Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Willys Flashing > 11.5 > Flashcards

11.5 Flashcards

1
Q

If an aircraft is (IFR) rated what must it have?

A

More than one source for each instrument (alternate source)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ECAM meaning?

A

Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Where is the PFD located?

A

The outboard side in the cockpit with one for pilot one for co pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

EHSI meaning?

A

Electronic horizontal situational indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

EADI meaning?

A

Electronic altitude directional indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many screen are there on a typical EFIS system (electronic flight instrument system)

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is contained in the basic T?

A

Right = Altimeter
Left = airspeed indicator
Top middle = artificial horizon
Bottom middle = compass or heading indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the additional important flight instruments?

A

-vertical speed indicator
-Mach meter
-temperature indicators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where are altitude based instruments on the basic T?

A

Right hand side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Qualitive and quantitive meaning?

A

Qualitive = colour or visual indication
Quantitive= purely informational or numerative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is pressure displayed in?

A

Inches of mercury or hectopascals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which instruments work off of pressure?

A

-Altimeter
-Air speed indicator
-Vertical speed indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the standard temperature at sea level?

A

15 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How much does temperature decrease with altitude?

A

2 degrees C per 1000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What pressure type does an Altimeter measure from?

A

Static pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the pressure as a percentage of sea level at
-18,000 feet
-36,000 feet
-54,000 feet

A

18,000 = 50% of sea level
36,000 = 25% of sea level
54,000 = 12.5% of sea level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What happens to the altimeter at low level and what is done to negate this?

A

The altimeter is less accurate a radio altimeter is used instead below 2500 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How does an altimeter function?

A

As pressure decreases in the casing a bellow will expand this is measured, on larger aircraft this information is processed by the air data computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is the aneroid capsule diaphragm corregated?

A

The higher surface are makes it more sensitive and therefore accurate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the meaning of the terms QNE, QNH and QFE?

A

QNE = used in cruise set to the standard pressure 1013.25 hPa
QNH = measured height above standard sea level
QFE = measured height above field elevation in terms of the closest airport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What pressure does the airspeed indicator read from?

A

Static and dynamic or total air pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What ports are connected to the airspeed indicator?

A

-Pitot and static
-pitot being connected to the bellows
-static is connected to the casing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the stall speed limits?

A

VFO = stall speed in landing configuration
VS1= stall speed in clean flight at maximum weight
VSE = maximum allowable speed with the flaps extended
VNO = maximum airspeed at cruise
VNE = maximum airspeed that cannot be exceeded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

On an airspeed indicator what do green, white and yellow indicate?

A

Green = normal operation range
White = full flap operating range
Yellow = caution range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does the vertical speed indicator show?

A

Rate of climb or descent in feet per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

On a vertical speed indicator what is measured and what is used in this measurement?

A

A calibrated metering unit
Static pressure enters the casing this measures differential pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is a disadvantage of the vertical speed indicator?

A

There is a lag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does a Mach metre measure?

A

Ratio of actual speed to the local speed of sound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the two temperature readings?

A

Static air temperature
Total air temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is static air temperature?

A

The temperature of the air unaffected by disturbed air from the air frame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is total air temperature?

A

Disturbed air temperature usually effected by ram rise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When will static air temperature and total air temperature be the same?

A

On ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where is air temperature displayed?

A

EFIS or ECAM display

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is connected to the pitot static system?

A

-Altimeter
-Airspeed indicator
-vertical speed indicator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where are static ports located?

A

In smooth undisturbed airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What causes static source error and how is it overcome?

A

Fuselage shape, angle of attack, airspeed and the positions of flaps and slats etc.
The air data computer accounts for it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When must a static port be blanked?

A

When the aircraft is parked or cleaned

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is an IRU and an ADIRU

A

Inertial reference unit
Air data inertial reference unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What can affect static pressure measurements and how is it accounted for?

A

A side slip manoeuvre, there is one set on each side and they are connected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Where are pitot pressure tubes found?

A

On the nose into the airflow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the purpose of a baffle in a pitot pressure tube?

A

To prevent water or contaminant ingress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Where is the pitot drainage port?

A

At the lowest point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the purpose of heating pitot pressure tubes?

A

Prevent ice build up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the purpose of the alternate static selector?

A

If the pilot system fails it allows for both pilot and co pilot to read from the same system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Will small aircraft have an alternate static selector?

A

Only if it is certified for fly by instrument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Where are all of the instrument readings directed to for processing?

A

The air data computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is ARINC 429 and what is its speed?

A

-A method of transferring data
-32 BIT speed
- anything sent to ECAM or EFIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How many air data computers are there?

A

3 for redundancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is hot standby?

A

When a system is activated and ready to go in a fault situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is ADM and where is it located?

A

Air data module - it converts pitot static probe into electrical signal to be sent to the ADIRU it is located in the pitot static tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the function of the display management computer?

A

It takes the information from the ADC and puts it into the navigation display and PFD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

When would a leak test be performed on the pitot static system?

A

When the system has been disturbed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When is QNE used?

A

In transition periods take off and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

How does an encoding altimeter differ from a normal altimeter?

A

It gives altitude information as a numerical value as well as sending a digital code to the ATC transponder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

When is a radio altimeter used?

A

Below 2500 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the basic principle of a radio altimeter?

A

The E&I bar principle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What differs with an instantaneous VSI?

A

It gives readings immediately as it has an extra operating force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How fast does a gyroscope spin and how long does it take to run down?

A

22,000 RPM
20 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What gyroscope is used for an artificial horizon?

A

Vertical gyroscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does a vertical gyroscope give information on?

A

Pitch and roll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is another name for a horizontal gyroscope and what does it give information on?

A

Directional gyroscope
Heading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is a rate gyroscope used for?

A

Rate of turn indication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What type of gyroscope is a lazering gyroscope?

A

Rate gyroscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How many lazering gyroscopes are needed?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is in a standby gyroscope and how is it powered?

A

Battery
Vertical gyroscope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What will effect a gyroscopes rigidity?

A

-it’s mass
-rotational speed
-distance in radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the main way to keep a gyroscope rigid in an aircraft?

A

Rotational speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

How is a gyroscope kept in its axis?

A

Through a gimble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How are gyroscopes classified?

A

-degrees of freedom
-spin axis of orientation
-by their use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are degrees of freedom dictated by?

A

Number of gimballs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

If a gyroscope has one gimbal how many degrees of freedom does it have

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When is classification by spin axis important?

A

When it is maintained horizontally or vertically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What gyroscope type is needed on aircraft?

A

Earth tied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

How many degrees of freedom does a rate gyroscope have if it’s constrained by springs?

A

1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is gyroscope procession?

A

Input on x axis will influence the y axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is gyroscopic wander?

A

When the gyroscope stops pointing in a single direction and ‘drifts’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is real wander?

A

(Random wander) caused by engineering defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is apparent topple?

A

The change in orientation relative to the earth due to change in location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How does an electrical artificial horizon work?

A

An induction motor constructed so the rotor is the cage spinning on a vertical axis, the case is hermatically sealed with an inert gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is the purpose of levelling switches?

A

To tie the gyroscope to its vertical axis, they are mounted at right angles and control the torque motors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the two types of levelling switches?

A

Mercury and electrolyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the disadvantages of pneumatic gyroscopes?

A

-altitude increase slows the motor
-the pipelines are heavy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What effect do lazering gyroscopes work off of?

A

The Sagnac effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Where are lazering gyroscopes fitted?

A

To the airframe with the strap-down system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is a directional gyroscope?

A

High precision remote gyroscopes with two degrees of freedom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What are the functions of the horizontal situation indicator?

A

-heading indicator
-where the aircraft is relative to its course or radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What does the turn and slip (bank) indicator provide?

A

-Rate of turn in degrees per second
-whether the bank angles is correct for the turn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What mechanism does a turn and bank indicator rely on?

A

-gyroscopically controlled pointer mechanism for the detection and indication of the rate at which the aircraft turns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the turn indicator mechanism?

A

A rate gyroscope on a horizontal axis with a low rate of spin (9000rpm) which operates on procession

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What do rate gyroscopes have and what do they measure?

A

One gimbal with a freedom of 1.5 due to the springs, when a turn occurs it causes procession which moves against the spring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the rate of turn indication supplemented by?

A

Inclinometer = a ball which movement is dampened by a liquid, the ball being centred means the turn is perfectly coordinated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Where is a turn coordinater used?

A

In small aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What must be installed at each pitot static?

A

A direction indicator (a directionally stabilised magnet or non magnetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is CDMVT?

A

(Compass deviation magnetic variation true heading)
The true north differs from magnetic north

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is inclination?

A

Compasses measuring horizontal magnetic fields close to the poles have effected accuracy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the regulations conscerning magnetic instruments?

A

-Each compass or magnetic indicator must be installed so that is not heavily effected by interference or vibration
-No more than 10 degrees variation after compensation
-direction indicators must be safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What must be done to deviation on magnetic compasses when they cannot be accounted for with correcting?

A

Recorded on a compass card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Hard iron magnetisation characteristics?

A

Hard to demagnetise easy to magnetise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Soft iron magnetisation characteristics?

A

It’s Temporary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the function of a direct leading compass and its design?

A

(Standby compass)
Must be kept away from instruments
No electrical parts (can function in total electrical loss)
A lobber line shows the centre of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

How do you operate a direct reading compass?

A

-Must be kept horizontal
-it only works perfectly in level flight at a constant airspeed
-it can be effected by inclination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the purpose of a compass deviation card?

A

Gives information on heading in flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is important about compass lighting?

A

-brass case
-two contra wound filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

How often must a directional gyroscopes drift be corrected?

A

-frequently
-15 degrees per hour

105
Q

What is a flux valve and its function?

A

-Magnetic sensory device which transmits electrical signals relative to earth magnetic field
-it measures directions of magnetic fields

106
Q

Where is the flux valve located?

A

Wing tips or far away from the aircraft’s magnetic fields

107
Q

When will a stall warning occur?

A

When a stall is imminent

108
Q

What is alpha max?

A

The maximum angle of attack of an aircraft in its highest lift position

109
Q

When must a stall warning occur?

A

At least 5% or 5knts above the stall speed

110
Q

What measures the angle of attack?

A

Angle of attack sensor

111
Q

How many screens does a typical EFIS/ ECAM have?

A

6

112
Q

What is the benefit of a glass cockpit?

A

There is less focus on cramming all necessary instruments into a small cockpit to presenting information in a user friendly way

113
Q

Advantages of a glass cockpit?

A

-all data is presented on clear bright colourful displays
-precise numerical values are given they are mostly identical so if one fails another can take its function
-maintenance is cheaper and easier

114
Q

How is information organised in a glass cockpit ?

A

By screen and priority of information

115
Q

What is the function and design of brightness knobs?

A

To control the brightness of the screens typically dimmed at night and usually set to auto

116
Q

What are the two common screen types?

A

(CRT) camode ray tube
(LCD) liquid Crystal display

117
Q

What will be displayed on a PFD?

A
  • Airspeed
  • Attitude
  • Heading
  • Altitude
  • Vertical speed
  • Flight mode annunciation
  • Radio altitude
  • Flight guidance cues
118
Q

What is shown on the (ND) navigation display?

A
  • VOR modes
  • approach modes
  • Map modes (arc or rose)
  • plan mode
119
Q

What is contained on the (WD) warning display?

A

-EICAS/ECAM engine indicating system
-warnings
-cautions
-advisories
-communication messages
-memos

120
Q

What is the purpose of navigation system input?

A

Selects what information will be accounted for at that point

121
Q

What does the FLT DIR switch do?

A

Connects the left, centre or right flight control computer to the flight director portion of the display

122
Q

What is the function of the flight management computer selector switch?

A

Selects left or right flight management computer as the source of navigation and flight parameters

123
Q

What is (PLN) plan mode?

A

Used before flight to set up flight plan

124
Q

What is Map mode?

A

-Dynamic
-Waypoint systems
-NAVAID systems
-weather radar displayed

125
Q

When can EFIS self test be conducted?

A

In the air due to the air/ground test relay

126
Q

When can the weather radar be operated?

A

When the AMM states you can

127
Q

What are amber and caution colours and tones?

A

Amber - caution a single chime
Red - warning a continuous chime/alarm

128
Q

How are warning / cautions ordered on the central warning display?

A

Priority and order they appear the older they are the further down the display they will be

129
Q

What are the (CWP) central warning display colours and their meaning?

A

Red - warning
Amber - caution
Cyan - advisory
White - status
Green - system status
Magenta - info about a specific component

130
Q

What is the purpose of auto pilot?

A

-reduce workload
-reduce the chance of impaired judgment
-higher likelihood of human error decreased

131
Q

How many methods must there be to disengage autopilot?

A

At least 2

132
Q

What is the flight director?

A

Guidance aid to show the pilot the attitude required to follow a certain trajectory

133
Q

What is the auto trim function?

A

Maintain pitch stability during phases of a flight with the horizontal stabiliser

134
Q

What is the function of the yaw dumper?

A

Improves dynamic stability in all flight through deflecting the rudder in the opposite direction to Dutch roll

135
Q

What is flight envelope protection purpose?

A

Monitors the operation of all modern autoflight systems, preventing abnormal flight conditions

136
Q

What is the purpose of the flight management systems?

A

It carry’s out navigation and performance calculations for optimum flight performance

137
Q

Will the throttle physically move when in auto throttle?

A

No as the engines are controlled wholly by the (FADEC)

138
Q

How quickly must an autopilot react?

A

50m/s

139
Q

How does the autopilot input commands?

A

Electrical commands to control servos
Location feedback is sent from servos to electrical signals

140
Q

What is a duplex system?

A

A three channel autopilot pitch, roll and yaw

141
Q

Triplex system?

A

Three channel A, B and C lanes a voted output is taken with roll, pitch and yaw

142
Q

What is the purpose of duplex and triplex autopilot systems?

A

Redundancy
Comparators monitor all outputs any variation is fed to a voting system to decide which lane is at fault in the case of failure

143
Q

What does the inner and outer loop do?

A

Inner loop controls the flight surface, the outer loop sends the signal to the inner loop

144
Q

What is a closed loop system?

A

It relys on feedback

145
Q

What indicates incorrect trimming?

A

Constant input is needed to maintain straight and level flight

146
Q

What is altitude hold mode?

A

Based on barometric height the aircraft will hold an altitude selected by the switch being operated at that height

147
Q

When is an autopilot disengage warning initiated?

A

Whenever the lever drops to the off portion for any reason,
There will be a red flashing light and an audible warning

148
Q

What is the difference between auto throttle and thrust?

A

Levers will move with auto throttle
Thrust works through FADEC

149
Q

When does auto thrust / throttle not get used?

A

During taxi

150
Q

When is the thrust reverser locked?

A

Whenever the thrust lever is not retarded

151
Q

What is the definition of fail operational?

A

A fail means it will remain operational

152
Q

What is the definition of fail passive?

A

Fails are not dangerous

153
Q

What is FM and how does it work?

A

Frequency modulated
The audio is modulated to a higher frequency and de modulated by the receiver

154
Q

What is AM and how does it work?

A

Amplitude modulated
The audios amplitude is is modulated in its wave size and then de modulated at the receiver

155
Q

What is VHF?

A

FM (very high frequency)

156
Q

What is VHF used for?

A

Sight line/ short distance
For contact with ATC or other aircraft
Its reliability depends on time of day and ionosphere

157
Q

What is HF?

A

High frequency for long range or SATCOM

158
Q

What is the
-Cycle
-amplitude
-wavelength

A

-one complete series of values
-maximum displacement from zero
-the distance a wave travels per cycle

159
Q

What is the formula for wavelength?

A

Speed of light/frequency

160
Q

What is the frequency range for high frequency?

A

3-30 mhz

161
Q

What is the frequency range for very high frequency?

A

30-300 mhz

162
Q

What is the NAV / Comms frequency?

A

Nav = 108 -118 mhz
Comms = 118 - 137 MHz

163
Q

What are the spacing between Comms channels?

A

Previously it was 25 kHz but it has now been reduced to 8.33khz

164
Q

What does aerial length depend on?

A

Wavelength

165
Q

What is the frequency of ELT?

A

121.5 MHz

166
Q

What is the purpose the flight interphone system?

A

For flight crew to communicate to each over and the cockpit

167
Q

What is the design and function of the service interphone?

A

To communicate with the ground crew, functions with a weight on wheel switch

168
Q

What is SELCAL?

A

Selective calling

169
Q

What is the VHF used to transmit?

A

Voice and data

170
Q

What is a transceiver?

A

Transmitter and receiver for VHF on aircraft

171
Q

How many VHF Comms are on board and what are they for?

A

3
Pilot
Co pilot
ACARS

172
Q

What is ACARS?

A

Aircraft communication and reporting system
A pre set long range communication for company operations

173
Q

What is the purpose of the antenna tuning unit for HF aerials?

A

To electrically alter the size of the aerial for varying wavelengths

174
Q

What are long haul aircraft fitted with that is not always fitted to short haul?

A

Dual HF communication instillation fitted with dual components and some have dual aerial installations

175
Q

How does SELCAL function and its purpose?

A

Tells the flight crew when they aware contacted making continuous monitoring unnecessary
- each aircraft have a dedicated 4 letter code
- Each transmit on the assigned frequency

176
Q

What is the purpose and benefits of SATCOM?

A

It replaces HF for long range communication
Sends data and audio information
Can be used to make calls access emails and the internet
The pilot can keep direct communication with ATC

177
Q

What are the benefits of SATCOM?

A

It can also allow for call making, access emails and the internet as well as allowing the pilot to keep direct contact with ATC

178
Q

How does SATCOM work?

A

Off of 3 geostationary satellites with one spare

179
Q

How does the aircraft access satellites?

A

One at a time if it fails to make contact then the aircraft will try the next

180
Q

How does SATCOM remain in contact?

A

There is an antenna which is electronically steered to ensure that it is always pointed towards the satelite

181
Q

What is ACARS?

A

A digital data link for global communication

182
Q

What are the two main ACARS networks?

A

SITA and ARINC

183
Q

What does ACARS run on?

A

VHF 3

184
Q

What does ACARS run on in high range?

A

SATCOM

185
Q

What is the difference between the FDR and CVR?

A

FDR: recent history of the flight through dozens parameters collected several times a second
CVR: preserves the recent history of the sounds of the cockpit

186
Q

What is recorded onto with CVR and FDR?

A

Solid state memory

187
Q

How much data is stored from the FDR and CVR?

A

The last 25 hours of flight

188
Q

What must a flight data computer be able to withstand?

A

3400 G and 1000 degrees

189
Q

What depth can a flight data recorder withstand ?

A

6000 metres

190
Q

How long and when does the underwater locator beacon function?

A

90 days continuously
It begins on contact with water

191
Q

When does FDR begin and end recording?

A

The flight start and end

192
Q

How is the FDR/CVR powered?

A

Double power supply one from the emergency bus and an Independent back up

193
Q

What begins the recording on and FDR?

A

Engine oil pressure switch or an airspeed signal

194
Q

What is the purpose of (ELT) the emergency locator transmitter?

A

To help locate the aircraft after an emergency landing

195
Q

What is the purpose of (ELT) the emergency locator transmitter?

A

To help locate the aircraft after an emergency landing

196
Q

What information does an ELT provide and for how long?

A

In the form of a single output including longitude and latitude from the aircraft navigation system for at least 24 hours

197
Q

What are the types of ELT?

A

-fixed (permanently mounted in the aircraft upper aft section)
-fixed/portable (a portable ELT mounted in a semi fixed position within the aircraft mounted in semi fixed position which automatically triggers on crash)
-portable (crew deployed to be carried onto a life raft)

198
Q

What are the types of ELT?

A

-fixed (permanently mounted in the aircraft upper aft section)
-fixed/portable (a portable ELT mounted in a semi fixed position within the aircraft mounted in semi fixed position which automatically triggers on crash)
-portable (crew deployed to be carried onto a life raft)

199
Q

What is the operation of an ELT?

A

It contains:
-serial number of the transmitter
-aircraft ID
-country code
-position co ordinates

Within an encoded digital signal

200
Q

What MHz does an ELT use?

A

406 MHz carrier

201
Q

What must the ELT be set to in flight?

A

Armed

202
Q

What is important about testing ELT?

A

Only be done a specific times

203
Q

How many satellites must the aircraft be in contact with for GPS 3d navigation?

A

4

204
Q

What is ADF?

A

Automatic direction finding
The oldest form of radio navigation used it gives relative location based on ground stations or beacons

205
Q

What frequencies does ADF work on?

A

190khz - 1750khz

206
Q

What is the slant range?

A

The distance to DME STN
(Hypotenuse)

207
Q

What do ground based radio systems give?

A

Signals which bearings can be derived from

208
Q

What is relative bearing?

A

Bearing angle between the aircraft nose and the ground station

209
Q

What is another name for an ADF station?

A

Non directional beacon

210
Q

What is ADF primarily used for?

A

-En route navigation
-position fixing
-position holding

211
Q

What antenna type does ADF use?

A

-combined loop / sense

212
Q

What is VOR?

A

Very high frequency omnidirectional range

213
Q

How is bearing from a station measured?

A

Clockwise

214
Q

What does a VOR provide?

A

Relative bearing

215
Q

What is the functional principle of VOR?

A

Similar to a lighthouse, measuring between detecting the signal and when it intersects north

216
Q

What are the two signals given by VOR?

A

Reference and variable

217
Q

Where is the VOR displayed?

A

RMI radio magnetic indicator

218
Q

What is DME?

A

Distance measuring equipment

219
Q

What is the DME principle of operation?

A

An omnidirectional interrogation is sent out in a series of pulse ranges using a calculated slant range, it calculates the time before the reply arrives by giving distance and bearing

220
Q

Where Is DME displayed?

A

RMI and the navigation display or an independent DME indicator

221
Q

What is ILS?

A

Instrument landing systems - approach and landing aid

222
Q

What is the localiser transmission path?

A

Two frequency RF modulated 90-150
150 is directed more right
90 is directed more left
The receiver reads these and will predominate based on its left or right position

223
Q

What is the beam width of the localiser a function of?

A

Runway length (longer runway less width)

224
Q

What is followed for a glide slope?

A

Glide slope transmitter
Following the same principle as the localiser transmitter

225
Q

Do marker beacons need to be tuned?

A

No they are all 75mhz

226
Q

What is the purpose of a marker beacon system?

A

It indicates to the flight crew that the aircraft is passing over a point such as a glide slope

227
Q

What do amber and white indicators in marker beacon systems?

A

Blue outer
Amber middle
White inner

228
Q

What will a marker beacon system do to show the marker has been passed?

A

Audio visual system

229
Q

What does the primary radar system do?

A

Detects and tracks objects in the airspace

230
Q

How does a primary radar system function?

A

It emits a pulse of electromagnetic radio waves and measures reflection

231
Q

What are the main uses of primary radar?

A

-weather radar
-radio altimeter
-ATC primary surveillance data

232
Q

What is the purpose of secondary radar?

A

Identifying and tracking radar

233
Q

What principle does secondary radar function on?

A

Interrogation and response

234
Q

What is provided in response to an interrogation and from what?

A

The transponder will give an identification code in Mode A, altitude in Mode B, additional data in mode C

235
Q

What is the function of the ATC transponder?

A

Aka squawk
On receive and transmit position and altitude will be given, the reply will contain flight ID and altitude

236
Q

What are the codes used on ATC transponder?

A

0000/7777

237
Q

What is TCAS?

A

Traffic collision avoidance system

238
Q

What is the function of TCAS?

A

It evaluates and tracks intruders by interrogating and provides collision avoidance information

239
Q

What is TCAS capable of detecting?

A

Mode c or s transponders

240
Q

What is the low range radio altimeter and its purpose?

A

A loading and approach aid providing
-height from ground below 2500 feet from the calibrated wheel height
-deviation guide
And it interfaces with the autopilot

241
Q

How many and where are low range radio altimeters mounted?

A

Two on the FWD belly

242
Q

What is GPS ?

A

Global Positioning System

243
Q

What are the three functional segments associated with GPS?

A

Used
Satelite
Control

244
Q

What are the three functional segments associated with GPS?

A

Used
Satelite
Control

245
Q

What is INS inertial navigation system?

A

Providing that position is known on three axis using an accelerometer on each plane position can be plotted through travel

246
Q

What does once inter-grated and twice intergrated mean in terms of the INS?

A

Once : speed
Twice : distance

247
Q

What does ADIRU / IRU take data from on the FMC to gain what information?

A

-initial aircraft position
-calibrated gyros and accelerometers

248
Q

What information will the flight management computer send to the ADIRU?

A

-initial position
-aircraft type
-GPS position
-GPS velocity

249
Q

When does the ADIRU battery light come on?

A

When the only source of power is the hot battery bus

250
Q

What mode must the ADIRU be in to supply inertial position data?

A

NAV

251
Q

What is FANS?

A

Future air navigation systems

252
Q

What is EGPW?

A

Enhance ground proximity warning systems

253
Q

What is CFIT?

A

Controlled flight into terrain:
Accidental flight into terrain due to loss in position

254
Q

What does the GPWS do?

A

A visual an audible warning due to closeness to terrain

255
Q

What information is used for GPWS?

A

Glide slope deviation, barometric altitude, rate radio altitude

256
Q

Why are flap position and landing gear used as logic gates for GPWS?

A

Landing settings mean they descent is likely intentional

257
Q

What does EGPWS give?

A

Worldwide terrain mapping

258
Q

What are the modes associated with GPWS?

A

Mode 1 excessive descent
Mode 2 excessive terrain closure rate
Mode 3 altitude loss after take off
Mode 4 unsafe terrain clearance
Mode 5 excessive glide slope deviation
Mode 6 advisory call outs
Mode 7 wind shear

259
Q

What is the flight management system?

A

Manages flight
Navigation
Performance
Display guidance

Willys Flashing (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions