1st Term Exam 2019 Flashcards
1
Q
No. of vertebral bones
A
33
2
Q
Flat bone
A
Scapula
3
Q
Nerve supply of skin at the back
A
C2
4
Q
CSF flows in
A
Subarachnoid space
5
Q
CSF created by
A
Choroid plexus
6
Q
Inferior nerves collectively known as
A
Cauda equina
7
Q
Damage to cauda equina
A
Legs affected
8
Q
Forward translation of vertebra
A
Spondylolisthesis
9
Q
Upper sacral region
A
Sacral promontory
*The anterior and upper margin of the first sacral vertebra bulges forward as the posterior margin of the pelvic inlet and is termed SACRAL PROMONTORY. The sacral promontory in the female is of considerable obstetric importance and is used when measuring the size of the pelvis.
10
Q
Border of lumbar triangle
A
Highest point of iliac crest
11
Q
Lumbar tap
A
L4
12
Q
Lumbar puncture
A
Subarachnoid space
13
Q
What level does the spinal cord end in adults?
A
L1
14
Q
Congenital hemivertebra
A
Scoliosis
15
Q
Reflex of C5
A
Biceps
16
Q
Wrist extension
A
C6 and C7
17
Q
Queckenstendt (positive)
A
Block of Subarachnoid
18
Q
What passes through intervertebral foramen?
A
Segmental spinal nerves
19
Q
Least movement
A
Origin
20
Q
Depression of bone
A
Fossa
21
Q
Result of poliomyelitis
A
Scoliosis
22
Q
Lower end of the spinal cord?
A
L1
23
Q
18 year old chemical engineering student has a partial thickness burn at the right wrist and forearm. Healing would come from the cells of the?
a. Membranous part of the superficial layer
b. Fatty layer
c. Hair follicles
A
c. Hair follicles
* A partial-thickness burn heals from the cells of the HAIR FOLLICLES, SEBACEOUS GLANDS AND SWEAT GLANDS as well as from the cells as the edge of the burn.
24
Q
In adults, the red marrow is found in?
A
Skull
25
The patella is what type of bone?
Sesamoid bone
26
The heel bone (calcaneum) is what type of bone?
Short bone
27
Same side of the body?
Ipsilateral
28
Planes situated to on or the other side of the median plane and parallel to it?
Paramedian plane
29
Movement acts on a sagittal plane?
a. Abduction
b. Adduction
c. Flexion
d. Extension
e. Lateral flexion
c. Flexion
30
Paronychia is an infection of the?
Nail
31
Nerve supply of the muscles?
a. Mixed nerve
b. Motor nerve
c. Motor point,
d. Sensory nerve
a. Mixed nerve
32
A person with abnormal lymphocytes will develop?
a. Kidney failure
b. Hematoma
c. Infection
c. Infection
33
Enlarged lymph nodes?
a. Kidney failure
b. Hematoma
c. Muscle fatigue
d. Cancer
d. Cancer
34
Muscles in the urinary bladder
Smooth muscles
35
Joint in the sutures of the vault of the skull?
Fibrous joint
36
Type of joint where the 1st rib is connected to the manubrium?
Primary cartilaginous joint
37
Which is a hinge joint?
Elbow joint
38
Which is a pivot joint?
Atlantoaxial joint
39
Which is a ball-and-socket joint?
a. Shoulder joint
b. Wrist joint
c. Elbow joint
d. Ankle joint
a. Shoulder joint
40
What end arteries are coronary arteries?
Functional end arteries
41
Which of the ff. organs where sinusoids are found?
a. Small intestine
b. Stomach
c. Pancreas
d. Liver
d. Liver
42
Which of the ff. organs is part of the lymphatic system?
a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Spleen
d. Spleen
43
White matter consists of?
a. Dendrites
b. Neuron
c. Neuroglia
d. Axons
d. Axons
44
Which cranial nerve supplies the thorax and abdomen?
CN X
45
How many coccygeal nerves are there?
1
46
What does the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) control?
Involuntary
47
Where does the spinal nerve passes?
Intervertebral
| foramen
48
Anterior root?
Efferent fibers
*The ANTERIOR rootlets and roots consists of bundles of EFFERENT (MOTOR) NERVE FIBERS carrying nerve impulses away from the CNS.
49
Which joint has great degree of freedom of movement?
Synovial joint
50
What type of joint is in between intervertebral discs of vertebra?
Secondary Cartilaginous joint
51
Sympathetic nervous system response?
Tachycardia (acceleration of heart rate)
52
Predominant cells in the lymph?
Lymphocytes
53
Lying on the back?
Supination
54
Posterior Root?
Sensory fibers
*The POSTERIOR rootlets and roots contain bundles of AFFERENT (SENSORY) NERVE FIBERS that carry impulses to the CNS.
55
Anatomic position of the hands?
Palms facing forward
56
T/F. The liver is relatively much larger in adults than in the child.
FALSE
57
Which of the following is an example of circumduction?
Pitcher winding/swinging before throwing a ball
58
Divides the body into UNEQUAL left and right parts
Parasagittal plane
59
```
Which does not belong to the anatomical
position?
A. eyes are forward
B. arms at the side of the body
C. feet are together
D. palms facing the body
```
D. palms facing the body
60
Relationship of left leg and left arm
Ipsilateral
61
Relation of left arm and right arm
Contralateral
62
```
Joint present in articular surface
A. fibrous joint
B. synovial joint
C. cartilaginous
D. all of the above
```
B. synovial joint
63
```
The heart is ____ to the lungs
A. Superior
B. Dorsal
C. Medial
D. Lateral
E. Inferior
```
C. Medial
64
```
Which of the following does not have a sebaceous gland?
A. Scalp
B. Abdomen
C. Palm and soles
D. Axilla
E. Lower extremities
```
C. Palm and soles
65
Divides the body into left and right portions
Median/sagittal plane
66
Planes that are right angles to each other
Sagittal and transverse planes
67
Depression in a bone
A. Facet
B. Fossa
C. Tubercle
B. Fossa
68
The space between the articulating
| bony surfaces
Cartilaginous
*In cartilage joints, the space between the articulating bony surfaces is filled with a cartilaginous pad.
69
```
Type of cushioning joint in the pubis:
A. --
B. Symphysis
C. Synchondrosis
D. Syndesmosis
E. Fat pads
```
B. Symphysis
70
```
____ a joint capable of side to side and
back and forth movement with only slight
rotation.
A. Hinge
B. Gliding
C. Pivot
D. Condyloid
```
D. Condyloid
71
The following are appendicular skeletons, except:
```
A. Patella
B. Clavicle
C. Femur
D. Xiphoid
E. Sternum
```
D. Xiphoid
72
Type of joint associated with growth plate?
```
A. Fibrous
B. Synovial
C. Cartilaginous
D. Symphysis
E. Intervertebral disc
```
C. Cartilaginous
73
Visceral Pleura:
```
A. Membrane lining the lungs
B. Membrane lining the thoracic wall
C. Fluid filling the lungs
D. Thinnest portion of the pericardium
E. None
```
A. Membrane lining the lungs
74
Which joint is considered to be the most stable?
```
A. Knee
B. Suture
C. Pivot
D. Hinge
E. Condyloid
```
B. Suture
75
Which is not part of the appendicular body:
```
A. Xiphoid process
B. Patella
C. Clavicle
D. Femur
E. Acromion
```
A. Xiphoid process
76
The nerve enters the muscle in the midpoint of its deep layer, the place of entrance is called?
```
A. Motor point
B. Origin
C. Attachment
D. Midpoint
E. Belly
```
A. Motor point
77
Produces synovial fluid:
```
A. Capsule
B. Articular cartilage
C. Synovial membrane
D. Bursae
E. Fat pads
```
C. Synovial membrane
78
TRUE or FALSE: In most joints, muscle tone is the major factor controlling stability.
TRUE
79
Which among the ff does not cause atrophy of the skeletal muscle?
A. Plastered cast on fractured bone
B. Lower motor neuron disorder
C. Weightlifting
D. Chronic illnesses
C. Weightlifting
80
TRUE or FALSE: Gray matter consist of nerve fibers embedded in neuroglia
TRUE
* Gray matter consists largely of nerve cell bodies embedded in neuroglia.
* White matter consists largely of nerve processes (axons) and blood vessels embedded in neuroglia.
81
Single segment of spinal cord:
```
A. Dermatome
B. Spinal nerves
C. Plexus
D. Rami communication
E. Ganglion
```
B. Spinal nerves
82
TRUE or FALSE: A muscle whose fibers run parallel to the line of pull will bring a greater movement compared with those fibers that run obliquely.
TRUE
83
Efferent neurons
Motor neurons
*The ANTERIOR rootlets and roots consists of bundles of EFFERENT (MOTOR) NERVE FIBERS carrying nerve impulses away from the CNS.
84
What part of neuron is myelinated?
A. Axon
B. Cell body
C. Dendrites
D. Synapse
A. Axon
85
Posterior horn:
```
A. Afferent
B. Efferent
C. Motor neuron
D. Interneuron
E. Synapse
```
A. Afferent
*The POSTERIOR rootlets and roots contain bundles of AFFERENT (SENSORY) NERVE FIBERS that carry impulses to the CNS.
86
Which of the following does not drain into the lymph?
Central Nervous System
87
Rotation only:
```
A. Pivot
B. Hinge
C. Ellipsoid
D. Saddle
E. Plane
```
A. Pivot
*A central bony pivot is surrounded by a bony-ligamentous ring. Rotation is the only movement possible.
88
It is a type of synovial joint:
```
A. Symphysis
B. Synchondrosis
C. Plane
D. Suture
E. Synostrosis
```
C. Plane
89
Bursa
Reduces friction between skin and bones, or muscle and bones
90
The joint on the articular processes of the adjacent vertebrae can cause movement of:
A. Lateral flexion
B. Circumduction
C. Dorsiflexion
D. Abduction
A. Lateral flexion
91
It is the most deeply penetrating structure among all the epidermal appendages:
A. Sweat glands
B. Sebaceous glands
C. Hair
D. Nails
A. Sweat glands
92
What moves the sole of the foot away from the midline:
A. Inversion
B. Eversion
C. Dorsiflexion
D. Plantar flexion
B. Eversion
* Inversion - is turning the sole of the foot so that the sole faces in a medial direction, toward the midline.
* Dorsiflexion - (the equivalent to extension) refers to lifting the top of the foot superiorly toward the shin.
* Plantar flexion - (the equivalent to flexion) refers to moving the sole of the foot inferiorly, as in standing on the toes.
93
A strap or chord of dense connective tissue that connects muscle to bone:
Tendon
94
Not part of the lymphatic system:
A. Blood capillaries
B. Lymph nodes
C. Lymphatic vessels
D. Lymph
A. Blood capillaries
95
Lymph nodes may be located:
A. Stomach
B. Head and neck
C. Ventricle and atrium
D. Thyroid gland and in the
B. Head and neck
96
From the vertebral arch, it gives rise to how many processes?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
D. 7
97
What passes through vertebra prominens?
Vertebral veins
98
Which is a characteristic of a typical cervical vertebrae ?
Small and bifid spine
99
What fails to develop in the sacrum that results to the development of sacral hiatus?
```
A. Spine
B. Pedicle
C. Transverse process
D. Lamina
E. Body
```
D. Lamina
100
Patient standing up, the lordosis in the lumbar spine is:
```
A. Abnormal
B. Normal
C. Due to lifting heavy objects
D. Due to pregnancy
E. Due to obesity
```
B. Normal
101
Movement NOT possible for atlantooccipital joint:
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Lateral flexion
D. Rotation
D. Rotation
102
Ligament that connects odontoid process to medial surface of occipital condyle:
A. Alar ligament
B. Apical Ligament
C. Cruciate
D. Membrane tectoria
A. Alar ligament
103
What is a characteristic of Atlas?
```
A. bifid process
B. Has superior articulating facet for
dens
C. possesses dens
D. has body which is broad side to side
```
B. Has superior articulating facet for
| dens
104
When a cervical rib is present, how many cervical vertebrae are present?
```
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 7 cervical vertebra but with 13 thoracic
vertebra
```
B. 7
105
```
Where is the intervertebral disc absent?
A. C1 C2
B. C7 T1
C. Sacrum
D. Thoracic spine
E. L5 S1
```
A. C1 C2
106
Where is the intervertebral disc the thickest?
Cervical spine
107
Ligament that connects the lamina of adjacent vertebrae
Ligamentum Flavum
108
What region of the vertebral process does the supraspinatous and interspinatous ligaments thicken?
Cervical region
109
In a normal adult in a standing position, which is the curvature:
A. Posterior convexity of the cranium
B. Posterior convexity of the thorax
C. Posterior convexity of the lumbar
D. Posterior concavity of the sacrum
B. Posterior convexity of the thorax
110
A 45-year ol woman living with 8 children is 8 months old pregnant. Which of the following would she likely to develop?
A. Kyphosis
B. Lordosis
B. Lordosis
111
Vehicular accident, C3-C4 fracture
Respiratory arrest
112
L5 displaced anteriorly from s5
Spondylolisthesis
113
Bone development in which a
cartilaginous model is first laid down and
later replaced by bone
Endochondral formation
114
Innervates the skin:
C2
115
Patient was diagnosed Prostate Cancer
| a year ago, mode of metastasis?
Venous Plexus
116
Motor root of spinal nerve:
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Both
A. Anterior
117
Inferior nerve roots are collectively called as:
A. Conus medullaris
B. Filum terminale
C. Cauda equina
C. Cauda equina
118
```
Which of the following spaces contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
A. Epidural
B. Subdural
C. Subarachnoid
D. Suboccipital
```
C. Subarachnoid
119
```
Most common disk herniations of the cervical vertebra
A. C1C2
B. C2C3
C. C4C5
D. C5C6
```
D. C5C6
120
```
What level corresponds to the landmark used in lumbar puncture?
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
E. L5
```
C. L3
*Thus puncture inferior to the L3 vertebra minimizes the possibility of impaling the spinal cord.
121
Landmark of caudal anesthesia:
```
A. Sacral cornua
B. Tip of coccyx
C. Sacral hiatus
D. Iliac crest
E. Posterior inferior iliac crest
```
C. Sacral hiatus
*Sacral cornua - the hiatus is triangular or U shaped and is bounded laterally by sacral cornua
122
The spinal cord is continuous to which part of the brain:
```
A. Hypothalamus
B. Cerebrum
C. Thalamus
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Temporal lobe
```
D. Medulla oblongata
123
This is a superficial muscle of the back.
```
A. Levator Scapulae
B. Serratus Posterior Superior
C. Levatores Costarum
D. Longissimus
E. Semispinalis
```
A. Levator Scapulae
124
Spinal stenosis causes symptoms in the:
A. Neck
B. Legs
C. Upper abdominal wall
B. Legs
*Symptoms vary from mild discomort in the lower back to severe pain radiating down to leg with the inability to walk.
125
Which is affected if root of C5 is injured:
```
A. Patella
B. Triceps
C. Biceps
D. Cremaster
E. Ankle jerk
```
C. Biceps
126
This condition results from the failure of the development of the arches and spines of one or more adjacent vertebra:
A. Spina bifida
B. Scoliosis
C. Meningocele
A. Spina bifida
127
TRUE or FALSE:. Muscles whose fibers run parallel to the line of pull will bring about a greater degree of movement compared with those whose fibers run
obliquely.
TRUE
128
Patient with osteoporosis, which is most vulnerable to nerve root pain due to encroachment of the intervertebral
foramen?
5th lumbar nerve
129
Intervertebral Foramen:
```
A. Vertebral Artery
B. Lymphoid
C. Segmental Nerve
D. Anterior Root
E. Posterior Root
```
C. Segmental Nerve
130
66 years old man with osteoarthritis. Compression of what lumbar nerve root?
L5
131
Which region of the vertebral column has the greatest range of motion for rotation?
Cervical region
132
Lumbar tap is performed at the level of?
Posterior superior iliac crest
133
What type of bone is the scapula?
```
A. Long
B. Irregular
C. Short
D. Flat
E. Sesamoid
```
D. Flat
134
Congenital hermivertebrae
Scoliosis
135
In the thoracic region, what muscle, when contracted, permits rotation movement of vertebrae contralaterally
Semispinalis thoracis
136
Body of lumbar vertebra
Kidney shaped
137
Hyaline cartilage ossifies earlier in life
FALSE
138
Person fell from 20ft and the ring of atlas was fractured
Jefferson's fracture
139
A type of joint that allows single direction:
```
A. Hinge
B. Condyloid
C. Ball and socket
D. Pivot
E. Saddle
```
A. Hinge
140
Cross section of an organ is made if you divide across which plane:
```
A. Sagittal
B. Midsagittal
C. Coronal
D. Transverse
E. Corona
```
D. Transverse
141
What do you see in the x ray of a person with herniated nucleus pulposus?
A. Expands the space between vertebral bodies
B. Narrowing of the space between the vertebral bodies
B. Narrowing of the space between the
| vertebral bodies
