Ýmislegt Flashcards

1
Q

A change from IFR to VFR flight is only acceptable when..

a. a message containing the phrase “CANCELLING MY IFR FLIGHT” has been initiated by the pilot
b. ATC has invited the pilot to change to VFR flight
c. ATC has authorised the change

A

a. a message containing the phrase “CANCELLING MY IFR FLIGHT” has been initiated by the pilot

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2
Q

A VFR flight shall be operated at a flight level appropriate to the track as specified in the Tables of Cruising Levels when operated: above ___ ft GND or MSL

A

3000

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3
Q

In order to use Area Navigation (RNAV), based on VOR/DME, in a departure procedure, the procedure must be based on one reference facility, composed of:

a. VOR and separate DME
b. two separately located DME’s
c. two separately located VOR’s
d. VOR and co-located DME

A

d. VOR and co-located DME

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4
Q

The purpose of the 2.5% Obstacle Identification Surface (OIS) is to:
Select one:
a. identify close-in obstacles, used in designing a PDG, which may be included on the SID chart
d. provide a minimum climb gradient during a Standard Instrument Departure (SID

A

a. identify close-in obstacles, used in designing a PDG, which may be included on the SID chart

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5
Q

If contact is lost with the runway on the downwind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what action should be taken:
Select one:
b. If you other visual cues, continue the approach
c. Initiate a missed approach

A

c. Initiate a missed approach

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6
Q

Determination of the transition level is the responsibility of:

a. The authority of the state
b. The ATC authority
c. Approach control office or the aerodrome control tower

A

c. Approach control office or the aerodrome control tower

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7
Q

The lowest transition altitude is normally not less than __ ft above the aerodrome.

A

3000 ft

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8
Q

What is the transition level?

a. The top of the ATZ
b. The first available flight level above the transition altitude
c. The highest flight level available below the transition altitude

A

b. The first available flight level above the transition altitude

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9
Q

The minimum distance between parallel runway centre line for Simultaneous Independent Parallel Approaches (Mode 1) is:

a. 1035m
b. 760m

A

a. 1035m

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10
Q

When acknowledging mode/code setting instructions, pilot shall:

a. Read back only the code to be set
b. Read back the mode and code to be set

A

b. Read back the mode and code to be set

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11
Q

When the SSR transponder appears to be unserviceable and repair is not possible before departure, then:
Select one:
a. The aircraft would be permitted to depart to the nearest aerodrome where repair can be carried out
d. The pilot must indicate the failure on the flight plan after which ATC will endeavour to provide for the flight to be continued

A

d. The pilot must indicate the failure on the flight plan after which ATC will endeavour to provide for the flight to be continued

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12
Q

Which of the following is not a valid SSR mode A squawk?

a. A5555
b. A7777
c. A2345
d. A5678

A

A5678

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13
Q

The lowest height of the base of a CTA above ground or water is:

a. 150m
d. 200m

A

150m

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14
Q

What is the maximum speed permitted in class B airspace?

a. 250 kts only below FL100
b. Not applicable

A

b. Not applicable

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15
Q

What is the speed restriction in class B airspace under FL100 in both VFR and IFR?

a. 250 kts IAS
d. Not applicable

A

d. Not applicable

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16
Q

What is the primary function of a CTR and a CTA?

a. The controlling of all traffic close to an aerodrome
b. The controlling of IFR traffic

A

b. The controlling of IFR traffic

17
Q

In which class or classes of airspace is IFR separated from IFR and all other traffic gets FIS?

a. D and E
b. A
c. D

A

a. D and E

18
Q

In which class of airspace is IFR and VFR permitted; IFR is separated from all traffic, VFR separated from IFR and VFR receives traffic information about other VFR traffic?

a. D
d. C

A

d. C

19
Q

Whenever flying below 3050m (10,000 ft) AMSL in class C airspace the speed restriction for IFR is:

a. 250 kts IAS
c. Not applicable

A

c. Not applicable

20
Q

Which of the following statement regarding the Alerting Service is correct:

c. The Alerting Service and FIS are often provided by the same ATSU
d. The distress phase is established when an aircraft is known or believed to be subject of unlawful interference

A

c. The Alerting Service and FIS are often provided by the same ATSU

21
Q

An aircraft has been cleared to land and fails to do so within 5 minutes of the ETA of landing and communication have not been re-established with the aircraft. What phase of the Alerting Service will be declared by the ATCU?

a. INCERFA
b. ALERFA
c. DETRESFA
d. EMERGFA

A

b. ALERFA

22
Q

The Approach Control Service is an ATC service:

c. Provided for arrival and departing controlled flights
d. Provided for arrival and departing IFR flights

A

c. Provided for arrival and departing controlled flights

23
Q

What does an ATSU consist of?

c. An ATCU and FIC
d. An ACC and FIC

A

c. An ATCU and FIC

24
Q

The Air Traffic service is provided for the purpose of:

a. Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacle in the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
d. Preventing collisions between controlled aircraft and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

A

a. Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacle in the manoeuvring area and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic

25
Q

Voice ATIS is transmitted in a:

a. Discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR
d. Discrete VHF frequency only

A

a. Discrete VHF frequency or on voice on VOR

26
Q

When an aircraft encounters difficulty, the initiation of the alerting phase is the responsibility of:

a. Search and rescue coordination centre
b. Air traffic control unit and Flight information centre
c. Search and rescue coordination centre
d. Air traffic coordination centres

A

b. Air traffic control unit and Flight information centre