13/10/21 Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of Oppositional Defiant Disorder. General ballpark characteristics.

A

Recurrent negative, defiant, disobedient and hostile behaviour toward authority figures:

  • losing temper + being angry and resentful
  • being spiteful or vindictive
  • arguing with adults
  • actively defying or refusing to comply with adults’ requests or rules
  • deliberately annoying people
  • blaming others for his or her mistakes
  • being touchy or easily annoyed by others
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2
Q

Definition of Conduct Disorder. When is this diagnosed? General characteristics.

A
  • disorder of childhood or adolescence

When there is behaviour that violates the rights of others or societal norms

  • aggression towards people, animals or property, often with a callous manner and lack of empathy
  • deceitfulness or theft
  • serious violations of rules
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3
Q

Characteristics of Antisocial Personality Disorder.

A

Characteristed by:

  • routinely disregards the rights of others → deceitfulness, impulsivity, lack of remorse as well as repeated criminal acts, disregards for others safety, aggressive behaviour
  • developmental history → longstanding pattern with conduct disorder prior to age of 15
  • sociopathy is a lay term that is essentially synonymous with ASPD. Psychopathy indicates a particularly malignant form of ASPD → severe end of the antisocial behaviour spectrum.
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4
Q

What is seberrhoeic dermatitis? Which part of the kin does it usually affect?

A

Chronic relapsing skin eruption characterised by erythema and scaling

Most commonly affects the scalp.

  • Facial seberrhoeic dermatitis affects the medial part of the cheeks, nasolabial folds, and nose. Common cause of a “butterfly rash” that is also in SLE but in SLE the nasolabial folds are spared.
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5
Q

What is the non-pharm and first line management for seberrhoeic dermatitis?

A
  • low irritant skin cleanser
  • Facial → shampoo hair often
  • Combination products of antifungal cream + topical corticosteroid:
    1. hydrocortisone + clotrimazole 1% + 1% cream topically, daily or BD until skin clears up for 2 weeks
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6
Q

Which leads correspond to the lateral myocardium? Which leads correspond to inferior myocardium? Which leads correspond to septal myocardium?
Which leads correspond to anterior myocardium?
Which leads correspond to posterior myocardium?

A
V1-2 -> Septal
V3-4 -> Anterior
II + III + aVF -> Inferior
i + aVL + V5 + V6 -> Lateral (V5-6 - apical)
V7-9 -> Posterior
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7
Q

Which coronary vessel does an anterior infarct correspond with?

A

Left Anterior Descending Artery

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8
Q

Describe 2 main changes in the ECG in an anterior STEMI + 2 bonus.

A
  • ST Elevation in V1-6 plus 1 and aVL
  • Minimal reciprocal ST depression in III and aVF
  • Q waves in V1-2, reduced R wave height (a Q-wave equivalent) in V3-4
  • Premature Ventricular Complex (PVC) with R on T phenomenon
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9
Q

What is the clinical significance of a posterior STEMI?

A
  • Posterior Infarction → 15-20% of STEMIs, usually occuring as extension of interior or lateral infarction
    • if posterior extension of lateral or inferior infarction → much larger area of myocardial damage → increased risk of LV dysfunction and death
    • If isolated posterior STEMI → indication for emergent coronary reperfusion but the lack of obvious ST elevation means that diagnosis can be missed.
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10
Q

2 main changes on ECG for a posterior STEMI and 3 other changes.

A

ST Elevation in V7-9
in V1-3
- Horizontal ST depression

  • Tall, Broad R waves (>30ms)
  • Upright T waves
  • Dominant R Wave (R/S Ratio > 1) in V2
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11
Q

What is coeliac disease? How many people in Australia have coeliac disease? If first degree relative has coeliac -> what is the patient’s risk?

A

Disorder of the small bowel caused by an immune response to ingested wheat gliadins and related proteins in oats, rye and barley → resulting in inflammation and tissue damage

1 in 100 people in Australia have coeliac disease

The risk of a 1st degree relative developing coeliac disease is about 1 in 10

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12
Q

Symptoms of coeliac disease? (5 points)

A
  1. Lethargy
  2. Diarrhoea
  3. Abdominal Pain
  4. Bloating
  5. Indigestion
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13
Q

Other ways in which patients with coeliac disease can present? (4 points)

A
  • complication of coeliac disease → anaemia or osteoporosis
  • associated disease → dematitis herpetiformis
  • Primary Infertility or Recurrent Miscarriages
  • Micronutrient deficiencies → Fe Deficiency, B12 or Folate Deficiency
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14
Q

How do you diagnose coeliac disease?

A
  • *The diagnosis of Coeliac Disease → Duodenal Biopsy**

- Characteristic histology → intraepithelial lymphcytosis with blunting of villi

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15
Q

What other two tests are relevant in coeliac disease? Explain their role in diagnosis.

A
  1. *IgA Anti-Tissue Transglutaminase + Anti-Deamidated Gliadin Antibody tests**
    - Positive coeliac serology is INSUFFICIENT to diagnose coeliac disease however the higher the serology the higher the predictive value for coeliac disease
  2. Human Leukocyte Antigen DQ2/DQ8 (HLA DQ2/8) Genotyping
    - can exclude coeliac diagnosis if genotypes are absent
    • If absent genotype → patients will not have the disease or ever develop it
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16
Q

How do you manage a patient with coeliac disease? Is there any monitoring involved with coeliac disease? (3 points)

A

Gluten Free Diet for life.

Repeat antibody testing can be helpful in assessing response and adherence to gluten free diet
- can take 12 months for antibodies to return to normal

Intestinal healing can take up to 2 years → so repeat duodenal biopsy should not be performed until the patient has been following a gluten free diet for at least 12 months

17
Q

Diagnosis of Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

A

Abdominal Pain or Discomfort occuring at least 3 days per month for the last 3 months associated with 2 of the following:

  • improvement after defecation
  • Onset of symptoms associated with change in bowel frequency (either diarrhoea or constipation)
  • Onset of symptoms associated with change in stool appearance (loose, watery, pellet-like)
18
Q

Symptome associated with Irritable Bowel Syndrome (other than those in the diagnosis criteria)

A
  • emotional stress + meals can exacerbate pain
  • abdominal bloating and increased gas production → flatulence and belching
  • faecal urgency (particularly after meals)
  • need to strain when passing stools
  • feeling of incomplete evacuation
  • passage of mucus
19
Q

GIT symptoms that warrant further investigation (14 points - name more than 7 at least)

A
  1. FHx of bowel cancer or coeliac disease
  2. older than 50 yo for onset of symptoms
  3. significant weight loss
  4. dysphagia (difficulty swallowing)
  5. severe large-volume diarrhoea
  6. steatorrhoea
  7. persistent vomiting
  8. severe abdominal pain
  9. fever
  10. symptoms that interfere with sleep
  11. anaemia
  12. evidence of gastrointestinal bleeding (rectal bleeding, haematemesis, positive FOBT)
  13. abnormality on abdo examination
  14. evidence of inflammation on blood tests or stool samples
20
Q

Adrenaline Dose in anaphylaxis?

A
  • Intramuscular adrenaline 10micrograms/kg or 0.01ml/kg of 1:1000 (max 0.5ml) into lateral thigh
    • use autoinjected if unable to calculate dose or to avoid delay
21
Q

High-Dose Statin Starting Therapy? Dosing.

A
  1. Atorvastatin 40-80mg PO daily
22
Q

Modifiable Risk Factors for Cardiovascular Disease (6 points)

A
  • Smoking Status + Alcohol Intake
  • Blood Pressure
  • Serum Lipids
  • BMI + Waist Circumferences
  • Nutrition
  • Physical Activity Level
23
Q

Non-modifiable Risk Factors for Cardiovascular Disease (3 points - be specific)

A
  • Age and Gender
  • Family History of Premature Cardiovascular Disease → <55yo
  • Social History → cultural, socioeconomic and ethnicity
24
Q

Associated Conditions for Cardiovascular Disease (5 points)

A
  • Diabetes
  • CKD (albuminuria +/- urine protein, eGFR)
  • Familial Hypercholesterolaemia
  • Evidence of Atrial Fibrillation
  • Depression
25
Q

Risk Factors of Malignant Eyelid Lesions. (6 points)

A
  • Fair Skin
  • History of Previous Skin Cancer
  • Excessive Sun Exposure
  • Previous Radiation
  • Immunosuppression
  • Smoking
26
Q

Examination findings in malignant eyelid lesions. 2 main + 4 bonus + 1 anatomical finding.

A
  • Ulceration or Induration → associated with flaky skin (can be associated with more aggressive squamous cell carcinomas (SCC))
  • Irregular or Pearly Borders
  • Destruction of Eyelid Margin**
  • Loss of Lashes (Madarosis)**
  • Telangiectasia
  • Reduced Sensation in periocular area (can be associated with perineural invasion)
27
Q

Major Risk factors of Osteoporosis (14 points)

A
  1. Poor Balance
  2. History of Falls
  3. Premature Ovarian Insuffiency or Hypogonadism
  4. Age >70yo
  5. Glucocorticoid Risk (>7.5mg/day)
  6. Loss of height >3cm and/or back pain suggestive of vertebral fracture
  7. History of Minimal Trauma Fracture
  8. Female
  9. Parental History of Hip Fracture
  10. Use of medications that are associated with bone loss
  11. Conditions or disease that lead to bone loss
  12. Low physical activity or prolonged immobility
  13. Low muscle mass or strength
  14. Low body weight
28
Q

Other Risk Factors for osteoporosis - lifestyle (4 points)

A
  • Smoking
  • High Alcohol Intake
  • Energy, Protein or Calcium Undernutrition
  • Vitamin D Insufficiency
29
Q

Criteria for Vasovagal Syncope (3 points)

A
  • pallor and unresponsiveness, reduced responsiveness or feeling lightheadedness
  • bradycardia
  • resolution of symptoms with change in position → supine position, head between knees or limbs elevated
30
Q

Admission Criteria for Eating Disorder (11 points)

A
  1. Temperature → <35.5
  2. Heart Rate → <50bpm
  3. Cardiac Arrhythmia
  4. Blood Pressure → <90mmHg (psychiatric) or <80/50mmHg (medical)
  5. Postural Hypotension → >10mmHg (psychiatric) or >20mmHg (medical)
  6. Postural Tachycardia → >20bpm
  7. QTc prolongation on ECG → >450milliseconds
  8. Hypokalaemia → <3.0mmol/L
  9. Neutropenia → <1.5x10^9/L
  10. Weight → BMI <14 (psychiatric) or BMI <12(medical)
  11. Rapid Weight Loss → 1kg/week over several weeks
31
Q

How is measles spread? How contagious is measles? For how long is a person with measles contagious for?

A
  • Person to perosn by breathing airborne respiratory droplets
  • Virus can persist in the environment up to 2 hours → highly transmissable even without close contact
  • the infected person is contagious from 2 days before any new symptoms show to at least 5 days after the onset of rash
32
Q

4 complications associated with measles (1 rare)

A
  • Otitis Media
  • Pneumonia
  • Encephalitis
  • Subacute Sclerosing Panencephalitis (SSPE) → develops very rarely as a late complication
33
Q

What are the symptoms associated with measles? Discuss the basics of the timeframe of measles progression.

A
  • Early symptoms are like the common cold with conjunctivitis and cough
  • Soft white spots called Koplik spots may be seen around the mouth
  • Red blotchy rash appears on the face on the 3rd day of illness, spreads to the trunk and becomes generalised over the next few days.
34
Q

Definition of measles - in regards to diagnosis.

A

An illness with both of the following:

  1. A generalised descending maculopapular rash (that persists for more than 3 days) + Fever (at least 38) at the time of onset of the rash
  2. AND at least one of the following: cough, coryza, conjunctivitis or Koplik Spots
35
Q

What are the possible investigations of measles? (3 points)

A
  • Nose or Throat Aspirate/Swab for Measles PCR
  • AND Urine for Measles PCR
  • AND (if possible) Measles specific IgG and IgM in clotted serum tube → 100% in samples taken 4-14 days after rash onset
36
Q

5 points of management of a patient with measles.

A
  • Urgent Notification
  • Investigations as above - do not send to lab collection centre
  • Isolate case immediately -> cases are infectious from slightly before the beginning of the prodromal period (5 days prior to onset of rash) → continue to be infectious until 4 days after rash onset
  • Supportive treatment and treatment of complications
  • Contacts: assess as a contact anyone who has shared the same air as the case -> vaccine or normal human immunoglobulin to suspected contacts (only those without serological evidence of immunity not documented evidence of vaccination)
37
Q

What are the 4 clinical stages of Measles? Describe the duration and important points through each clinical stage.

A
  1. Incubation Period
    • Ranges from 7-14 days (average 10-11 days)
    • Usually no symptoms
  2. Prodrome
    • Generally occurs 10-12 days from exposure
    • Fever, malaise, loss of appetite → conjunctivitis, cough and coryza
    • 2-3 days into prodrome phase → Koplik spots appear (blue-white spots) on the inside of the (buccal mucosa) mouth opposite the molars and occur 24-48 hrs before rash stage
    • Symptoms usually last 2-5 days but can persist for 7-10 days
  3. Exanthem
    • Red spots appear on 4-5 days following start of symptoms. Non-itchy rash begins behind the ears.
    • Within 24-36 hours → spreads to entire trunk and extremities (palms and soles rarely involved)
    • Rash coincides with high fever >40 degrees
  4. Recovery
    • Cough persists for 1-3 weeks