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Kaitlyn BIO 201 > 202 Lecture Exam 1 > Flashcards

202 Lecture Exam 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

What stimulates glucocorticoids?

A

ACTH and blood volume

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2
Q

What is NIDDM?

A

Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

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3
Q

Which hormones are water-soluble amino acid polymers?

A

Peptide hormones

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4
Q

Which form of diabetes causes sugar build up in the urine?

A

Diabetes mellitus

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5
Q

Which form of Diabetes Mellitus is autoimmune?

A

Type 1

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6
Q

How many cell proteins can one hormone affect?

A

Thousands

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7
Q

If someone has no beta islets in their pancreas, what condition are they suffering from?

A

IDDM (type 1)

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8
Q

What do steroid hormones do once inside the cell?

A

Combine with nuclear or cytoplasmic receptors and bind to chromosomes and activate gene transcription

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9
Q

What are the three types of hormone release mechanisms?

A
  1. Endocrine system - adrenal cortex releasing hormones after stimulation by ACTH
  2. Humoral control system - PTH based on blood calcium
  3. Neural control system - nerves trigger release of hormones (ex. nerve impulses to adrenal medulla trigger epinephrine)
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10
Q

What defines a target tissue?

A

Hormone receptors

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11
Q

What causes Type 2 diabetes?

A

Loss of insulin receptors on cells, so glucose can’t enter

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12
Q

What do Gonadocoticoids eventually become?

A

Estrogen and Testosterone

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13
Q

Why does excessive beer consumption trigger gynecomastia?

A

Xenoestrogens in hops

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14
Q

Which thyroid hormone determines your energy?

A

T3

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15
Q

What are xenoestrogens?

A

Estrogens from outside sources

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16
Q

How do the paracrine and endocrine systems differ from neurotransmitters?

A

Neurotransmitters use hormones to stimulate action potentials in the nervous system, they are part of the nervous system

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17
Q

What are two examples of steroid hormones?

A

Cortisol and Testosterone

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18
Q

Where is the production of estrogen in pre-menopausal versus post-menopausal women?

A

Pre-menopause: ovaries and adrenal cortex

Post-menopause: adrenal cortex

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19
Q

Which hormone is derived from cholesterol and lipid soluble?

A

Steroid hormones

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20
Q

What is a target tissue?

A

A tissue that possesses specific receptors which bind to a given hormone

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21
Q

Why would high TSH levels indicate a low-functioning thyroid?

A

Thyroid would compensate for low function by triggering more TSH; hypothalamus initiates loop but T4 isn’t made

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22
Q

Epinephrine and Dopamine are what kind of hormone?

A

Amine

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23
Q

What is the role of estrogen in breast cancer?

A

Fuels some types of it

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24
Q

What are the symptoms of diabetes mellitus?

A

Polyuria (excess urination), polyphagia (excess eating), polydypsia (excess hunger and thirst), sugar in urine

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25
Q

What is the significance of steroid hormones being fat-soluble?

A

They can diffuse through the cell surface

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26
Q

What kind of hormone are ADH and Oxytocin?

A

Peptide

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27
Q

Are amine hormones water soluble?

A

Yes

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28
Q

To what do amine and peptide hormones have to bind?

A

Cell membrane receptors

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29
Q

What are symptoms of hypothyroidism?

A

Weight gain, fatigue, low body temperature, dry skin, constipation

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30
Q

What would happen if you gave AI to a pre-menopausal woman?

A

It would not work. AI would not inhibit the main source of estrogen coming from the ovaries

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31
Q

What drug is used to block estrogen in some forms of breast cancer?

A

Aromatase inhibitor (AI)

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32
Q

What controls the release of thyroid hormone?

A

Negative feedback from blood concentration of T4

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33
Q

What is the humoral control system?

A

It involves changes in the blood triggering the release of certain hormones

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34
Q

If T4 is high, what does the thyroid do?

A

Produces less TSH and TRH

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35
Q

If T4 is high, what does the thyroid do?

A

Produces more TSH and TRH

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36
Q

What are the symptoms of diabetes insipidus?

A

Excessive urination, unsweet urine

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37
Q

Which part of the pituitary synthesizes and stores its own hormones?

A

Anterior pituitary

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38
Q

What is the name of corticoids that increase blood glucose?

A

Glucocorticoids (like cortisol)

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39
Q

How is acromegaly different from pituitary gigantism?

A

Pituitary gigantism = too much GH in childhood

Acromegaly = excess GH in adulthood - large jaw and hands, but can’t grow taller

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40
Q

What is the pancreas releasing insulin or glucagon an example of?

A

Humoral control system

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41
Q

Why are there more hormones to increase blood sugar than to decrease it?

A

You can live with high blood sugar indefinitely, but low blood sugar kills you in minutes because every system in the body uses glucose

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42
Q

What is formed by the axons of neurosecretory cells that originate in the hypothalamus?

A

The hypothalamo-hypophyseal tract

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43
Q

What would happen to ghrelin levels if a person receives an atropine injection?

A

Ghrelin inhibited, wouldn’t feel hunger, block parasympathetic nervous system

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44
Q

What does the binding of hormones to a cell membrane receptor trigger?

A

G-protein pathway, secondary messenger, cell response

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45
Q

What does the conversion of T4 to T3 require?

A

Minerals

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46
Q

What can increase the concentration of a hormone in the blood?

A

Stimulation of an endocrine gland

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47
Q

What causes diabetes mellitus?

A

Prolonged elevated blood glucose

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48
Q

What are the end products of steroid hormones working in cells?

A

mRNA and new proteins

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49
Q

What is aromatization?

A

The conversion of male hormones into female hormones using aromatase (enzyme)

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50
Q

What is the name of corticoids that are stimulated by ACTH and low blood volume and reabsord Na+ and water?

A

Mineralocorticoids (including aldosterone)

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51
Q

What is IDDM?

A

Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus (Insulin Dependent DM)

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52
Q

Which 3 minerals does the body need to make T3?

A

Zinc, Selenium, and Copper

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53
Q

What two things determine specificity on a target tissue?

A

Presence of absence of receptor and location of receptor

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54
Q

Explain the composition of the posterior pituitary

A

Made of axons from the hypothalamus, myelinated neurons, store the hormones made in the hypothalamus

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55
Q

What are some of the side-functions of oxytocin?

A

Milk letdown, trust, bonding

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56
Q

What is it called when the activation of one protein activates several others in a chain reaction?

A

Amplification

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57
Q

Is prostate cancer caused by excess testosterone?

A

No, excess DHT causes it, but testosterone does not

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58
Q

What are Gonadocorticoids?

A

steroid hormones, stimulated by ACTH, aid in sex characteristic developement

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59
Q

What is the classification of atropine?

A

Cholinergic antagonist

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60
Q

What is the name of steroids and androgens produced in the adrenal medulla?

A

Corticoids

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61
Q

What is the difference between paracrine and endocrine hormones?

A

Paracrine hormones act on neighboring cells, localized

Endocrine releases hormones into the blood to circulate to intended target

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62
Q

What are some examples of xenoestrogens?

A

plastic bottles, beef, eggs, milk, soy, flax, hops

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63
Q

What regulates anterior pituitary hormone production?

A

Hypothalamus

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64
Q

When hormones modify amino acids, what are formed?

A

Amine hormones

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65
Q

Which form of diabetes is caused by loss of ADH secretion?

A

Diabetes insipidus

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66
Q

What is plasma?

A

The clear liquid left when the formed elements are taken from the blood

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67
Q

What is blood plasma made of?

A

Mostly water but also solutes made of protein (albumin)

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68
Q

What are formed elements?

A

RBC, WBC, and platelets

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69
Q

What is the structure and function of erythrocytes?

A

biconcave disc, no nuclei; transport most oxygen and some CO2

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70
Q

What is the structure and function of Leukocytes?

A

S: round or slighly indented, larger than RBC, varies depending on type
F: mediate immune responses involving antigens

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71
Q

What is the structure and function of platelets?

A

S: small cell fragments with many vesicles but no nucleus
F: form platelet plug, release chemicals that promote vascular spasm and blood clotting

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72
Q

Which leukocytes are granular?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

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73
Q

Which leukocytes are agranular?

A

Monocytes, lymphocytes

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74
Q

What are the three types of protein found in the plasma and what are their general functions?

A
  1. Albumin: transport solutes, buffer pH, change viscosity and osmolarity
  2. Globulins: Solute transport, clotting, immunity
  3. Fibrinogen: fibrin precursor (protein that forms framework of blood clot)
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75
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

Cancer of erythropoietic line of red bone marrow, hight RBC count

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76
Q

What is leukopenia?

A

Low WBC count

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77
Q

What is leukemia?

A

Cancer of hemopoietic tissues, too many leukocytes and their precursors

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78
Q

What is anemia?

A

Not enough RBC

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79
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

A dangerous platelet deficiency

80
Q

What is thrombocytosis?

A

Too many platelets

81
Q

Which form of anemia is caused by a lack of iron intake or slow bleeding?

A

Iron-deficiency anemia

82
Q

Which form of anemia is caused by a lack of B12 or folic acid?

A

Pernicious anemia

83
Q

What is anemia caused by chronic inflammation such as arthritis or gastritis?

A

Anemia of chronic inflammation

84
Q

Which form of anemia is caused by heavy bleeding?

A

Hemorrhagic anemia

85
Q

What is aplastic anemia?

A

Anemia due to damage to bone marrow when the red blood cells are made

86
Q

What can cause aplastic anemia?

A

Chemotherapy and radiation

87
Q

What are the defining characteristics of microcytic anemia?

A

Small RBCs

88
Q

What kind of anemia are iron-deficiency and hemorrhagic?

A

Microcytic anemias

89
Q

What kind of anemia is pernicious anemia?

A

Macrocytic anemia (large RBCs)

90
Q

What is a reticulocyte?

A

the precursor to erythrocytes

91
Q

When would many reticulocytes be found in the body?

A

When many RBCs are being made in the bone marrow to replace lost RBCs, such as in hemorrhagic anemia

92
Q

What is the lifespan of a erythrocyte?

A

Develop to maturity in 7 days, live 120 days

93
Q

How does a erythrocyte die?

A

Its membrane wears down, it goes to the spleen and liver which phagocytize it and send bilirubin and iron back into circulation or out through the stools or urine

94
Q

What determines the formation of new RBCs?

A

increase in altitude or blood loss

95
Q

What causes formation of new WBCs?

A

infection or cancer

96
Q

What are the four different types of leukemia?

A
  1. Acute Myeloblastic Leukemia (AML)
  2. Chronic Myeloblastic Leukemia (CML)
  3. Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia (ALL)
  4. Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia (CLL)
97
Q

Which forms of leukemias involve any of the WBCs except lymphocytes?

A

Myelocytic (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, monocytes)

98
Q

Where do t cells mature?

A

Thymus

99
Q

Where do B cells mature?

A

Bone marrow

100
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

A sequence of responses that stops bleeding

101
Q

What are the two mechanisms of hemostasis?

A

Vascular spasm and platelet plug formation

102
Q

What is vascular spasm?

A

When arteries or arterioles are damaged and the circularly arranged smooth muscle in their walls contracts immediately

103
Q

What three things can cause vascular spasm?

A
  1. Smooth muscle damage
  2. Substance release from other platelets
  3. Reflexes from pain receptors
104
Q

How long does vascular spasm last?

A

A few minutes to a few hours while other mechanisms kick in

105
Q

What are the three steps of platelet plug formation?

A
  1. Platelet adhesion - contact and stick to damaged vessel
  2. Degranulation - platelets extend projections and interact, release ADP and throboxane A2 to activate other platelets
  3. Platelet Plug ft. Platelet Aggregation - ADP makes platelets stick to each other, mass forms, prevents blood loss
106
Q

What is platelet plug formation an example of?

A

Positive feedback

107
Q

How is Thrombin formed?

A

Prothrombin activator converts Prothrobin into Thrombin

108
Q

What is thrombin?

A

An enzyme

109
Q

What role does Thrombin play in coagulation?

A

It converts Fibrinogen to Fibrin and helps Fibrin mesh to trap blood cells and seal holes

110
Q

Which mineral plays a crucial role in blood clotting?

A

Calcium

111
Q

How are blood clots dissolved?

A

They are dissolved by the fibrinolytic system

112
Q

What is the role of plasminogen in dissolving blood clots?

A

It is activated by blood enzymes to become plasmin, which digests the fibrin threads

113
Q

Which factors of a clot does plasmin digest?

A

Fibrinogen, prothrombin, and V and XII factors

114
Q

What is heparin?

A

Anticoagulants produced by mast cells and basophils

115
Q

What two anticoagulants block thrombin?

A

Heparin and antithrombin

116
Q

How does Warfarin work and what does it do?

A

Antagonistic to vitamin K to stop synthesis of 4 clotting factors; anticoagulant

117
Q

Is Warfarin or Heparin faster at preventing inappropriate coagulation?

A

Heparin

118
Q

What makes blood red?

A

Iron in the middle of the heme group

119
Q

Scientific name for too many cells

A

Cytosis

120
Q

Name for not enough cells

A

-penia

121
Q

Name for something related to blood

A

-emia

122
Q

What two things would occur if hemoglobin were reduced?

A
  1. microcytic = cells get smaller

2. hypochromatic = less color

123
Q

Why do iron pills often fail to help anemia?

A

No always iron-deficiency anemia; ID anemia and ACI look the same

124
Q

What are the three precursor cells for red blood cells?

A

Stem cell, erythroblast, and reticulocyte

125
Q

What is erythropoeisis?

A

Production of red blood cells

126
Q

What activates erythropoeisis?

A

Erythropoietin

127
Q

What negative side effect can tooth infections cause?

A

Endocarditis

128
Q

Describe the pericardium

A 
Fibrous pericardium
Parietal pericardium (outer layer of serous membrane)
Visceral pericardium (inner layer of serous membrane)
129
Q

What is another name for the visceral layer of the pericardium?

A

Epicardium

130
Q

What is the structure and function of the epicardium?

A

Thin, transparent, slippery; allows heart to pump smoothly

131
Q

What is the name, structure, and function of the middle layer of the heart?

A

Myocardium; muscle; pumps

132
Q

What is the name, structure, and function of the inner layer of the heart?

A

Endocardium; smooth lining; covers valves

133
Q

What do valve defects do in the heart?

A

Cause blood to regurgitate back into the ventricles, making the ventricles contract harder to overcome the pressure

134
Q

What are the two circuits of circulation?

A

Pulmonary circuit and systemic circuit

135
Q

What part of the heart does the right coronary artery serve?

A

right atrium and both ventricles

136
Q

What part of the heart does the left coronary artery serve?

A

Left atrium and both ventricles

137
Q

What is coronary artery disease (CAD)?

A

Build up of plaque in arteries that slows blood flow, sometimes stopping it

138
Q

What composes the plaque in CAD?

A

Fats, cholesterol, calcium, blood substances

139
Q

If complete blockage of an artery occurs, what is the outcome?

A

Myocardial infarction

140
Q

Describe the 5 steps of the intrinsic conduction system of the heart

A
  1. SA node - electrical pacemaker, self-depolarizes
  2. AV node - allows current to ventricles
  3. Bundle of His - carries AV node signals
  4. Bundle branches - travels down interventricular septum
  5. Purkinje fibers - allow myocytes of ventricles to receive electrial stimulation
141
Q

Which node in the heart depolarizes more frequently?

A

SA node (70-80 bpm)

142
Q

If both nodes were lost, what system would kick in?

A

Ventricular walls would try to generate their own action potentials (20-40 bpm), death would occur

143
Q

What is the role of the AV nodal delay in coordinating cardiac systole?

A

Allows both atria to complete their contraction and empty into ventricles completely before the ventricles contract

144
Q

What two places does calcium need to come from in order for muscle contraction to occur?

A

Outside the cell sarcolemma and from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

145
Q

What is the cardiac muscle refractory period?

A

250 msec

146
Q

Why is the cardiac refractory period longer than that of skeletal muscles?

A

Prevents tetany

147
Q

How is the cardiac refractory period maintained?

A

Slow entry of calcium into muscle cell, allows movement of potassium outside the cells (maintains voltage and depol longer)

148
Q

What does the P wave correspond to in the heart?

A

Atrial depolarization

149
Q

What is systole?

A

contraction

150
Q

On an EKG what corresponds to the QRS complex?

A

Ventricular depolarization and systole

151
Q

What is the T wave on an EKG?

A

Ventricular repolarization

152
Q

What is the end-diastolic volume?

A

The volume of blood remaining in the ventricle at the end of its relaxation period

153
Q

What is the end-systolic volume?

A

The volume of blood remaining in each ventricle at the end of systole

154
Q

How do you calculate stroke volume (SV)?

A

SV = EDV - ESV

155
Q

What is the name of the volume of blood ejected from the left or right ventricle into the aorta or pulmonary trunk each minute?

A

Cardiac Output

156
Q

How do you calculate Cardiac Output?

A

CO = SV(mL/beat) x HR (beats/min)

157
Q

How does the autonomous nervous system influence cardiac output?

A

Sympathetic - increases (more depol at SA node, more norepinephrine, more beating)
Parasympathetic - decreases (through vagus nerve, less depol at SA and AV)

158
Q

Does the sympathetic or parasympathetic nervous system affect myocardium contractility?

A

Sympathetic

159
Q

What is the Frank-Starling Law of the heart?

A

It states that the stroke volume is proportional to the EDV

160
Q

What is the general principle behind the Frank-Starling law?

A

The more blood filling a ventricle during diastole, the stronger it will contract

161
Q

What is preload?

A

The amount of tension in the ventricular myocardium directly prior to contraction

162
Q

What is the structure and function of the Tunica adventitia?

A

S: elastic and collagen fibers
F: protect and reinforce vessels and anchor it to surrounding structures

163
Q

WHat is the structure and function of the Tunica media?

A

S: smooth muscles and elastic fibers
F: constrict or dilate to change lumen diameter

164
Q

What is the structure and function of the Tunica intima?

A

S: Lining of endothelium, basement membrane, internal elastic lamina
F: In contact with blood in lumen, can have pores in capillaries

165
Q

What is the role of LDL and macrophages in the the development of atherosclerotic plaques?

A

Cholesterol eats the free radicals and becomes ox-LDL, which macrophages eat, become foam cells; foam cells, macrophages, and T cells form beginning of plaque

166
Q

Which capillaries are found in most tissues?

A

Continuous capillaries

167
Q

In continuous capillaries, what allows small solutes to pass through?

A

Intercellular clefts

168
Q

Which kind of capillaries are found in the kidneys or the small intestine?

A

Fenestrated capillaries

169
Q

What is a sinusoid capillary?

A

Irregular capillaries that conform to the shape of the tissue that it is around, twisted with no basal lamina, huge gaps

170
Q

Where are sinusoid capillaries found?

A

LIver, bone marrow, spleen, and other organs

171
Q

What is the name of the rate at which blood flows through a certain tissue in a certain amount of time?

A

Flow rate

172
Q

What is the blood pressure gradient?

A

The idea that blood follow the pressure gradient from greater to lower pressure

173
Q

If the pressure difference of blood is great, what will the flow rate do?

A

Increase

174
Q

Greater blood resistance leads to …?

A

smaller blood flow

175
Q

What is resistance (as relates to blood)?

A

Opposition to the blood flow caused by friction between the blood and the walls of the blood vessels

176
Q

What are three factors responsible for resistance?

A
  1. size of lumen
  2. viscosity of blood
  3. length of blood vessel
177
Q

In vasoconstriction, what happens to blood flow?

A

smaller blood flow

178
Q

What state does a vein need to be in to stimulate blood flow?

A

Vasodialation

179
Q

How does the systemic vascular resistance effect the blood pressure measurement?

A

narrowed blood vessels make the heart pump harder and the blood pressure increase

180
Q

What is vasoconstriction?

A

The autonomic nervous system causing the smooth muscles in the tunica media to contract

181
Q

What is the term for lack of oxygen to a tissue?

A

Ischemia

182
Q

What is angina?

A

Pain

183
Q

What is ischemia at the legs due to a blockage of blood flow?

A

Intermittent claudication

184
Q

What is an aneurysm?

A

A bulge in the walls of an artery due to weak wall

185
Q

What is the function of the hepatic portal system?

A

Direct blood from GI tract to liver for processing to protect the body from harmful substances

186
Q

What is vascular tone and what is its function?

A

The degree of constriction experienced by a blood vessel relative to its maximally dilated state; regulates arterial blood pressure

187
Q

What is the relationship between cross-sectional area and velocity?

A

Velocity of blood flow is inversely related to the cross-section

188
Q

Why is blood velocity low in capillaries?

A

To keep from bursting the delicate capillaries

189
Q

What is the definition of filtration and what two pressures promote it?

A

Pressure driven movement of fluid from blood capillaries into interstitial fluid; BHP and IFOP

190
Q

What is re-absorption and what two pressures promote re-absorption?

A

Pressure driven movement of fluid/solutes from interstitial back into blood capillaries; BCOP and IFHP

191
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure?

A

The pressure of water in blood plasma exerting against blood vessel walls

192
Q

What does BHP do in the body?

A

Pushes fluid out of capillaries into interstitial fluid

193
Q

What does IFHP do in the body?

A

Pushes fluid from interstitial spaces back to capillaries

194
Q

What is osmotic pressure?

A

The pulling power of proteins in blood plasma

195
Q

What does BCOP do in the body?

A

Pulls fluid from interstitial spaces to capillaries

196
Q

What does IFOP do in the body?

A

Pulls fluid from capillaries into the interstitial fluid

197
Q

How do you calculate Net Filtration Pressure?

A

NFP = (BHP+IFOP) - (BCOP+IFHP)

Net Filtration Pressure = Filtration - Re-absorption

Kaitlyn BIO 201 (22 decks)

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