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Sgt Study GUI > 70.6 Officer Safety Manual > Flashcards

70.6 Officer Safety Manual Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three factors of Graham v Connor?

A

severity of the crime

if subject poses an immediate threat to safety of officer or others

subject is actively resisting or attempting to evade arrest

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2
Q

What penal code defines totality of circumstances and imminent threat?

A

835 PC with different subsections

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3
Q

What is non deadly force defined?

A

minimal risk of causing injury

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4
Q

What is intermediate force defined?

A

force likely to have significant risk of injury

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5
Q

Intermediate force includes but is not limited to? List 4

A

Electronic control device, impact weapons, aerosol subject restraint, and kinetic energy munitions

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6
Q

What is deadly force defined?

A

force that creates substantial risk of causing death or serious bodily injury

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7
Q

Name three of the six listed force options in this manual?

A

control holds

personal weapons

aerosol subject restraint

impact weapons

ECD

kinetic energy weapons

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8
Q

Once an officer no longer perceives a threat, is deadly force still justified?

A

no

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9
Q

What government code defines positional asphyxia?

A

7286.5

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10
Q

When is the only time a firearm may be discharge at an aircraft in accordance with CHP policy outlines?

A

When not in flight

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11
Q

Officers should not place their finger on the trigger of any firearm during a tactical situation except under the following circumstances:

A
  • When actually firing the firearm
  • When the firearm is pointed at an identified target and the use of deadly force is justified
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12
Q

The discharge shall be reported to a supervisor as soon as?

A

The situation is stabilized

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13
Q

What is required in the report when subject is provided medical attention after a use of force? List three of the six

A

nature of illness/injury

name of attending doctor and their recommendations

copy of subjects discharge papers

notation the detention facility was advised of subjects illness/injury

whether jail personnel were requested to arrange for medical care

when pertinent, time elements, symptoms, requests for aid by subject, and details of transport and treatment

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14
Q

Starting at what rank and below must quarterly review particular chapters of this manual?

A

Captain and below

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15
Q

What is the three criteria which an officer may discharge a firearm at an animal?

A

self defense or defense of others

animal is critically injured

rabid animal or animal attacking livestock

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16
Q

Supervisor approval “should or shall” be obtained prior to shooting an animal?

A

should

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17
Q

What is the minimum desired distance to stop behind a violator vehicle?

A

10 feet to 15 feet

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18
Q

What are the legal intervention/forcible stop options: List three of six.

A

channelization, roadblocks, ramming, box in, spike strip, use of firearms

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19
Q

Supervisor shall evaluate all pursuits and complete CHP_____. Reports shall be completed within _______ ________days

A

187, 10 calendar

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20
Q

When conducting a legal intervention, supervisor permission “should or shall” be obtained?

A

should

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21
Q

The CHP 228 Pursuit Attestation shall be completed how often?

A

annually

22
Q

What is the distance for a one officer felony stop?

A

30 feet

23
Q

What are the three back up vehicle positions?

A

left V, right V and rear position

24
Q

During a hostage situation, the supervisor _____ be notified and ______ respond to the scene.

A

should, shall

25
Q

List the two building entry techniques that should be used when looking for potential threats.

A

slicing the pie, and quick peak

26
Q

What ranks and below shall participate annually in an 8 hr OST day.

A

Sgts and below

27
Q

Name three personal weapons?

A
  • Forearm
  • Elbow
  • Knee
  • closed fist
  • heel of the hand
  • opened hand
  • extended knuckles
  • edge of fist
  • heel of foot
  • ball of foot
28
Q

When performing a bent wrist control hold, which hand is placed on the subject’s hand trapping the fingers?

A

primary/strong

29
Q

When performing a standing misdemeanor twist lock control hold, when should the officer take two hand control of the subject’s arm?

A

After straightening the arm and twisting the slack out

30
Q

At the officer’s discretion, the following persons may be

exempted from handcuffing to the rear: What are the three?

A

sick/injure/disabled

elderly

visibly pregnant

31
Q

List three types of arrest techniques:

A

standing, kneeling, prone

32
Q

List three standing arrest techniques:

A

bent wrist, twist lock, and modified twist lock

33
Q

What method of arrest technique do you use when utilizing flex cuffs?

A

Bent wrist

34
Q

What are the two methods of searching?

A

standing search and prelim frisk

35
Q

What are the four areas to be searched during a standing search?

A

front waist and chest, complete left side and groin, complete right side, rear waist, back, head, and neck

36
Q

What are the two scenarios an officer does not need to advise comm center he is transporting a female?

A

government employees on official business or previously approved ride along

37
Q

OC can incapacitate someone from ____ minutes to _____ minutes.

A

15 to 45

38
Q

The optimal deployment range for less lethal is ____ feet to ______ feet.

A

5 to 60

39
Q

How effective is the less lethal?

A

80%

40
Q

The ECD darts have a spread of ____ foot spread for every ____ feet of travel.

A

1 to 7

41
Q

Name three types of people not to deploy ECD on?

A

women who appear pregnant, elderly/frail/less than 80lbs, and young children

42
Q

The optimum range for ECD is ____ feet to ____ feet. Maximum range is _____ feet.

A

7/15/25

43
Q

When shall the prisoner securement device be used?

A

on all prisoners positioned front or rear

44
Q

What does RCB stand for?

A

Rapid containment baton

45
Q

How long is the RCB?

A

26 inches

46
Q

The RCB requires regular maintenance. It is recommended the RCB be disassembled and inspected every ____ days, or after each exposure to
adverse conditions

A

30 days

47
Q

Nomenclature. Start from the bottom to tip, name of the key parts of the RCB. There’s six.

A

End cap, grip, collar, mid shaft, end shaft, tip

48
Q

When RCB is operated in the closed position, where is the thumb placement?

A

against the tip

49
Q

List the potential lethal strike zones? There’s six

A

nick, head, throat, spine, sternum, and groin

50
Q

List the RCB closed mode strikes? There’s two

A

Forward and front strike

51
Q

List the RCB open mode strikes? There’s three

A

forward strike, fixed jab, front strike (technically there’s four as you can do forward strike with one hand or two)

52
Q

What are the two retention techniques?

A

circle out and power chop

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