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Potato and Egg > 121-296 > Flashcards

121-296 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. GLASS PIPET: basic pipet
  2. CAPILLARY BLOOD SAMPLES for glucose testing and for other assays are used frequently in many health care facilities for bedside testing, or point-of-care testing (POCT)
A
  1. ANTIDIURETIC HORMONE: hormone produced by the hypothalamus to regulate water reabsorption in the COLLECTING DUCT
  2. RENIN-ANGIOTENSIN-ALDOSTERONE SYSTEM: regulates flow of blood to and within the kidneys by responding to changes in blood pressure and plasma sodium content
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2
Q
  1. MELENA: BLACK, TARRY STOOL associated with gastrointestinal hemorrhage
  2. BULKY/FROTHY STOOL: pancreatic disorder, bile-duct obstruction
  3. RIBBON-LIKE STOOL: intestinal constriction
  4. BLACK STOOL: upper GI bleeding, iron therapy, charcoal, BISMUTH (antacids)
A
  1. AZOOSPERMIA: absence of sperm in a semen sample
  2. OLIGOSPERMIA: low sperm count
  3. SPERMATIDS: immature spermatozoa
  4. SERTOLI CELLS: Part of the germinal epithelium of the seminiferous tubules, give rise to spermatozoa
  5. LEYDIG CELLS: cells of the testicles that produce testosterone
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3
Q
  1. ACROSOMAL CAP: tip of a spermatozoa head, which contains enzymes for entry into an ovum
  2. PROTEIN ERROR OF INDICATORS: color-change phenomenon occurring because PROTEINS ACT AS HYDROGEN ION ACCEPTORS AT A CONSTANT PH
A
  1. SHIFT: abrupt change in the mean of a series of results
  2. TREND: gradual change in one direction of the mean of a control substance
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4
Q
  1. CHAIN OF CUSTODY: step-by-step documentation of the handling and testing of legal specimens
  2. CHAIN OF INFECTION: continuous link in the transmission of harmful microorganisms between a source and a susceptible host
A
  1. TOTAL QUALITY MANAGEMENT (TQM): institutional policy to provide customer satisfaction
  2. CONTINUOUS QUALITY IMPROVEMENT (CQI): institutional program that focuses on customer satisfaction and expectations
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5
Q
  1. FORWARD angle light scatter: light scattered at an angle of less than 90 degrees, which indicates the SIZE OF A CELL
  2. SIDE ANGLE, right angle light scatter: light scattered at 90 degrees in a flow cytometer that indicates the GRANULARITY OF A CELL
A
  1. RADIOIMMUNOSORBENT TEST (RIST): measures TOTAL IgE
  2. RADIOALLERGOSORBENT TEST (RAST): measures ANTIGEN-SPECIFIC IgE
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6
Q
  1. RUBELLA: RNA viral cause of German or 3-day measles
  2. RUBEOLA: single-stranded RNA virus that cause measles
A
  1. DIAPEDESIS: amoeboid movement of cells such as monocytes and polymorphonuclear neutrophils to a site of inflammation in phagocytosis
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7
Q
  1. DiGeorge anomaly: congenital defect of the third and fourth pharyngeal pouches that affects thymic development, leading to a T-cell deficiency. Patients are subject to recurring viral and fungal infections
A
  1. Franklin’s disease: dysproteinemia synonymous with gamma heavy-chain disease. This abnormality is characterized by the presence of monoclonal protein composed of the heavy-chain portion of the immunoglobulin molecule.
  2. Kahler’s disease An alternate term for multiple myeloma.
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8
Q
  1. CARRIER: molecule that when coupled to a hapten, makes the hapten capable of stimulating an immune response
  2. HAPTEN: simple chemical group that can bind to antibody once it is formed but that CANNOT stimulate antibody formation unless tied to a larger carrier molecule
A
  1. EPITOPE: single antigenic determinant. It is functionally the portion of an antigen that combines with an antibody paratope
  2. PARATOPE: part of the antibody molecule that makes contact with the antigenic determinant
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9
Q
  1. SENSITIVITY: frequency of positive results obtained in testing a population of individuals who are positive for antibody
  2. SPECIFICITY: proportion of negative test results obtained in the population of individuals who actually lack the antibody in question
A
  1. ONCOFETAL ANTIGENS: antigens that are expressed in the developing fetus and in rapidly dividing tissue, such as that associated with tumors, but that are absent in normal adult tissue
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10
Q
  1. CARCINOMA: malignant tumor of EPITHELIAL TISSUE origin
  2. SARCOMA: malignant tumor of CONNECTIVE TISSUE origin
A
  1. DOH OIC: Dr. Maria Rosario Singh-Vergeire
  2. DRIVING FORCE of the bicarbonate buffer system is CARBON DIOXIDE.
  3. TURNAROUND TIME (TAT): time from ordering a test through analysis in the laboratory to the charting of the report.
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11
Q
  1. Hazardous chemicals should be labeled with a description of their particular hazard, such as POISONOUS, CORROSIVE OR CARCINOGENIC.
  2. Information contained in the Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) includes the following: physical and chemical characteristics, fire and explosion potential, reactivity potential, health hazards and methods for safe handling.
A
  1. Urinometer is placed with a SPINNING MOTION. The scale reading is then taken at the BOTTOM OF THE URINE MENISCUS.
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12
Q
  1. Studies have shown that although everyone who eats ASPARAGUS produces a urine odor, ONLY certain genetically predisposed people can smell the odor.
  2. CABBAGE urine odor: METHIONINE MALABSORPTION.
A
  1. The heme portion of MYOGLOBIN IS TOXIC TO RENAL TUBULES and high concentrations can cause acute renal failure.
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13
Q
  1. CASTS have tendency to locate NEAR THE EDGES OF THE COVERSLIP.
  2. ETHYLENE GLYCOL (anti-freeze) poisoning: MONOHYDRATE CAOX
  3. TRIPLE PHOSPHATE: coffin-lid or FEATHERY APPEARANCE (as they disintegrate)
A
  1. MAKLER COUNTING CHAMBER provides a method for counting UNDILUTED seminal fluid. Sperms are immobilized by heating part of the specimen prior to charging the chamber.
  2. COMPUTER-ASSISTED SEMEN ANALYSIS (CASA) provides OBJECTIVE determination of both SPERM VELOCITY and TRAJECTORY (DIRECTION OF MOTION).
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14
Q
  1. A maximum of 30 mL AMNIOTIC FLUID is collected in sterile syringes. The first 2 to 3 mL collected can be contaminated by maternal blood, tissue fluid and cells and are discarded.
A
  1. OSMOTIC DIARRHEA: increased RETENTION of water and solutes in the large intestine associated with MALABSORPTION AND MALDIGESTION.
  2. SECRETORY DIARRHEA: increased SECRETION of water and electrolytes into the large intestine caused by BACTERIAL ENTEROTOXINS.
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15
Q
  1. Packed red blood cells LEAK POTASSIUM into the plasma or additive solution of the blood component during storage. Rapid infusion of a large volume of packed red blood cells may put patient populations such as neonates and patients with cardiac, hepatic, or renal dysfunction at risk of developing hyperkalemia. The transient hyperkalemia related to massive transfusion appear to be related to the patient’s acid base balance, ionized calcium levels, and rate of infusion of the packed red blood cells.
A
  1. Significant Antibody titer in HDN:
    HARMENING
    4th edition: significant is 32
    5th edition: significant is 16 to 32
    6th edition: critical titer is 16
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16
Q
  1. BENCHMARKING: individual facility COMPARE ITS RESULTS WITH THOSE OF ITS PEERS
  2. MEAN: average value
  3. MODE: most frequently occurring value
  4. MEDIAN: middle value within range
  5. CONSTANT systematic error - y-intercept
A
  1. PROPORTIONAL systematic error - SLOPE
  2. Fungi (dermatophyte) produces macroconidia that are large, multicellular, and club-shaped with smooth walls: EPIDERMOPHYTON FLOCCOSUM
17
Q
  1. In pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 96% of tumors with CA 19-9 levels >1,000 U/mL are considered UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through surgery).
  2. Reporting Mixed Lymphocyte Reaction: either Stimulation Index (SI) or percent relative response (%RR)
A
  1. ASCHOFF BODIES are nodules found in the hearts of individuals with RHEUMATIC FEVER.
  2. MERCURY: must NOT GO through drain disposal
  3. FORMALDEHYDE WASTES: can be recycled by distillation or by drain disposal, can be detoxified by commercial product, or can be disposed of by licensed waste hauler.
18
Q
  1. BARR (sex chromatin) BODY or DRUMSTICK: represent the second X chromosome in females and may be seen in 2 to 3% of neutrophils in FEMALES. The number of Barr bodies in a cell is one less than the number of X chromosomes present in a cell.
A
  1. DOHLE BODIES: rough endoplasmic reticulum containing RNA and may represent localized failure of the cytoplasm to mature. They are found in infections, poisoning, burns and following chemotherapy.
  2. CHEDIAK-HIGASHI: granulocytes usually contain several very large, reddish-purple or greenish-gray staining granules in the cytoplasm; in the monocytes and lymphocytes they stain bluish purple and may be present singly, or there may be several in one cell. These granules represent ABNORMAL LYSOSOMES.
19
Q
  1. Sickling of the RBCs is maximal at 37C and decreases as the temperature lowers.
  2. Platelets on top of the red cell should not be confused with RBC inclusion body. There is generally a nonstaining halo surrounding the platelet when it is positioned on top of the RBC.
A
  1. ESR: bubbles and fibrin clots, invalid results
  2. HYGROMETERS: measure HUMIDITY
  3. ALCOHOL FIXATIVE CONCENTRATIONS; 70% to 100% because less concentrated solutions will produce lysis of cells.
20
Q
  1. Ethanol and methanol, including Carnoy’s solution are commonly used fixatives for nucleic acids.
  2. MICROWAVE: physical agent similar in mechanism to vacuum oven (heat) and agitation to increase movement of molecules and accelerate fixation. It is also used to accelerate staining, decalcification, immunohistochemistry and electron microscopy.
A
  1. LAST ALCOHOL BATH FOR DEHYDRATION SHOULD BE PURE ETHANOL. A blue discoloration of COPPER SULFATE crystals will indicate FULL SATURATION WITH WATER. Alcohol is then discarded and changed with fresh solution.
21
Q
  1. Skeletal muscle contains bundles of very long, multinucleated cells with cross-striations. Their contraction is quick, forceful, and usually under voluntary control. STRIATED, VOLUNTARY
  2. Cardiac muscle also has cross-striations and is composed of elongated, often branched cells bound to one another at structures called intercalated discs that are unique to cardiac muscle. Contraction is involuntary, vigorous, and rhythmic. STRIATED, INVOLUNTARY
A
  1. Smooth muscle consists of collections of fusiform cells that lack striations and have slow, involuntary contractions. NONSTRIATED, INVOLUNTARY
  2. CASEOUS NECROSIS: cell death produced by the Tubercle Bacillus. In gross state, the necrotic tissue has the appearance of soft, friable CHEESE.
22
Q
  1. Three (3) major changes that are observed in the NUCLEUS: PYKNOSIS, KARYORRHEXIS (segmentation and fragmentation) and KARYOLYSIS (dissolution of the nucleus).
  2. Four (4) phases or stages of CELL DEGENERATION: CLOUDY SWELLING, FATTY DEGENERATION, CELL DEATH OR NECROSIS and CALCIFICATION.
A
  1. BM aspiration is performed by a physician and may be obtained by:
    Needle biopsy: most frequently performed method
    Surgical biopsy
    Percutaneous (entering through the skin) TREPINE (small object used to remove circular section of tissue) biopsy (core of bone with accompanying marrow is obtained
23
Q
  1. Antibody enhanced by ACIDIFYING THE PATIENT SERUM: anti-M
  2. Most common cause of transfusion reactions: CLERICAL ERRORS
  3. Donor unit SEAL HAS BEEN BROKEN: DISCARD THE UNIT
  4. Noticeable clots in RBC unit: DO NOT ISSUE THE UNIT, indication of contamination or bacterial growth
A
  1. FIRST STEP in laboratory investigation of transfusion reaction: CHECK FOR CLERICAL ERRORS
  2. SAGM, ADSOL shelf life: 42 days
  3. REJUVENATION or red blood cells may be performed up to 3 days after the red cell expire
  4. Preparation of leukopoor RBCs: filtering, centrifugation and washing
24
Q
  1. Longest expiration date: FROZEN RBCs
  2. Component of choice for vWD: CRYOPRECIPITATE
  3. Transfusion of BUFFY COAT IS BEST INDICATED for: NEWBORNS with severe infections
  4. Test performed on blood that will be transfused to an acidotic or hypoxic infant: HEMOGLOBIN S
A
  1. CD marker responsible for E-rosette formation between T cells and sheep RBCs: CD2
  2. Joining (J) chain: IgM and secretory IgA
  3. Ig that helps initiate the classical complement pathway: IgM and IgG
  4. Primary immune response: IgM
  5. Highest titer in secondary response: IgG
  6. Immunoglobulin crosslinks mast cells to release histamine: IgE
25
Q
  1. Substance detected by RPR and VDRL test: REAGIN
  2. Test for HIV infection in infants who are born to HIV-positive mothers: PCR
  3. Best indicator of early acute HBV infection: HBsAg
  4. First antibody detected in serum after infection with HBV: anti-HBc
A
  1. Blood products are tested for which virus before being transfused to newborns: CMV
  2. Anti-smooth muscle (ASMA) antibodies: chronic active hepatitis
  3. Nuclear matrix protein (NMP-22): urinary bladder cancer
26
Q
  1. Last stage in the erythrocytic series capable of mitosis: POLYCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST
  2. Last nucleated stage in the erythrocytic series: ORTHOCHROMATOPHILIC NORMOBLAST
  3. Appearance of primary/nonspecific granules: PROMYELOCYTE
  4. Appearance of secondary/specific granules: MYELOCYTE
  5. Last stage in the granulocytic series capable of mitosis: MYELOCYTE
A
  1. Youngest cell in the granulocytic series to NORMALLY appear in peripheral blood: BAND
  2. Preferable site for BM aspiration and biopsy in adult: ILIAC CREST
  3. Miller disc is an ocular device to facilitate counting of: RETICULOCYTES
  4. Organ that removes erythrocyte inclusions without destroying the cell: SPLEEN
27
Q
  1. Megaloblastic anemia: MACROCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC
  2. Anemia in sickle cell disease: NORMOCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC
  3. Iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia: MICROCYTIC, HYPOCHROMIC
A
  1. AUTOSPLENECTOMY occurs in SICKLE CELL ANEMIA
  2. PCH: Anti-P, DONATH-LANDSTEINER ANTIBODY
  3. Major leukocyte in aplastic anemia: LYMPHOCYTES
  4. BITE CELLS in G6PD deficiency
28
Q
  1. Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia: schistocytes and nucleated RBCs
  2. ANTIBIOTIC implicated in aplastic anemia: CHLORAMPHENICOL
  3. Type of anemia in acute leukemia: NORMOCYTIC, NORMOCHROMIC
A
  1. Hodgkin’s disease: REED-STERNBERG CELLS
  2. Myelofibrosis: TEARDROP RBCs
  3. DIC is most often associated with M3: acute promyelocytic leukemia
  4. Peripheral smear of patient with MULTIPLE MYELOMA: ROULEAUX
29
Q
  1. Franklin’s disease: GAMMA HEAVY CHAIN DISEASE
  2. TRAP: Hairy cell leukemia
  3. CD 10: Common ALL (CALLA)
  4. PT and APTT result in patient with polycythemia: BOTH PROLONGED
A
  1. PRIMARY INHIBITOR OF FIBRINOLYTIC SYSTEM: ALPHA2-ANTIPLASMIN
  2. Lupus anticoagulant is directed against: PHOSPHOLIPID
  3. ASPIRIN inhibits CYCLOOXYGENASE

In pancreatic adenocarcinoma, 96% of tumors with CA 19-9 levels >1,000 U/mL are considered UNRESECTABLE (cannot be removed completely through surgery)

30
Q
  1. Primary importance of FROZEN SECTIONS: RAPID DIAGNOSIS
  2. 3Fs: FATS/FORMALIN/FROZEN SECTIONS
  3. Carbohydrate fixation: ALCOHOLIC FIXATIVES
A
  1. Protein fixation: NEUTRAL BUFFERED FORMALDEHYDE OR FORMALDEHYDE VAPOR
  2. Glycogen fixation: ALCOHOL-BASED such as Rossman’s fluid or cold absolute alcohol
  3. MERCURIC CHLORIDE: fixative of choice for TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY
31
Q
  1. Zenker’s fluid: LIVER, SPLEEN, CONNECTIVE TISSUE FIBERS and NUCLEI
  2. Zenker’s-formol (Helly’s): PITUITARY GLAND, BM, BLOOD-CONTAINING ORGANS SUCH AS SPLEEN AND LIVER
A
  1. Heidenhain’s susa solution: TUMOR BIOPSIES ESPECIALLY SKIN
  2. Regaud’s (Moller’s/Muller’s) fluid: CHROMATIN, MITOTIC FIGURES, GOLGI BODIES, RBC and colloid-containing tissues
  3. Orth’s fluid: study of early degenerative process and tissue necrosis, demonstrates rickettsia and other bacteria
32
Q
  1. LEAD FIXATIVES: ACID MUCOPOLYSACCHARIDES
  2. BOUIN’S: fixation of embryos and pituitary biopsies
  3. Bouin’s is NOT SUITABLE FOR FIXING KIDNEY structures, lipid and mucus
A
  1. Glacial acetic acid solidifies at 17C. SEVENTEEN
  2. Carnoy’s fluid: CHROMOSOMES, LYMPH GLAND AND URGENT BIOPSIES
  3. Newcomer’s fluid: fixing of mucopolysaccharides and nuclear proteins
33
Q
  1. NITRIC ACID: most common and fastest decalcifying agent
  2. PERENYI’S FLUID: decalcifies and softens tissues at the same time
  3. X-ray or radiological method: most ideal, most sensitive method for determining the extent of decalcification
A
  1. Embedding medium for electron microscopy: EPON (PLASTIC MEDIUM)
  2. Manual H and E staining: REGRESSIVE STAINING
  3. Flotation water bath: 45 to 50C, approximately 6-10C lower than the mp of wax
34
Q
  1. ORCEIN: vegetable dye extracted from LICHENS
  2. IODINE: probably the oldest of all stains
  3. JANUS GREEN: demonstrating MITOCHONDRIA
  4. Stain for the basement membrane: PAS, AZOCARMINE
A
  1. Stain for Helicobacter pylori: TOLUIDINE BLUE, CRESYL VIOLET ACETATE
  2. Mountant refractive index should be as close as possible to that of the glass slide which is 1.518
  3. POLYCLONAL ANTIBODIES: most frequently used animal is the RABBIT followed by goat, pig, sheep, horse, guinea pig and others
  4. MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES: MICE

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