumour cells in breast tissue do

A

Produce oestrogen

100
Q

What does the production of oestrogen from the tumour cells in breast tissues do to the size of the tumour, and what is this an example of

A
  • Increase the size of the tumour
  • Example of positive feedback
101
Q

How does oestrogen increase the number of tumour cells

A
  • Oestrogen binds to transcription factors
  • Transcription factors the bind to the protoncogene
  • This then permanently turns on the protonogene
  • So DNA replication and mitosis occur uncontrollably
102
Q

What can be used to slow down the tumour growth

A

Use siRNA which leads to mRNA being cut up so the proteins are no translated

103
Q

BRCA1 and BRCA2 are human genes that code for tumour suppressor proteins.
Mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 can cause cancer (lines 1–2). Explain how (3 marks)

A
  1. Change in DNA base sequence/triplet;
  2. Change in (sequence of) amino acids
    OR
    Change in primary/tertiary/3
    0 structure;
  3. (Results in) rapid/uncontrollable cell division;
104
Q

Effective treatment of ER-positive breast cancers often involves the use of drugs
which have a similar structure to oestrogen (lines 9–10).
Suggest and explain how these drugs are an effective treatment of ER-positive breast
cancers. (3 marks)

A
  1. (Drug) binds to (oestrogen/ER)
    receptor;
  2. Prevents binding of
    oestrogen/hormone;
  3. No/fewer transcription factor(s)
    bind to promoter
    OR
    RNA polymerase not
    stimulated/activated;
105
Q

Treatment with drugs might be able to reverse the epigenetic changes that cause
cancers (lines 16–17). Suggest and explain how. (3 marks)

A
  1. (Drugs could) increase methylation of
    oncogene(s);
  2. (Drugs could) decrease methylation of tumour
    suppressor gene(s);
  3. (Increased) methylation of DNA/gene(s)
    inhibits transcription/expression (of genes)
    OR
    Decreased methylation of DNA/gene(s)
    stimulates transcription/expression (of genes);
  4. Decreased acetylation of histones inhibits
    transcription/expression (of genes)
    OR
    (Increased) acetylation of histones stimulates
    transcription/expression (of genes);