1st Term Exam 2019 Flashcards

1
Q

No. of vertebral bones

A

33

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2
Q

Flat bone

A

Scapula

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3
Q

Nerve supply of skin at the back

A

C2

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4
Q

CSF flows in

A

Subarachnoid space

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5
Q

CSF created by

A

Choroid plexus

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6
Q

Inferior nerves collectively known as

A

Cauda equina

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7
Q

Damage to cauda equina

A

Legs affected

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8
Q

Forward translation of vertebra

A

Spondylolisthesis

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9
Q

Upper sacral region

A

Sacral promontory

*The anterior and upper margin of the first sacral vertebra bulges forward as the posterior margin of the pelvic inlet and is termed SACRAL PROMONTORY. The sacral promontory in the female is of considerable obstetric importance and is used when measuring the size of the pelvis.

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10
Q

Border of lumbar triangle

A

Highest point of iliac crest

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11
Q

Lumbar tap

A

L4

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12
Q

Lumbar puncture

A

Subarachnoid space

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13
Q

What level does the spinal cord end in adults?

A

L1

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14
Q

Congenital hemivertebra

A

Scoliosis

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15
Q

Reflex of C5

A

Biceps

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16
Q

Wrist extension

A

C6 and C7

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17
Q

Queckenstendt (positive)

A

Block of Subarachnoid

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18
Q

What passes through intervertebral foramen?

A

Segmental spinal nerves

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19
Q

Least movement

A

Origin

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20
Q

Depression of bone

A

Fossa

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21
Q

Result of poliomyelitis

A

Scoliosis

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22
Q

Lower end of the spinal cord?

A

L1

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23
Q

18 year old chemical engineering student has a partial thickness burn at the right wrist and forearm. Healing would come from the cells of the?

a. Membranous part of the superficial layer
b. Fatty layer
c. Hair follicles

A

c. Hair follicles
* A partial-thickness burn heals from the cells of the HAIR FOLLICLES, SEBACEOUS GLANDS AND SWEAT GLANDS as well as from the cells as the edge of the burn.

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24
Q

In adults, the red marrow is found in?

A

Skull

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25
Q

The patella is what type of bone?

A

Sesamoid bone

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26
Q

The heel bone (calcaneum) is what type of bone?

A

Short bone

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27
Q

Same side of the body?

A

Ipsilateral

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28
Q

Planes situated to on or the other side of the median plane and parallel to it?

A

Paramedian plane

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29
Q

Movement acts on a sagittal plane?

a. Abduction
b. Adduction
c. Flexion
d. Extension
e. Lateral flexion

A

c. Flexion

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30
Q

Paronychia is an infection of the?

A

Nail

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31
Q

Nerve supply of the muscles?

a. Mixed nerve
b. Motor nerve
c. Motor point,
d. Sensory nerve

A

a. Mixed nerve

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32
Q

A person with abnormal lymphocytes will develop?

a. Kidney failure
b. Hematoma
c. Infection

A

c. Infection

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33
Q

Enlarged lymph nodes?

a. Kidney failure
b. Hematoma
c. Muscle fatigue
d. Cancer

A

d. Cancer

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34
Q

Muscles in the urinary bladder

A

Smooth muscles

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35
Q

Joint in the sutures of the vault of the skull?

A

Fibrous joint

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36
Q

Type of joint where the 1st rib is connected to the manubrium?

A

Primary cartilaginous joint

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37
Q

Which is a hinge joint?

A

Elbow joint

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38
Q

Which is a pivot joint?

A

Atlantoaxial joint

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39
Q

Which is a ball-and-socket joint?

a. Shoulder joint
b. Wrist joint
c. Elbow joint
d. Ankle joint

A

a. Shoulder joint

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40
Q

What end arteries are coronary arteries?

A

Functional end arteries

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41
Q

Which of the ff. organs where sinusoids are found?

a. Small intestine
b. Stomach
c. Pancreas
d. Liver

A

d. Liver

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42
Q

Which of the ff. organs is part of the lymphatic system?

a. Kidney
b. Liver
c. Pancreas
d. Spleen

A

d. Spleen

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43
Q

White matter consists of?

a. Dendrites
b. Neuron
c. Neuroglia
d. Axons

A

d. Axons

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44
Q

Which cranial nerve supplies the thorax and abdomen?

A

CN X

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45
Q

How many coccygeal nerves are there?

A

1

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46
Q

What does the Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) control?

A

Involuntary

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47
Q

Where does the spinal nerve passes?

A

Intervertebral

foramen

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48
Q

Anterior root?

A

Efferent fibers

*The ANTERIOR rootlets and roots consists of bundles of EFFERENT (MOTOR) NERVE FIBERS carrying nerve impulses away from the CNS.

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49
Q

Which joint has great degree of freedom of movement?

A

Synovial joint

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50
Q

What type of joint is in between intervertebral discs of vertebra?

A

Secondary Cartilaginous joint

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51
Q

Sympathetic nervous system response?

A

Tachycardia (acceleration of heart rate)

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52
Q

Predominant cells in the lymph?

A

Lymphocytes

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53
Q

Lying on the back?

A

Supination

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54
Q

Posterior Root?

A

Sensory fibers

*The POSTERIOR rootlets and roots contain bundles of AFFERENT (SENSORY) NERVE FIBERS that carry impulses to the CNS.

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55
Q

Anatomic position of the hands?

A

Palms facing forward

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56
Q

T/F. The liver is relatively much larger in adults than in the child.

A

FALSE

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57
Q

Which of the following is an example of circumduction?

A

Pitcher winding/swinging before throwing a ball

58
Q

Divides the body into UNEQUAL left and right parts

A

Parasagittal plane

59
Q
Which does not belong to the anatomical
position?
A. eyes are forward
B. arms at the side of the body
C. feet are together
D. palms facing the body
A

D. palms facing the body

60
Q

Relationship of left leg and left arm

A

Ipsilateral

61
Q

Relation of left arm and right arm

A

Contralateral

62
Q
Joint present in articular surface
A. fibrous joint
B. synovial joint
C. cartilaginous
D. all of the above
A

B. synovial joint

63
Q
The heart is \_\_\_\_ to the lungs
A. Superior
B. Dorsal
C. Medial
D. Lateral
E. Inferior
A

C. Medial

64
Q
Which of the following does not have a sebaceous gland?
A. Scalp
B. Abdomen
C. Palm and soles
D. Axilla
E. Lower extremities
A

C. Palm and soles

65
Q

Divides the body into left and right portions

A

Median/sagittal plane

66
Q

Planes that are right angles to each other

A

Sagittal and transverse planes

67
Q

Depression in a bone
A. Facet
B. Fossa
C. Tubercle

A

B. Fossa

68
Q

The space between the articulating

bony surfaces

A

Cartilaginous

*In cartilage joints, the space between the articulating bony surfaces is filled with a cartilaginous pad.

69
Q
Type of cushioning joint in the pubis:
A. --
B. Symphysis
C. Synchondrosis
D. Syndesmosis
E. Fat pads
A

B. Symphysis

70
Q
\_\_\_\_ a joint capable of side to side and
back and forth movement with only slight
rotation.
A. Hinge
B. Gliding
C. Pivot
D. Condyloid
A

D. Condyloid

71
Q

The following are appendicular skeletons, except:

A. Patella
B. Clavicle
C. Femur
D. Xiphoid
E. Sternum
A

D. Xiphoid

72
Q

Type of joint associated with growth plate?

A. Fibrous
B. Synovial
C. Cartilaginous
D. Symphysis
E. Intervertebral disc
A

C. Cartilaginous

73
Q

Visceral Pleura:

A. Membrane lining the lungs
B. Membrane lining the thoracic wall
C. Fluid filling the lungs
D. Thinnest portion of the pericardium
E. None
A

A. Membrane lining the lungs

74
Q

Which joint is considered to be the most stable?

A. Knee
B. Suture
C. Pivot
D. Hinge
E. Condyloid
A

B. Suture

75
Q

Which is not part of the appendicular body:

A. Xiphoid process
B. Patella
C. Clavicle
D. Femur
E. Acromion
A

A. Xiphoid process

76
Q

The nerve enters the muscle in the midpoint of its deep layer, the place of entrance is called?

A. Motor point
B. Origin
C. Attachment
D. Midpoint
E. Belly
A

A. Motor point

77
Q

Produces synovial fluid:

A. Capsule
B. Articular cartilage
C. Synovial membrane
D. Bursae
E. Fat pads
A

C. Synovial membrane

78
Q

TRUE or FALSE: In most joints, muscle tone is the major factor controlling stability.

A

TRUE

79
Q

Which among the ff does not cause atrophy of the skeletal muscle?

A. Plastered cast on fractured bone
B. Lower motor neuron disorder
C. Weightlifting
D. Chronic illnesses

A

C. Weightlifting

80
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Gray matter consist of nerve fibers embedded in neuroglia

A

TRUE

  • Gray matter consists largely of nerve cell bodies embedded in neuroglia.
  • White matter consists largely of nerve processes (axons) and blood vessels embedded in neuroglia.
81
Q

Single segment of spinal cord:

A. Dermatome
B. Spinal nerves
C. Plexus
D. Rami communication
E. Ganglion
A

B. Spinal nerves

82
Q

TRUE or FALSE: A muscle whose fibers run parallel to the line of pull will bring a greater movement compared with those fibers that run obliquely.

A

TRUE

83
Q

Efferent neurons

A

Motor neurons

*The ANTERIOR rootlets and roots consists of bundles of EFFERENT (MOTOR) NERVE FIBERS carrying nerve impulses away from the CNS.

84
Q

What part of neuron is myelinated?

A. Axon
B. Cell body
C. Dendrites
D. Synapse

A

A. Axon

85
Q

Posterior horn:

A. Afferent
B. Efferent
C. Motor neuron
D. Interneuron
E. Synapse
A

A. Afferent

*The POSTERIOR rootlets and roots contain bundles of AFFERENT (SENSORY) NERVE FIBERS that carry impulses to the CNS.

86
Q

Which of the following does not drain into the lymph?

A

Central Nervous System

87
Q

Rotation only:

A. Pivot
B. Hinge
C. Ellipsoid
D. Saddle
E. Plane
A

A. Pivot

*A central bony pivot is surrounded by a bony-ligamentous ring. Rotation is the only movement possible.

88
Q

It is a type of synovial joint:

A. Symphysis
B. Synchondrosis
C. Plane
D. Suture
E. Synostrosis
A

C. Plane

89
Q

Bursa

A

Reduces friction between skin and bones, or muscle and bones

90
Q

The joint on the articular processes of the adjacent vertebrae can cause movement of:

A. Lateral flexion
B. Circumduction
C. Dorsiflexion
D. Abduction

A

A. Lateral flexion

91
Q

It is the most deeply penetrating structure among all the epidermal appendages:

A. Sweat glands
B. Sebaceous glands
C. Hair
D. Nails

A

A. Sweat glands

92
Q

What moves the sole of the foot away from the midline:

A. Inversion
B. Eversion
C. Dorsiflexion
D. Plantar flexion

A

B. Eversion

  • Inversion - is turning the sole of the foot so that the sole faces in a medial direction, toward the midline.
  • Dorsiflexion - (the equivalent to extension) refers to lifting the top of the foot superiorly toward the shin.
  • Plantar flexion - (the equivalent to flexion) refers to moving the sole of the foot inferiorly, as in standing on the toes.
93
Q

A strap or chord of dense connective tissue that connects muscle to bone:

A

Tendon

94
Q

Not part of the lymphatic system:

A. Blood capillaries
B. Lymph nodes
C. Lymphatic vessels
D. Lymph

A

A. Blood capillaries

95
Q

Lymph nodes may be located:

A. Stomach
B. Head and neck
C. Ventricle and atrium
D. Thyroid gland and in the

A

B. Head and neck

96
Q

From the vertebral arch, it gives rise to how many processes?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

A

D. 7

97
Q

What passes through vertebra prominens?

A

Vertebral veins

98
Q

Which is a characteristic of a typical cervical vertebrae ?

A

Small and bifid spine

99
Q

What fails to develop in the sacrum that results to the development of sacral hiatus?

A. Spine
B. Pedicle
C. Transverse process
D. Lamina
E. Body
A

D. Lamina

100
Q

Patient standing up, the lordosis in the lumbar spine is:

A. Abnormal
B. Normal
C. Due to lifting heavy objects
D. Due to pregnancy
E. Due to obesity
A

B. Normal

101
Q

Movement NOT possible for atlantooccipital joint:

A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Lateral flexion
D. Rotation

A

D. Rotation

102
Q

Ligament that connects odontoid process to medial surface of occipital condyle:

A. Alar ligament
B. Apical Ligament
C. Cruciate
D. Membrane tectoria

A

A. Alar ligament

103
Q

What is a characteristic of Atlas?

A. bifid process
B. Has superior articulating facet for
dens
C. possesses dens
D. has body which is broad side to side
A

B. Has superior articulating facet for

dens

104
Q

When a cervical rib is present, how many cervical vertebrae are present?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
E. 7 cervical vertebra but with 13 thoracic
vertebra
A

B. 7

105
Q
Where is the intervertebral disc absent?
A. C1 C2
B. C7 T1
C. Sacrum
D. Thoracic spine
E. L5 S1
A

A. C1 C2

106
Q

Where is the intervertebral disc the thickest?

A

Cervical spine

107
Q

Ligament that connects the lamina of adjacent vertebrae

A

Ligamentum Flavum

108
Q

What region of the vertebral process does the supraspinatous and interspinatous ligaments thicken?

A

Cervical region

109
Q

In a normal adult in a standing position, which is the curvature:

A. Posterior convexity of the cranium
B. Posterior convexity of the thorax
C. Posterior convexity of the lumbar
D. Posterior concavity of the sacrum

A

B. Posterior convexity of the thorax

110
Q

A 45-year ol woman living with 8 children is 8 months old pregnant. Which of the following would she likely to develop?
A. Kyphosis
B. Lordosis

A

B. Lordosis

111
Q

Vehicular accident, C3-C4 fracture

A

Respiratory arrest

112
Q

L5 displaced anteriorly from s5

A

Spondylolisthesis

113
Q

Bone development in which a
cartilaginous model is first laid down and
later replaced by bone

A

Endochondral formation

114
Q

Innervates the skin:

A

C2

115
Q

Patient was diagnosed Prostate Cancer

a year ago, mode of metastasis?

A

Venous Plexus

116
Q

Motor root of spinal nerve:
A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Both

A

A. Anterior

117
Q

Inferior nerve roots are collectively called as:

A. Conus medullaris
B. Filum terminale
C. Cauda equina

A

C. Cauda equina

118
Q
Which of the following spaces contains cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?
A. Epidural
B. Subdural
C. Subarachnoid
D. Suboccipital
A

C. Subarachnoid

119
Q
Most common disk herniations of the cervical vertebra
A. C1C2
B. C2C3
C. C4C5
D. C5C6
A

D. C5C6

120
Q
What level corresponds to the landmark used in lumbar puncture?
A. L1
B. L2
C. L3
D. L4
E. L5
A

C. L3

*Thus puncture inferior to the L3 vertebra minimizes the possibility of impaling the spinal cord.

121
Q

Landmark of caudal anesthesia:

A. Sacral cornua
B. Tip of coccyx
C. Sacral hiatus
D. Iliac crest
E. Posterior inferior iliac crest
A

C. Sacral hiatus

*Sacral cornua - the hiatus is triangular or U shaped and is bounded laterally by sacral cornua

122
Q

The spinal cord is continuous to which part of the brain:

A. Hypothalamus
B. Cerebrum
C. Thalamus
D. Medulla oblongata
E. Temporal lobe
A

D. Medulla oblongata

123
Q

This is a superficial muscle of the back.

A. Levator Scapulae
B. Serratus Posterior Superior
C. Levatores Costarum
D. Longissimus
E. Semispinalis
A

A. Levator Scapulae

124
Q

Spinal stenosis causes symptoms in the:

A. Neck
B. Legs
C. Upper abdominal wall

A

B. Legs

*Symptoms vary from mild discomort in the lower back to severe pain radiating down to leg with the inability to walk.

125
Q

Which is affected if root of C5 is injured:

A. Patella
B. Triceps
C. Biceps
D. Cremaster
E. Ankle jerk
A

C. Biceps

126
Q

This condition results from the failure of the development of the arches and spines of one or more adjacent vertebra:

A. Spina bifida
B. Scoliosis
C. Meningocele

A

A. Spina bifida

127
Q

TRUE or FALSE:. Muscles whose fibers run parallel to the line of pull will bring about a greater degree of movement compared with those whose fibers run
obliquely.

A

TRUE

128
Q

Patient with osteoporosis, which is most vulnerable to nerve root pain due to encroachment of the intervertebral
foramen?

A

5th lumbar nerve

129
Q

Intervertebral Foramen:

A. Vertebral Artery
B. Lymphoid
C. Segmental Nerve
D. Anterior Root
E. Posterior Root
A

C. Segmental Nerve

130
Q

66 years old man with osteoarthritis. Compression of what lumbar nerve root?

A

L5

131
Q

Which region of the vertebral column has the greatest range of motion for rotation?

A

Cervical region

132
Q

Lumbar tap is performed at the level of?

A

Posterior superior iliac crest

133
Q

What type of bone is the scapula?

A. Long
B. Irregular
C. Short
D. Flat
E. Sesamoid
A

D. Flat

134
Q

Congenital hermivertebrae

A

Scoliosis

135
Q

In the thoracic region, what muscle, when contracted, permits rotation movement of vertebrae contralaterally

A

Semispinalis thoracis

136
Q

Body of lumbar vertebra

A

Kidney shaped

137
Q

Hyaline cartilage ossifies earlier in life

A

FALSE

138
Q

Person fell from 20ft and the ring of atlas was fractured

A

Jefferson’s fracture

139
Q

A type of joint that allows single direction:

A. Hinge
B. Condyloid
C. Ball and socket
D. Pivot
E. Saddle
A

A. Hinge

140
Q

Cross section of an organ is made if you divide across which plane:

A. Sagittal
B. Midsagittal
C. Coronal
D. Transverse
E. Corona
A

D. Transverse

141
Q

What do you see in the x ray of a person with herniated nucleus pulposus?

A. Expands the space between vertebral bodies
B. Narrowing of the space between the vertebral bodies

A

B. Narrowing of the space between the

vertebral bodies