503-603 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Amniotic fluid OD 450: When BILIRUBIN is present, a rise in OD is seen at 450 nm because this is the wavelength of maximum bilirubin absorption.
A
  1. Rare: 0–10 bacteria/hpf
  2. Few: 10–50 bacteria/hpf
  3. Moderate: 50–200 bacteria/hpf
  4. Many: >200 bacteria/hpf
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2
Q
  1. First layer of spun hematocrit: FATTY LAYER
  2. Second layer of spun hematocrit: PLASMA
  3. Third layer of spun hematocrit: BUFFY COAT
  4. Bottom layer of spun hematocrit: PACKED CELLS
A
  1. Patients with CML negative for the Philadelphia chromosome: POOR PROGNOSIS
  2. LEUKOCYTOSIS >11 x 10 9th/L
  3. Forward light scatter: CELL SIZE
  4. Side light scatter: CELL GRANULARITY
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3
Q
  1. KERATOCYTES: helmet cells/with horn-like projections
  2. ANTI-dsDNA: most specific antibody for SLE
  3. Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): CHRONIC ACTIVE HEPATITIS
A
  1. Polymerase chain reaction: MOLECULAR
  2. Restriction fragment length polymorphism: MOLECULAR
  3. Enhanced by acidifying patient serum: anti-M
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4
Q
  1. Wiener and coworkers gave a name to one such agglutinin, calling its antigen I for “individuality.” The ANTIBODY REACTED WITH MOST BLOOD SPECIMENS tested.
A
  1. For patients with history of FEBRILE NONHEMOLYTIC TRANSF REACTION: LEUKOPOOR RBCs
  2. Irradiation of blood components: CESIUM
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5
Q
  1. CORDOCENTESIS, or PERCUTANEOUS UMBILICAL BLOOD SAMPLING (PUBS), results in a fetal blood specimen that can be used for rapid karyotyping or molecular studies.
A
  1. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): URINARY BLADDER CANCER
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6
Q
  1. CARD PREGNANCY/POSITIVE: Two separate black or gray bands, one at T and the other at C, are visible in the results window, indicating that the specimen contains detectable levels of hCG. Although the intensity of the test band may vary with different specimens, the appearance of two distinct bands should be interpreted as a positive result.
  2. CARD PREGNANCY/NEGATIVE: If no band appears at T and a black or gray band is visible at the C position, the test can be considered negative, indicating that a detectable level of hCG is not present.
A
  1. CARD PREGNANCY/INVALID: If no band appears at C or incomplete or beaded bands appear at the T or C position, the test is invalid. The test should be repeated using another Card Pregnancy Test device.
  2. CARD PREGNANCY: If the test band appears VERY FAINT, it is recommended that a new sample be collected 48 hours later and tested again using another Card Pregnancy Test device.
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7
Q
  1. The standard screening method for HIV antibody has been the ELISA, and the standard confirmatory test is the Western blot.
  2. Aside from Western blot, other confirmatory tests, including indirect immunofluorescence assay (IFA), radioimmunoprecipitation assay (RIPA), line immunoassays, and rapid confirmatory tests, have also been developed.
A
  1. HBs ag: active infection
  2. HBe ag: active hepatitis B with HIGH DEGREE OF INFECTIVITY
  3. IgM anti-HBc: current or recent acute hepatitis B
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8
Q
  1. Total anti-HBc: current or past hepatitis B
  2. Anti-HBe: recovery from hepatitis B
  3. Anti-HBs: immunity to hepatitis B
  4. HBV DNA: acute, atypical, or occult hepatitis B; viral load may be used to monitor effectiveness of therapy
  5. ITIS: inflammation
A

SEVEN BASE SI UNITS
541. Length: METER
542. Mass: KILOGRAM
543. Time: SECONDS
544. Quantity of mass: MOLE
545. Electric current: AMPERE
546. Thermodynamic temperature: KELVIN
547. Luminous intensity: CANDELA

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9
Q
  1. Main cause of TREND is DETERIORATION OF REAGENTS
  2. Main cause of SHIFT is IMPROPER CALIBRATION OF THE INSTRUMENT
A
  1. POCT: near-patient testing, decentralized testing, bedside testing and alternate-site testing
  2. POCT: usually by nonlaboratorian personnel (nurses, respiratory therapists, etc)
  3. Absorbance (A) = abc = 2-log%T
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10
Q
  1. The bacteriological examination of water consists of (1) total plate counts (2) detecting the presence or absence of coliforms and the estimation of MPN (MOST PROBABLE NUMBER)
A
  1. Water analysis, presumptive test: FORMATION OF GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH
  2. Water analysis, confirmed test: FORMATION OF GAS IN BGBL BROTH or TYPICAL COLIFORM COLONIES ON EMB/ENDO AGAR
  3. Water analysis, completed test: FORMATION OF ACID AND GAS IN THE LACTOSE BROTH and the DEMONSTRATION OF GRAM NEGATIVE NONSPOREFORMING BACILLI
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11
Q
  1. Herpesviruses: cardinal feature of the group is LATENCY
  2. Reoviruses: derivation of the word: R(respiratory), E(enteric), O(orphan)
A
  1. ASCHOFF BODIES: rheumatic fever
  2. CREOLA BODIES: cluster of columnar cells, bronchial asthma
  3. ELEMENTARY BODIES: infectious particles of Chlamydia
  4. SCLEROTIC BODIES: dark brown-black organisms, chromoblastomycosis
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12
Q
  1. ASTEROID BODIES: concentric radiating eosinophilic material (ag-ab reaction), sporotrichosis
  2. NEGRI BODIES: rabies
  3. GUARNIERI BODIES: poxvirus
  4. OWL’S EYE INCLUSION BODIES: cytomegalovirus
A
  1. PSAMMOMA BODIES: elements with concentric striations of collagen-like materials, benign conditions, ovarian or thyroid carcinoma
  2. KOPLIK’S SPOTS: MEASLES
  3. Hand, foot and mouth disease: COXSACKIEVIRUS
  4. In CYSTIC FIBROSIS of the pancreas, the increase in NEUTRAL FATS confer the greasy “BUTTER-STOOL” appearance.
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13
Q

PROGRESSIVE CHANGES
571. Hypertrophy - increase in size of an organ due to an increase in size of individual cells
572. Hyperplasia - increase in size of an organ due to increase in number of cells

A

RETROGRESSIVE CHANGES
573. Hypoplasia - failure of an organ to reach mature size
574. Aplasia - organ is represented only by mass of fatty or fibrous nodule
575. Agenesia - complete non-appearance of an organ
576. Atresia - failure of an organ to form an opening
577. Atrophy - ACQUIRED decrease in size of a normally sized organ

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14
Q

DEGENERATIVE CHANGES
578. Dysplasia - change in size, shape and orientation of cell
579. Metaplasia - change from one adult cell type to another

A
  1. Anaplasia or Dedifferentiation - change to a more primitive or embryonic cell type
  2. Neoplasia or Tumor - continuous abnormal proliferation of cells
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15
Q

MALIGNANT TUMOR
582. Carcinoma - malignant tumor of EPITHELIAL TISSUE origin
583. Sarcoma - malignant tumor of CONNECTIVE TISSUE origin

A
  1. CLASS SYSTEM
    Class I - absence of atypical cytologic picture
    Class II - atypical cytologic picture but no evidence of malignancy
    Class III - cytologic picture SUGGESTIVE BUT NOT CONCLUSIVE of malignancy
    Class IV - cytologic picture STRONGLY SUGGESTIVE of malignancy
    Class V - cytologic picture CONCLUSIVE of malignancy.
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16
Q
  1. PRIMARY SIGNS OF DEATH (3)
    Respiratory, circulatory and nervous failure
A

SECONDARY SIGNS OF DEATH (7)
Algor mortis - cooling
Rigor mortis - stiffening
Liver mortis - purplish discoloration
Desiccation
Putrefaction
Postmortem clotting
Autolysis

17
Q
  1. Visceral larva migrans (VLM): Toxocara cati, Toxocari canis
  2. Cutaneous larva migrans (CLM): Ancylostoma braziliense, A. caninum
A
  1. Infective stage is the sheathed filariform larva: HOOKWORM
  2. Infective stage is the unsheathed filariform larva: THREADWORM
18
Q
  1. Semilunar cutting plates, BIPARTITE bursa: NECATOR AMERICANUS
  2. Two pairs of teeth, TRIPARTITE bursa: ANCYLOSTOMA DUODENALE
  3. Alkaline phosphatase immunoassay (APIA) for Schistosoma antibodies
A
  1. NON-OPERCULATED AND MATURE (embryonated) when laid: SCHISTOSOMA eggs
  2. OPERCULATED AND MATURE (embryonated) when laid: HETEROPHYES, OPISTORCHISand CLONORCHIS eggs
19
Q
  1. Clonorchis, Opistorchis and Heterophyid egg CANNOT be differentiated under an ordinary light microscope.
  2. OPERCULATED AND IMMATURE (unembryonated) when laid: FASCIOLA, FASCIOLOPSIS, PARAGONIMUS and ECHINOSTOMA eggs
A
  1. Amoebic LIVER abscess (ALA) is the most common extra-intestinal form of amoebiasis
  2. Entamoeba polecki cyst: consistently UNINUCLEATED (1 NUCLEUS)
20
Q
  1. ACHROMATIC karyosomal granules: IODAMOEBA BUTSCHLII
  2. Amoeboflagellate: NAEGLERIA
A
  1. Granulomatous amoebic meningoencephalitis: ACANTHAMOEBA
  2. Gay bowel syndrome: G. LAMBLIA
  3. Entero-string/String test: G. LAMBLIA