6. Infection Prevention Flashcards

1
Q

What causes infections?

A

pathogens or harmful microorganisms

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2
Q

Localized vs Systemic infections [STAR]

A
  • localized: infection limited to a specific location in the body
  • systemic: infection that is in the bloodstream and is spread throughout the body
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3
Q

an infection acquired within a healthcare setting during delivery of medical care [STAR]

A

healthcare-associated infection (HAI)

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4
Q

Signs and sxs of localized infection

A
  • redness
  • swelling
  • pain
  • heat
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5
Q

Signs and sxs of systemic infection

A
  • fever
  • chills
  • N/V/D
  • changes in vital signs
  • headache
  • mental confusion
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6
Q

In what type of conditions do pathogens grow best in?

A

warm, dark, and moist places where food is present and in hosts with low resistance

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7
Q

communicable vs non-communicable diseases

A
  • communicable: transited by direct contact or indirect contact with an infected person
  • non-communicable: disease not capable of being spread from one person to another
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8
Q

type of communicable disease that spreads quickly from person to person

A

contagious disease

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9
Q

physical movement or transfer of harmful bacteria from one person, object, or place to another or from one part of the body to another [STAR]

A

cross-infection

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10
Q

refers to practices such as hand washing that reduce, remove, and control the spread of microorganisms

A

medical asepsis

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11
Q

Disinfection vs Sterilization [STAR]

A
  • disinfection: destroys most pathogens but not all of them

- sterilization: destroys all microorganisms including those that form spores

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12
Q

What equipment is used in the sterilization process?

A

an autoclave

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13
Q

state of being completely free of microorganisms

A

surgical asepsis/steril technique

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14
Q

When should CNAs wash their hands in clean and dirty/contaminated utility rooms?

A
  • clean utility rooms: wash hands before entering the room

- dirty/contaminated utility rooms: wash hands before leaving the room

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15
Q

List the 6 links in the chain of infection [STAR]

A
  • link 1: causative agent
  • link 2: reservoir
  • link 3: portal of exit
  • link 4: mode of transmission
  • link 5: portal of entry
  • link 6: susceptible host
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16
Q

When could normal flora cause an infection?

A

when it enters a different part of the body

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17
Q

What is an incubation period?

A

time between exposure to the pathogen and time it causes visible signs and symptoms

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18
Q

What is a carrier?

A

a person who carries a disease, but usually doesn’t show any signs or symptoms at the time they spread the disease

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19
Q

Name 3 main routes of disease transmission [STAR]

A

contact, droplet, and airborne

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20
Q

What is the primary route of disease transmission within the healthcare setting [STAR]

A

on the hands of healthcare workers

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21
Q

Give some examples of body fluids (9 total)

A
  • tears
  • saliva
  • sputum
  • urine
  • feces
  • semen
  • vaginal secretions
  • pus or other wound drainage
  • vomit
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22
Q

How far do droplets usually travel?

A

no more than 6 feet

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23
Q

What are some general reasons for lower resistance to diseases?

A

age, existing illnesses, fatigue, poor nutrition, lack of adequate fluid intake, certain medications, and stress

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24
Q

Give several reasons why the elderly are at a higher risk for infection

A
  • hospitalized more (increased chances for HAI)
  • skin tears delay healing process
  • brittle and broken bones increase risk for infection
  • increased use of catheters and other tubing
  • higher risk of malnutrition and dehydration
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25
Q

What does following standard precautions mean?

A

treating blood, body fluids, non-intact skin, and mucous membranes as if they were infected

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26
Q

What body fluid do standard precautions not include? [STAR]

A

sweat

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27
Q

T/F - you should recap needles or sharps after use

A

False - risk of sticking yourself; dispose of them in a biohazard container

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28
Q

Where does OSHA recommend biohazard waste be disposed?

A

at the point of origin or where the waste occurs

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29
Q

Where should you cough/sneeze if you don’t have a tissue? [STAR]

A

into your upper sleeve or elbow

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30
Q

T/F - hands should be washed using plain or antimicrobial soap and water when visibly soiled

A

True

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31
Q

What does PPE include? [STAR]

A

gloves, gowns, masks, goggles, and face shields

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32
Q

Don vs doff

A
  • don: put on PPE correctly

- doff: remove PPE correctly

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33
Q

What types of non-sterile gloves are used?

A

nitrile, vinyl, or latex

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34
Q

When should gloves be changed?

A

when they become wet, worn, soiled, or torn and also before contact with mucous membranes or broken skin

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35
Q

T/F - you don’t have to wash hands between removing old gloves and donning new ones

A

False - wash hands in between

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36
Q

Double barrier

A

covering a non-intact area with a bandage/gauze before putting on gloves

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37
Q

PPE that protect skin and clothing from contamination

A

gowns

38
Q

PPE that prevent inhalation of microorganisms through the nose or mouth

A

masks

39
Q

What is the main factor that determines what type of PPE must be worn?

A

the type of exposure that may be encountered

40
Q

Which PPE should be removed first: gloves, mask, or goggles? [STAR]

A

gloves are removed first

41
Q

What are respirators?

A

special PPE masks that have a filter that protect the face and lungs

42
Q

When are respirators removed?

A

after leaving the resident’s room and closing the door

43
Q

What parts of the mask or goggles are considered clean and can be touched with ungloved hands? [STAR]

A

the pieces used to secure them to the head

44
Q

CDC’s second level of precautions beyond standard precautions - used for persons who are infected or may be infected with certain infected diseases [STAR]

A

Transmission-Based Precautions

45
Q

Give an example of an airborne pathogen carried on mucous droplets suspended in the air

A

TB

46
Q

Name the room residents with airborne infections will be placed in

A

airborne-infection isolation room (AIIR)

47
Q

Name ways in which both air and droplets can travel from an infected person

A

talking, coughing, laughing, sneezing, and singing

48
Q

What precautions must a resident with TB take when leaving their room?

A

must wear regular surgical masks to help reduce number of droplets they exhale into the air

49
Q

Give an example of a disease spread through droplets

A

influenza

50
Q

Give 2 examples of diseases that require contact precautions

A

conjunctivitis and C. diff

51
Q

Give 2 examples of diseases that require isolation

A

TB and chickenpox

52
Q

In healthcare, what is the most common way to be infected with a bloodborne disease? [STAR]

A

contact with infected blood or body fluids

53
Q

What types of waste are considered infectious?

A

blood, body fluids, and human tissue

54
Q

OSHA considers what situations to carry significant exposure to infectious materials? [STAR]

A
  • exposure by injection (needle stick)
  • mucous membrane contact
  • cut from an object containing potentially infections body fluid (includes human bites)
  • having non-intact skin (OHSA includes acne)
55
Q

outlines specific work practices to prevent exposure to infectious material and identifies step-by-step procedures to follow when exposures do occur

A

exposure control plan

56
Q

2 examples of major bloodborne diseases [STAR]

A

acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and viral hepatitis

57
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A

by blood (infected needles, and from mother to fetus) and is also a STI`

58
Q

Which types of hepatitis are bloodborne? Which types of hepatitis are the most common? [STAR]

A

Bloodborne: hepatitis B and C

Most common: hepatitis A, B, and C

59
Q

How is hepatitis A (HAV) transmitted?

A

fecal-oral route (through food or water contaminated by stool from infected person)

60
Q

Which types of hepatitis have vaccines? [STAR]

A

hepatitis A and B only

61
Q

How is hepatitis B (HBV) transmitted?

A
  • through sexual contact
  • sharing infected needles
  • from mother to baby during delivery
  • through improperly sterilized needles used for tattoos and piercings
  • through grooming supplies (razors, nail clippers, and toothbrushes)
  • accidental contact w/ infected needles or other sharps or from splashing blood at work
62
Q

How is hepatitis C (HCV) transmitted?

A

through blood or bodily fluids

63
Q

How is hepatitis D (HDV) transmitted? What must a person have in order to get HDV?

A

transmitted through blood; person must already have HBV to get HDV

64
Q

How is hepatitis E transmitted?

A

fecal-oral route, mostly through contaminated water

65
Q

What are some symptoms of hepatitis in general?

A

fatigue, N/V, jaundice, dark urine, lack of appetite, joint pain, and ABD pain

66
Q

microorganisms, mostly bacteria, that are resistant to one or more antimicrobial agents that are commonly used for tx [STAR]

A

multidrug-resistant organisms (MDROs)

67
Q

Name 2 common types of MDROs [STAR]

A

methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) and vancomycin-resistant enterococcus (VRE)

68
Q

HA-MRSA vs CA-MRSA

A
  • HA-MRSA: hospital associated MRSA
  • CA-MRSA: community associated MRSA; occurs in people who have not recently been admitted to healthcare facility and who have no past dx of MRSA
69
Q

How does CA-MRSA typically manifest?

A

skin infections such as boils or pimples

70
Q

How is MRSA almost always spread? What might happen to a resident with MRSA? [STAR]

A

spread by direct physical contact with infected person; resident may be placed in contact isolation depending upon site of the infection

71
Q

What is the most important measure to prevent spread of MRSA? What other method may be used?

A
  • most important measure is handwashing using soap and water

- may also use chlorhexidine (CHG) bathing

72
Q

What does VRE stand for? [STAR]

A

vancomycin-resistant enterococcus

73
Q

bacteria that live in the digestive and genital tracts that normally don’t cause problems in healthy people

A

enterococci

74
Q

How is VRE spread? What might happen to a resident with VRE? [STAR]

A

spread through direct and indirect contact; residents may be placed in contact isolation

75
Q

spore-forming bacterium which can be part of the normal intestinal flora [STAR]

A

clostridium difficile (C. diff)

76
Q

What increases the risk of developing C. diff?

A

enemas, NG tube insertion, GI tract surgery, and overuse of antibiotics (may alter the normal intestinal flora)

77
Q

T/F - alcohol-based hand sanitizers are effective against C. diff

A

False - only soap and water

78
Q

Sx of C. diff

A
  • frequent, foul-smelling, watery stools
  • bloody diarrhea
  • fever
  • nausea
  • lack of appetite
  • ABD pain
79
Q

Tx of C. diff

A
  • certain antibiotics
  • discontinuing use of other antibiotics
  • possibly a fecal transplant
80
Q

What does CRE stand for? [STAR]

A

carbapenem-resistant enterobacteriaceae

81
Q

List 2 examples of enterobaacteriaceae

A

klebsiella and escherichia coli (E. coli)

82
Q

How is CRE normally spread? [STAR]

A

through direct contact with an infected person, especially with person’s wounds or stool

83
Q

T/F - CRE has been shown to have a high death rate, up to 50%

A

True

84
Q

What is a complication of influenza that the elderly are at higher risk of developing?

A

pneumonia

85
Q

Which virus causes the most cases of acute gastroenteritis in the US?

A

norovirus

86
Q

Sx of norovirus

A

N/V/D, ABD pain, fever, HA, and body aches

87
Q

What is the range of infections that group A. streptococcus (GAS) can cause?

A

range from mild (strep throat or impetigo) to serious (pneumonia or necrotizing fasciitis)

88
Q

object that has been contaminated with a pathogen; part of indirect contact [STAR]

A

fomite

89
Q

Standard precautions must be used on who? [STAR]

A

every single person you care for

90
Q

How should you carry soiled linens? [STAR]

A

away from your body