Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Potato and Egg > 297-396 > Flashcards

297-396 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is: CONSISTENTLY ALKALINE
  2. Daily loss of protein in urine, normally does not exceed: 150 mg
  3. Renal threshold for glucose is: 160 to 180 mg/dL
  4. Hemoglobin differentiated from myoglobin: ammonium sulfate (BLONDHEIM’S TEST)
A
  1. Sternheimer-Malbin stain: CRYSTAL VIOLET AND SAFRANIN
  2. Pseudocasts: formed by amorphous urates
  3. Moderate hematuria and RBC casts: ACUTE GLOMERULOPNEPHRITIS
  4. Pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts: PYELONEPHRITIS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Crystals appears in urine as long, thin hexagonal plate, and is linked to ingestion of large amounts of benzoic acid: HIPPURIC ACID
  2. Oval fat bodies: lipid-containing RTE cells
A
  1. GREATEST PROTEINURIA: NEPHROTIC SYNDROME (Heavy Proteinuria >4 g/day)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. Whewellite and weddellite kidney stones: CALCIUM OXALATE
  2. Struvite: TRIPLE PHOSPHATE/magnesium ammonium phosphate
  3. Apatite: CALCIUM PHOSPHATE
A
  1. Limulus lysate test: Gram negative bacterial endotoxin
  2. Amoeba in CSF: characteristic pseudopod mobility in WET PREP ON PRE-WARMED SLIDE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. GOUT: uric acid or monosodium urate
  2. PSEUDOGOUT: calcium pyrophosphate
A
  1. BEST TEST for determining the status of the fetoplacental unit: SERUM FREE ESTRIOL
  2. SPERM with SMALL OR ABSENT HEADPIECE: acrosomal deficiency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Most common cause of male infertility: VARICOCELE
  2. Stain of choice for SPERM MORPHOLOGY: Pap’s stain
A
  1. Stain to determine SEPRM VIABILITY: EOSIN
  2. Serum GASTRIN levels would be greatest in: ZOLLINGER-ELLISON SYNDROME
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Blood should NEVER be drawn from a vein in an arm with a CANNULA (temporary dialysis access device) or FISTULA (a permanent surgical fusion of a vein and an artery).
  2. Glassware CLEANING SOLUTION: ACID DICHROMATE
A
  1. HOLLOW CATHODE LAMP is used in AAS
  2. Gaussian (normal) distribution: Mean = median = mode
  3. Material with physical and chemical properties closely resembling the test specimen and containing preanalyzed concentrations of the substances being measured: CONTROL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Material of known composition available in a highly purified form: STANDARD
  2. Measuring potassium, antibiotic incorporated into the membrane: VALINOMYCIN
A
  1. Sodium: YELLOW FLAME
    Lithium produces a red flame
    Sodium a yellow flame
    Potassium a violet flame
    Rubidium a red flame
    Magnesium a blue flame
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Reliable index of intestinal carbohydrate absorption: D-XYLOSE
  2. Condensation of glucose with aromatic amine in hot glacial acetic acid solution to produce a green-colored product: O-TOLUIDINE
A
  1. REFERENCE METHOD for glucose: HEXOKINASE
  2. Split in the albumin band: BISALBUMINEMIA
  3. Compound normally found in urine that may be used to assess the completeness of a 24-hour urine collection: CREATININE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Myocardial infarction: CK then AST then LD
  2. Specimen of choice for analysis of acid-base disturbances: ARTERIAL BLOOD
  3. Anticoagulant of choice for blood gas analysis: HEPARIN
A
  1. Symptom of HYPOCALCEMIA: TETANY
  2. Calcium and phosphate metabolism is regulated by the: PARATHYROID
  3. In the blood, bicarbonate leaves the RBCs and enters the plasma through an exchange mechanism with: CHLORIDE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Major mineralocorticoid: ALDOSTERONE
  2. Adrenal medulla secretes this hormone in the greatest quantity: EPINEPHRINE
  3. Hollander insulin test is used to confirm: VAGOTOMY
A
  1. Most potent estrogen: ESTRADIOL
  2. Assay to monitor the fetoplacental unit: ESTRIOL
  3. Hormone associated with galactorrhea, pituitary adenoma, and amenorrhea: PROLACTIN
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is characterized by elevation of: GASTRIN
  2. Conn’s disease: PRIMARY HYPERALDOSTERONISM caused by adrenal adenoma, carcinoma or hyperplasia
A
  1. Increased 5-HIAA: ARGENTAFFINOMA, carcinoid tumor composed of argentaffin cells. Carcinoid tumors are usually found in the intestine or lung.
  2. Thyroid hormones are derived from the amino acid: TYROSINE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Pharmacological parameters that determine serum drug concentration: liberation, absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion (LADME)
  2. Route of drug administration associated with 100% bioavailability: INTRAVENOUS
A
  1. TRINDER REACTION: SALICYLATE
  2. Acetaminophen (paracetamol) is particularly toxic to the LIVER
  3. Increased trough levels of AMINOGLYCOSIDES in the serum are often associated with toxic effects to the KIDNEY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Aminoglycoside: NEPHROTOXIC (toxic to KIDNEYS) and OTOTOXIC (EARS)
  2. Specimen appropriate for determining exposure to lead: WHOLE BLOOD
  3. HEROIN is synthesized from MORPHINE
A
  1. TETRAHYDROCANNABINOL (THC) is the principal active component of MARIJUANA
  2. ODOR OF BITTER ALMONDS: CYANIDE POISONING
  3. Garlic on breath, metallic taste on mouth. ARSENIC HAS HIGH AFFINITY TO KERATIN.Analysis of urine, hair, and nails, using ion emission spectroscopy, is important for the diagnosis of chronic ARSENIC poisoning (Henry).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

S. aureus - old sock
P. aeruginosa - fruity or grapelike
P. mirabilis - putrid

A

Haemophilus - musty basement, “mousy” or “mouse nest”
Nocardia spp.- freshly plowed field
CM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Total renal BLOOD flow: 1,200 mL/min
  2. Total renal PLASMA flow: 600 to 700 mL/min
  3. Glomerulus serves as nonselective filter (SIEVE) of plasma substances with MW of less than 70,000 daltons
A
  1. Serum osmolarity: 275 to 300 mOsm
  2. Urine osmolarity range: 50 and 1,400 mOsm
  3. Normal person excretes approximately 70 mEq/day of acid in the form of titratable acid (H+) or ammonium ions (NH4+)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Urine volume range 600 to 2,000 mL in 24 hours
  2. Urine volume average 1,200 to 1,500 mL in 24 hours
  3. Normal random urine pH: pH 4.5 to 8
  4. First morning urine pH: 5 to 6
A
  1. 1 g/dL protein, raise urine specific gravity by refractometer or urinometer by 0.003
  2. 1 g/dL glucose, raise urine specific gravity by refractometer or urinometer by 0.004
17
Q
  1. Calibration of refractometer using distilled water: 1.000
  2. Calibration of refractometer using 5% NaCl: 1.022 ± 0.001
  3. Calibration of refractometer using 9% Sucrose: 1.034 ± 0.001
A
  1. Urine protein: less than 10 mg/dL or 100 mg/24 hours (Henry less than 150mg/24 hours)
  2. Significant AER: 20 to 200 ug/min or 30 to 300 mg albumin/24 hours
  3. Renal threshold for glucose is 160 to 180 mg/dL
18
Q
  1. Ketones: 78% BHA, 20% AAA and 2% Acetone
  2. Concentration of myoglobin must be at least 25 mg/dL before a red pigmentation can be visualized
  3. Ehrlich’s units (EU) are EQUAL to mg/dL
A
  1. Normal values for the Addis count: 0 to 500,000 RBCs, 0 to 1,800,000 WBCs and epithelial cells and 0 to 5,000 hyaline casts in a 12-hour urine
  2. Centrifugation for urine microscopic exam: 400 RCF for 5 minutes
19
Q
  1. Volume of sediment, glass slide method 20 uL or 0.02 mL covered by 22 x 22 mm coverslip
A
  1. More than 2 RTE cells/hpf indicates tubular injury and specimens should be referred for cytologic urine testing
20
Q
  1. Approximately 20 mL of CSF is produced every hour in the choroid plexuses and reabsorbed by the arachnoid villi
  2. Total volume in adult: newer edition Strasinger 90 to 150 mL (old edition 140 to 170 mL)
A
  1. Total volume in neonate: 10 to 60 mL
  2. Normal adult CSF 0 to 5 WBCs/uL
  3. Neonates 0 to 30 WBCs/uL
  4. Reactive lymphocytes in CSF, viral infections
21
Q
  1. Moderately elevated WBC count (less than 50 WBCs/uL) with increased normal and reactive lymphocytes and plasma cells may be indicative of MS or other degenerating neurologic disorders
  2. Increased eosinophils in CSF: parasitic infections, fungal infections primarily COCCIDIOIDES IMMITIS
A
  1. CSF glucose is approximately 60 to 70 percent that of plasma glucose
  2. Normal CSF protein: 15 to 45 mg/dL
  3. Normal concentration of glutamine in CSF: 8 to 18 mg/dL

Potato and Egg (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions