11.5 Flashcards
1
Q
If an aircraft is (IFR) rated what must it have?
A
More than one source for each instrument (alternate source)
2
Q
ECAM meaning?
A
Electronic centralised aircraft monitoring
3
Q
Where is the PFD located?
A
The outboard side in the cockpit with one for pilot one for co pilot
4
Q
EHSI meaning?
A
Electronic horizontal situational indicator
5
Q
EADI meaning?
A
Electronic altitude directional indicator
6
Q
How many screen are there on a typical EFIS system (electronic flight instrument system)
A
6
7
Q
What is contained in the basic T?
A
Right = Altimeter
Left = airspeed indicator
Top middle = artificial horizon
Bottom middle = compass or heading indicator
8
Q
What are the additional important flight instruments?
A
-vertical speed indicator
-Mach meter
-temperature indicators
9
Q
Where are altitude based instruments on the basic T?
A
Right hand side
10
Q
Qualitive and quantitive meaning?
A
Qualitive = colour or visual indication
Quantitive= purely informational or numerative
11
Q
What is pressure displayed in?
A
Inches of mercury or hectopascals
12
Q
Which instruments work off of pressure?
A
-Altimeter
-Air speed indicator
-Vertical speed indicator
13
Q
What is the standard temperature at sea level?
A
15 degrees C
14
Q
How much does temperature decrease with altitude?
A
2 degrees C per 1000 feet
15
Q
What pressure type does an Altimeter measure from?
A
Static pressure
16
Q
What is the pressure as a percentage of sea level at
-18,000 feet
-36,000 feet
-54,000 feet
A
18,000 = 50% of sea level
36,000 = 25% of sea level
54,000 = 12.5% of sea level
17
Q
What happens to the altimeter at low level and what is done to negate this?
A
The altimeter is less accurate a radio altimeter is used instead below 2500 feet
18
Q
How does an altimeter function?
A
As pressure decreases in the casing a bellow will expand this is measured, on larger aircraft this information is processed by the air data computer
19
Q
Why is the aneroid capsule diaphragm corregated?
A
The higher surface are makes it more sensitive and therefore accurate
20
Q
What is the meaning of the terms QNE, QNH and QFE?
A
QNE = used in cruise set to the standard pressure 1013.25 hPa
QNH = measured height above standard sea level
QFE = measured height above field elevation in terms of the closest airport
21
Q
What pressure does the airspeed indicator read from?
A
Static and dynamic or total air pressure
22
Q
What ports are connected to the airspeed indicator?
A
-Pitot and static
-pitot being connected to the bellows
-static is connected to the casing
23
Q
What are the stall speed limits?
A
VFO = stall speed in landing configuration
VS1= stall speed in clean flight at maximum weight
VSE = maximum allowable speed with the flaps extended
VNO = maximum airspeed at cruise
VNE = maximum airspeed that cannot be exceeded
24
Q
On an airspeed indicator what do green, white and yellow indicate?
A
Green = normal operation range
White = full flap operating range
Yellow = caution range
25
What does the vertical speed indicator show?
Rate of climb or descent in feet per minute
26
On a vertical speed indicator what is measured and what is used in this measurement?
A calibrated metering unit
Static pressure enters the casing this measures differential pressure
27
What is a disadvantage of the vertical speed indicator?
There is a lag
28
What does a Mach metre measure?
Ratio of actual speed to the local speed of sound
29
What are the two temperature readings?
Static air temperature
Total air temperature
30
What is static air temperature?
The temperature of the air unaffected by disturbed air from the air frame
31
What is total air temperature?
Disturbed air temperature usually effected by ram rise
32
When will static air temperature and total air temperature be the same?
On ground
33
Where is air temperature displayed?
EFIS or ECAM display
34
What is connected to the pitot static system?
-Altimeter
-Airspeed indicator
-vertical speed indicator
35
Where are static ports located?
In smooth undisturbed airflow
36
What causes static source error and how is it overcome?
Fuselage shape, angle of attack, airspeed and the positions of flaps and slats etc.
The air data computer accounts for it
37
When must a static port be blanked?
When the aircraft is parked or cleaned
38
What is an IRU and an ADIRU
Inertial reference unit
Air data inertial reference unit
39
What can affect static pressure measurements and how is it accounted for?
A side slip manoeuvre, there is one set on each side and they are connected
40
Where are pitot pressure tubes found?
On the nose into the airflow
41
What is the purpose of a baffle in a pitot pressure tube?
To prevent water or contaminant ingress
42
Where is the pitot drainage port?
At the lowest point
43
What is the purpose of heating pitot pressure tubes?
Prevent ice build up
44
What is the purpose of the alternate static selector?
If the pilot system fails it allows for both pilot and co pilot to read from the same system
45
Will small aircraft have an alternate static selector?
Only if it is certified for fly by instrument
46
Where are all of the instrument readings directed to for processing?
The air data computer
47
What is ARINC 429 and what is its speed?
-A method of transferring data
-32 BIT speed
- anything sent to ECAM or EFIC
48
How many air data computers are there?
3 for redundancy
49
What is hot standby?
When a system is activated and ready to go in a fault situation
50
What is ADM and where is it located?
Air data module - it converts pitot static probe into electrical signal to be sent to the ADIRU it is located in the pitot static tube
51
What is the function of the display management computer?
It takes the information from the ADC and puts it into the navigation display and PFD
52
When would a leak test be performed on the pitot static system?
When the system has been disturbed
53
When is QNE used?
In transition periods take off and landing
54
How does an encoding altimeter differ from a normal altimeter?
It gives altitude information as a numerical value as well as sending a digital code to the ATC transponder
55
When is a radio altimeter used?
Below 2500 feet
56
What is the basic principle of a radio altimeter?
The E&I bar principle
57
What differs with an instantaneous VSI?
It gives readings immediately as it has an extra operating force
58
How fast does a gyroscope spin and how long does it take to run down?
22,000 RPM
20 minutes
59
What gyroscope is used for an artificial horizon?
Vertical gyroscope
60
What does a vertical gyroscope give information on?
Pitch and roll
61
What is another name for a horizontal gyroscope and what does it give information on?
Directional gyroscope
Heading
62
What is a rate gyroscope used for?
Rate of turn indication
63
What type of gyroscope is a lazering gyroscope?
Rate gyroscope
64
How many lazering gyroscopes are needed?
3
65
What is in a standby gyroscope and how is it powered?
Battery
Vertical gyroscope
66
What will effect a gyroscopes rigidity?
-it’s mass
-rotational speed
-distance in radius
67
What is the main way to keep a gyroscope rigid in an aircraft?
Rotational speed
68
How is a gyroscope kept in its axis?
Through a gimble
69
How are gyroscopes classified?
-degrees of freedom
-spin axis of orientation
-by their use
70
What are degrees of freedom dictated by?
Number of gimballs
71
If a gyroscope has one gimbal how many degrees of freedom does it have
One
72
When is classification by spin axis important?
When it is maintained horizontally or vertically
73
What gyroscope type is needed on aircraft?
Earth tied
74
How many degrees of freedom does a rate gyroscope have if it’s constrained by springs?
1.5
75
What is gyroscope procession?
Input on x axis will influence the y axis
76
What is gyroscopic wander?
When the gyroscope stops pointing in a single direction and ‘drifts’
77
What is real wander?
(Random wander) caused by engineering defects
78
What is apparent topple?
The change in orientation relative to the earth due to change in location
79
How does an electrical artificial horizon work?
An induction motor constructed so the rotor is the cage spinning on a vertical axis, the case is hermatically sealed with an inert gas
80
What is the purpose of levelling switches?
To tie the gyroscope to its vertical axis, they are mounted at right angles and control the torque motors
81
What are the two types of levelling switches?
Mercury and electrolyte
82
What are the disadvantages of pneumatic gyroscopes?
-altitude increase slows the motor
-the pipelines are heavy
83
What effect do lazering gyroscopes work off of?
The Sagnac effect
84
Where are lazering gyroscopes fitted?
To the airframe with the strap-down system
85
What is a directional gyroscope?
High precision remote gyroscopes with two degrees of freedom
86
What are the functions of the horizontal situation indicator?
-heading indicator
-where the aircraft is relative to its course or radial
87
What does the turn and slip (bank) indicator provide?
-Rate of turn in degrees per second
-whether the bank angles is correct for the turn
88
What mechanism does a turn and bank indicator rely on?
-gyroscopically controlled pointer mechanism for the detection and indication of the rate at which the aircraft turns
89
What is the turn indicator mechanism?
A rate gyroscope on a horizontal axis with a low rate of spin (9000rpm) which operates on procession
90
What do rate gyroscopes have and what do they measure?
One gimbal with a freedom of 1.5 due to the springs, when a turn occurs it causes procession which moves against the spring
91
What is the rate of turn indication supplemented by?
Inclinometer = a ball which movement is dampened by a liquid, the ball being centred means the turn is perfectly coordinated
92
Where is a turn coordinater used?
In small aircraft
93
What must be installed at each pitot static?
A direction indicator (a directionally stabilised magnet or non magnetic)
94
What is CDMVT?
(Compass deviation magnetic variation true heading)
The true north differs from magnetic north
95
What is inclination?
Compasses measuring horizontal magnetic fields close to the poles have effected accuracy
96
What are the regulations conscerning magnetic instruments?
-Each compass or magnetic indicator must be installed so that is not heavily effected by interference or vibration
-No more than 10 degrees variation after compensation
-direction indicators must be safe
97
What must be done to deviation on magnetic compasses when they cannot be accounted for with correcting?
Recorded on a compass card
98
Hard iron magnetisation characteristics?
Hard to demagnetise easy to magnetise
99
Soft iron magnetisation characteristics?
It’s Temporary
100
What is the function of a direct leading compass and its design?
(Standby compass)
Must be kept away from instruments
No electrical parts (can function in total electrical loss)
A lobber line shows the centre of
101
How do you operate a direct reading compass?
-Must be kept horizontal
-it only works perfectly in level flight at a constant airspeed
-it can be effected by inclination
102
What is the purpose of a compass deviation card?
Gives information on heading in flight
103
What is important about compass lighting?
-brass case
-two contra wound filaments
104
How often must a directional gyroscopes drift be corrected?
-frequently
-15 degrees per hour
105
What is a flux valve and its function?
-Magnetic sensory device which transmits electrical signals relative to earth magnetic field
-it measures directions of magnetic fields
106
Where is the flux valve located?
Wing tips or far away from the aircraft’s magnetic fields
107
When will a stall warning occur?
When a stall is imminent
108
What is alpha max?
The maximum angle of attack of an aircraft in its highest lift position
109
When must a stall warning occur?
At least 5% or 5knts above the stall speed
110
What measures the angle of attack?
Angle of attack sensor
111
How many screens does a typical EFIS/ ECAM have?
6
112
What is the benefit of a glass cockpit?
There is less focus on cramming all necessary instruments into a small cockpit to presenting information in a user friendly way
113
Advantages of a glass cockpit?
-all data is presented on clear bright colourful displays
-precise numerical values are given they are mostly identical so if one fails another can take its function
-maintenance is cheaper and easier
114
How is information organised in a glass cockpit ?
By screen and priority of information
115
What is the function and design of brightness knobs?
To control the brightness of the screens typically dimmed at night and usually set to auto
116
What are the two common screen types?
(CRT) camode ray tube
(LCD) liquid Crystal display
117
What will be displayed on a PFD?
- Airspeed
- Attitude
- Heading
- Altitude
- Vertical speed
- Flight mode annunciation
- Radio altitude
- Flight guidance cues
118
What is shown on the (ND) navigation display?
- VOR modes
- approach modes
- Map modes (arc or rose)
- plan mode
119
What is contained on the (WD) warning display?
-EICAS/ECAM engine indicating system
-warnings
-cautions
-advisories
-communication messages
-memos
120
What is the purpose of navigation system input?
Selects what information will be accounted for at that point
121
What does the FLT DIR switch do?
Connects the left, centre or right flight control computer to the flight director portion of the display
122
What is the function of the flight management computer selector switch?
Selects left or right flight management computer as the source of navigation and flight parameters
123
What is (PLN) plan mode?
Used before flight to set up flight plan
124
What is Map mode?
-Dynamic
-Waypoint systems
-NAVAID systems
-weather radar displayed
125
When can EFIS self test be conducted?
In the air due to the air/ground test relay
126
When can the weather radar be operated?
When the AMM states you can
127
What are amber and caution colours and tones?
Amber - caution a single chime
Red - warning a continuous chime/alarm
128
How are warning / cautions ordered on the central warning display?
Priority and order they appear the older they are the further down the display they will be
129
What are the (CWP) central warning display colours and their meaning?
Red - warning
Amber - caution
Cyan - advisory
White - status
Green - system status
Magenta - info about a specific component
130
What is the purpose of auto pilot?
-reduce workload
-reduce the chance of impaired judgment
-higher likelihood of human error decreased
131
How many methods must there be to disengage autopilot?
At least 2
132
What is the flight director?
Guidance aid to show the pilot the attitude required to follow a certain trajectory
133
What is the auto trim function?
Maintain pitch stability during phases of a flight with the horizontal stabiliser
134
What is the function of the yaw dumper?
Improves dynamic stability in all flight through deflecting the rudder in the opposite direction to Dutch roll
135
What is flight envelope protection purpose?
Monitors the operation of all modern autoflight systems, preventing abnormal flight conditions
136
What is the purpose of the flight management systems?
It carry’s out navigation and performance calculations for optimum flight performance
137
Will the throttle physically move when in auto throttle?
No as the engines are controlled wholly by the (FADEC)
138
How quickly must an autopilot react?
50m/s
139
How does the autopilot input commands?
Electrical commands to control servos
Location feedback is sent from servos to electrical signals
140
What is a duplex system?
A three channel autopilot pitch, roll and yaw
141
Triplex system?
Three channel A, B and C lanes a voted output is taken with roll, pitch and yaw
142
What is the purpose of duplex and triplex autopilot systems?
Redundancy
Comparators monitor all outputs any variation is fed to a voting system to decide which lane is at fault in the case of failure
143
What does the inner and outer loop do?
Inner loop controls the flight surface, the outer loop sends the signal to the inner loop
144
What is a closed loop system?
It relys on feedback
145
What indicates incorrect trimming?
Constant input is needed to maintain straight and level flight
146
What is altitude hold mode?
Based on barometric height the aircraft will hold an altitude selected by the switch being operated at that height
147
When is an autopilot disengage warning initiated?
Whenever the lever drops to the off portion for any reason,
There will be a red flashing light and an audible warning
148
What is the difference between auto throttle and thrust?
Levers will move with auto throttle
Thrust works through FADEC
149
When does auto thrust / throttle not get used?
During taxi
150
When is the thrust reverser locked?
Whenever the thrust lever is not retarded
151
What is the definition of fail operational?
A fail means it will remain operational
152
What is the definition of fail passive?
Fails are not dangerous
153
What is FM and how does it work?
Frequency modulated
The audio is modulated to a higher frequency and de modulated by the receiver
154
What is AM and how does it work?
Amplitude modulated
The audios amplitude is is modulated in its wave size and then de modulated at the receiver
155
What is VHF?
FM (very high frequency)
156
What is VHF used for?
Sight line/ short distance
For contact with ATC or other aircraft
Its reliability depends on time of day and ionosphere
157
What is HF?
High frequency for long range or SATCOM
158
What is the
-Cycle
-amplitude
-wavelength
-one complete series of values
-maximum displacement from zero
-the distance a wave travels per cycle
159
What is the formula for wavelength?
Speed of light/frequency
160
What is the frequency range for high frequency?
3-30 mhz
161
What is the frequency range for very high frequency?
30-300 mhz
162
What is the NAV / Comms frequency?
Nav = 108 -118 mhz
Comms = 118 - 137 MHz
163
What are the spacing between Comms channels?
Previously it was 25 kHz but it has now been reduced to 8.33khz
164
What does aerial length depend on?
Wavelength
165
What is the frequency of ELT?
121.5 MHz
166
What is the purpose the flight interphone system?
For flight crew to communicate to each over and the cockpit
167
What is the design and function of the service interphone?
To communicate with the ground crew, functions with a weight on wheel switch
168
What is SELCAL?
Selective calling
169
What is the VHF used to transmit?
Voice and data
170
What is a transceiver?
Transmitter and receiver for VHF on aircraft
171
How many VHF Comms are on board and what are they for?
3
Pilot
Co pilot
ACARS
172
What is ACARS?
Aircraft communication and reporting system
A pre set long range communication for company operations
173
What is the purpose of the antenna tuning unit for HF aerials?
To electrically alter the size of the aerial for varying wavelengths
174
What are long haul aircraft fitted with that is not always fitted to short haul?
Dual HF communication instillation fitted with dual components and some have dual aerial installations
175
How does SELCAL function and its purpose?
Tells the flight crew when they aware contacted making continuous monitoring unnecessary
- each aircraft have a dedicated 4 letter code
- Each transmit on the assigned frequency
176
What is the purpose and benefits of SATCOM?
It replaces HF for long range communication
Sends data and audio information
Can be used to make calls access emails and the internet
The pilot can keep direct communication with ATC
177
What are the benefits of SATCOM?
It can also allow for call making, access emails and the internet as well as allowing the pilot to keep direct contact with ATC
178
How does SATCOM work?
Off of 3 geostationary satellites with one spare
179
How does the aircraft access satellites?
One at a time if it fails to make contact then the aircraft will try the next
180
How does SATCOM remain in contact?
There is an antenna which is electronically steered to ensure that it is always pointed towards the satelite
181
What is ACARS?
A digital data link for global communication
182
What are the two main ACARS networks?
SITA and ARINC
183
What does ACARS run on?
VHF 3
184
What does ACARS run on in high range?
SATCOM
185
What is the difference between the FDR and CVR?
FDR: recent history of the flight through dozens parameters collected several times a second
CVR: preserves the recent history of the sounds of the cockpit
186
What is recorded onto with CVR and FDR?
Solid state memory
187
How much data is stored from the FDR and CVR?
The last 25 hours of flight
188
What must a flight data computer be able to withstand?
3400 G and 1000 degrees
189
What depth can a flight data recorder withstand ?
6000 metres
190
How long and when does the underwater locator beacon function?
90 days continuously
It begins on contact with water
191
When does FDR begin and end recording?
The flight start and end
192
How is the FDR/CVR powered?
Double power supply one from the emergency bus and an Independent back up
193
What begins the recording on and FDR?
Engine oil pressure switch or an airspeed signal
194
What is the purpose of (ELT) the emergency locator transmitter?
To help locate the aircraft after an emergency landing
195
What is the purpose of (ELT) the emergency locator transmitter?
To help locate the aircraft after an emergency landing
196
What information does an ELT provide and for how long?
In the form of a single output including longitude and latitude from the aircraft navigation system for at least 24 hours
197
What are the types of ELT?
-fixed (permanently mounted in the aircraft upper aft section)
-fixed/portable (a portable ELT mounted in a semi fixed position within the aircraft mounted in semi fixed position which automatically triggers on crash)
-portable (crew deployed to be carried onto a life raft)
198
What are the types of ELT?
-fixed (permanently mounted in the aircraft upper aft section)
-fixed/portable (a portable ELT mounted in a semi fixed position within the aircraft mounted in semi fixed position which automatically triggers on crash)
-portable (crew deployed to be carried onto a life raft)
199
What is the operation of an ELT?
It contains:
-serial number of the transmitter
-aircraft ID
-country code
-position co ordinates
Within an encoded digital signal
200
What MHz does an ELT use?
406 MHz carrier
201
What must the ELT be set to in flight?
Armed
202
What is important about testing ELT?
Only be done a specific times
203
How many satellites must the aircraft be in contact with for GPS 3d navigation?
4
204
What is ADF?
Automatic direction finding
The oldest form of radio navigation used it gives relative location based on ground stations or beacons
205
What frequencies does ADF work on?
190khz - 1750khz
206
What is the slant range?
The distance to DME STN
(Hypotenuse)
207
What do ground based radio systems give?
Signals which bearings can be derived from
208
What is relative bearing?
Bearing angle between the aircraft nose and the ground station
209
What is another name for an ADF station?
Non directional beacon
210
What is ADF primarily used for?
-En route navigation
-position fixing
-position holding
211
What antenna type does ADF use?
-combined loop / sense
212
What is VOR?
Very high frequency omnidirectional range
213
How is bearing from a station measured?
Clockwise
214
What does a VOR provide?
Relative bearing
215
What is the functional principle of VOR?
Similar to a lighthouse, measuring between detecting the signal and when it intersects north
216
What are the two signals given by VOR?
Reference and variable
217
Where is the VOR displayed?
RMI radio magnetic indicator
218
What is DME?
Distance measuring equipment
219
What is the DME principle of operation?
An omnidirectional interrogation is sent out in a series of pulse ranges using a calculated slant range, it calculates the time before the reply arrives by giving distance and bearing
220
Where Is DME displayed?
RMI and the navigation display or an independent DME indicator
221
What is ILS?
Instrument landing systems - approach and landing aid
222
What is the localiser transmission path?
Two frequency RF modulated 90-150
150 is directed more right
90 is directed more left
The receiver reads these and will predominate based on its left or right position
223
What is the beam width of the localiser a function of?
Runway length (longer runway less width)
224
What is followed for a glide slope?
Glide slope transmitter
Following the same principle as the localiser transmitter
225
Do marker beacons need to be tuned?
No they are all 75mhz
226
What is the purpose of a marker beacon system?
It indicates to the flight crew that the aircraft is passing over a point such as a glide slope
227
What do amber and white indicators in marker beacon systems?
Blue outer
Amber middle
White inner
228
What will a marker beacon system do to show the marker has been passed?
Audio visual system
229
What does the primary radar system do?
Detects and tracks objects in the airspace
230
How does a primary radar system function?
It emits a pulse of electromagnetic radio waves and measures reflection
231
What are the main uses of primary radar?
-weather radar
-radio altimeter
-ATC primary surveillance data
232
What is the purpose of secondary radar?
Identifying and tracking radar
233
What principle does secondary radar function on?
Interrogation and response
234
What is provided in response to an interrogation and from what?
The transponder will give an identification code in Mode A, altitude in Mode B, additional data in mode C
235
What is the function of the ATC transponder?
Aka squawk
On receive and transmit position and altitude will be given, the reply will contain flight ID and altitude
236
What are the codes used on ATC transponder?
0000/7777
237
What is TCAS?
Traffic collision avoidance system
238
What is the function of TCAS?
It evaluates and tracks intruders by interrogating and provides collision avoidance information
239
What is TCAS capable of detecting?
Mode c or s transponders
240
What is the low range radio altimeter and its purpose?
A loading and approach aid providing
-height from ground below 2500 feet from the calibrated wheel height
-deviation guide
And it interfaces with the autopilot
241
How many and where are low range radio altimeters mounted?
Two on the FWD belly
242
What is GPS ?
Global Positioning System
243
What are the three functional segments associated with GPS?
Used
Satelite
Control
244
What are the three functional segments associated with GPS?
Used
Satelite
Control
245
What is INS inertial navigation system?
Providing that position is known on three axis using an accelerometer on each plane position can be plotted through travel
246
What does once inter-grated and twice intergrated mean in terms of the INS?
Once : speed
Twice : distance
247
What does ADIRU / IRU take data from on the FMC to gain what information?
-initial aircraft position
-calibrated gyros and accelerometers
248
What information will the flight management computer send to the ADIRU?
-initial position
-aircraft type
-GPS position
-GPS velocity
249
When does the ADIRU battery light come on?
When the only source of power is the hot battery bus
250
What mode must the ADIRU be in to supply inertial position data?
NAV
251
What is FANS?
Future air navigation systems
252
What is EGPW?
Enhance ground proximity warning systems
253
What is CFIT?
Controlled flight into terrain:
Accidental flight into terrain due to loss in position
254
What does the GPWS do?
A visual an audible warning due to closeness to terrain
255
What information is used for GPWS?
Glide slope deviation, barometric altitude, rate radio altitude
256
Why are flap position and landing gear used as logic gates for GPWS?
Landing settings mean they descent is likely intentional
257
What does EGPWS give?
Worldwide terrain mapping
258
What are the modes associated with GPWS?
Mode 1 excessive descent
Mode 2 excessive terrain closure rate
Mode 3 altitude loss after take off
Mode 4 unsafe terrain clearance
Mode 5 excessive glide slope deviation
Mode 6 advisory call outs
Mode 7 wind shear
259
What is the flight management system?
Manages flight
Navigation
Performance
Display guidance
