Written Test Bank Flashcards
How is burn fuel on the flight plan calculated?
The amount of fuel burn in pounds and time based on forecast winds, the flight plan route, and includes one instrument approach and landing.
Do all cabin seats need to be assigned if a flight deck or flight attendant Jumpseat is to be utilized?
No. The flight deck and flight attendant Jumpseat’s may be assigned on a discretionary basis regardless of whether all cabin seats are occupied or not.
Must a frontier employee have the letters ACM on his/her frontier ID badge to occupy the flight deck Jumpseat?
Yes, unless the frontier employee has a signed letter of authorization from frontier flight ops management.
True or false:
The ACM Jumpseat briefing card may be used to satisfy the ACM briefing requirement?
True
Employees with knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which they performed a safety sensitive or security related function at or near the time of the accident may not use alcohol for _ hours after the accident unless he or she has been given a post accident test for drugs and alcohol, or if frontier airlines has demonstrated that their performance could not have contributed to the accident.
8
Which of the following qualifies the flight crew to fly into “special airports”? (Select all answers that apply)
[X] within the preceding 12 calendar calendar months the captain or first officer has made an entry to that airport , including takeoff and landing, while serving as a flight crew member
[X]within the preceding 12 calendar months, the captain has qualified by using pictorial means for that airport.
Who has the authority to cancel a flight?
SOC - systems operational control
Which of the following requires an alternate airport?
[X] any flight released under supplemental operations
[X] if severe icing conditions are forecast at the destination within one hour of the ETA a suitable alternate must be listed on the release
[X] when dispatched method 2
Which of the following is NOT required before a revenue flight may block out?
The final flight information list
If the planned route is changed by ATC prior to take off and the resulting stage length increases by more than ___ NM the captain must obtain an ARTR.
100 NM
Which of the following best describes method 1?
If an engine failure occurs anywhere from v1 to the destination, the aircraft will clear all obstructions 5sm on either side of the intended route by 1000 ft until reaching the destination.
How is contingency fuel on the flight plan calculated?
Fuel in time as well as in pounds based on holding at 15000 ft at green dot
Which of the following best describes method 2?
If an engine failure occurs, the aircraft will be able to divert to at least one Suitable airport (drift down alternate) from Flight planned cruise altitude and clear all obstacles 5SM on either side of the route of flight by 2000 feet until reaching the diversion airport.
Which of the following would require an ARTR? Select all answers that apply
An alternate is added or changed.
An MEL is added
What does ALTN Fuel on the flight plan consist of?
Climb to cruise Flight altitude, cruise flight to the most distant alternate, one approach and landing, planned at a cost index of zero.
Are simple special procedures mandatory to follow in both IMC and VMC? If so to what altitude?
They are mandatory in IMC until 3000’ AFE if radar vectors are not available and VMC until reaching 1000’ AFE unless otherwise specified.
Which of the following are approved methods to get weight and balance information for departure? Select all answers that apply
AWP solution (primary method)
Computer-generated W&B manifest from centralized load planning
Manual W&B read back form located in the diversion kit
Which of the following fuel considerations are required prior to departure?
When dispatched under op spec B043 the aircraft must have enough contingency Fuel to fly for a period of 10% of that portion of the en route time where the aircraft position cannot be reliably fixed at least once each hour.
The aircraft must have enough fuel to fly to the airport to which is dispatched ,thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport for the airport to which it is dispatched and ,thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
The aircraft must have enough fuel to consider one instrument approach and possible missed approach at the destination, wind, and other weather conditions forecast anticipated traffic delays and any other known conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft
Frontier is authorized to conduct the following approaches except
(SA) CAT 1 approaches
How can the flight crew determine if an airport is terrain sensitive?
Via a mountain symbol at the top of the first page of the AIP
Via contours published on any SID, STAR, or approach procedure
Which of the following statements is false?
When a discrepancy has been entered into the aircraft logbook, only MCC must be notified
Who must be notified after entering a discrepancy in the logbook?
MCC through the responsible dispatcher.
Which of the following is a correct way to make a correction to a logbook entry?
To correct a single word or phrase error, draw a line through the entry and add the corrected information adjacent to the lined out item
To correct an entire entry block, draw a diagonal line through the entry and right entered in error on the diagonal line
How is reserve fuel on the flight plan calculated?
Reserve fuel of 45 minutes flight time is based on last cruise altitude in the flight plan
Which of the following logbook entries requires the captain signature?
Computer reset
Flight crew placard
Follow up required
Which of the following best describes the MEL
The MEL program allows for a temporary change in type design to address missing or in operative equipment in order to maintain the validity of the airworthiness certificate
Which of the following best describes the CDL?
The CDL program allows for continued operations with missing secondary air frame and engine parts.
Which of the following best describes the NEF?
The NEF program allows the deferral of inoperative, damaged or missing items that will have no effect on the safe operation of the aircraft, and which are not required by certification standards or operating rules.
Which of the following best describes an ODM item?
ODM items include deferrals that are crew visibility in nature and utilize an info-only placard to notify air crewmembers that the item on the placard has been documented and is being tracked by the maintenance department.
Is frontier permitted to depart an airport VFR and then pick up an IFR clearance?
Yes under certain weather conditions and provided an IFR clearance is obtained as soon as possible but no further than 50 nautical miles from departure airport
What is class two navigation?
Any navigation conducted outside of class 1 navigation.
When is the autopilot required to be used to conduct an approach?
When the weather is less than 4000rvr (3/4sm) and the autopilot is available for use.
Which of the following is Frontier authorized to conduct an international air space?
A “VMC approach”
Prior to crossing a FIR boundary for international flights, the flight crew should obtain The latest weather for the Destiination and alternate if applicable true or false.
True
Where is Frontier authorized to conduct SLOPs?
Gulf of Mexico
How does the flight crew determine snowfall intensity when determining what holdover times to use?
If another form of obscuration is being reported along with snow then use the tower reported snowfall intensity
If no obscuration is presented on the tower reported snow intensity, then use the “snowfall intensities as a function of prevailing Visability” table located on the deice card to determine snowfall intensity.
Anti-icing with the flaps slats extended is permitted true or false
False
Deicing with the flap slats extended is permitted
True
Hey Flight can takeoff if the hold overtime expires if the flight crew performs a pre-takeoff contamination check (exit row check,and that check is satisfactory) within five minutes of advancing the thrust levers for takeoff.
True
When does the tarmac delay clock start for departures?
5 minutes after the last passenger is boarded.
An ARTR Is required if a flight diverts to an alternate that is different from that published on the dispatch release.
True
When are security searches required?
International flights
First flight of the day
A flight to Puerto Rico is not considered an international flight for security search purposes?
True
The captain must be informed of all individuals on board carrying firearms?
True
What are the four levels of threat?
Level 1: Verbal
Level 2: physical
Level 3: imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury
Level 4: Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck
Where can the flight crew find a list of Ops Specs C070 approved airports?
Airport information pages
Where can the flight crew find coded departure routes and instructions on how to uplink these routes into the MCDU?
Airport information pages
If an international flight diverts and does not clear customs what does the flight need to continue to its destination?
A permit to proceed
What does the test acronym consist of when giving the emergency preparation?
T - type of emergency
T - time remaining until landing
S - signals to brace,evacuate or remain seated (review as appropriate)
E - evacuation anticipated (yes/no)
What is the purpose of the flight attendant emergency whistle?
To indicate a threat level 2,3, or 4 situation
When are manual engine starts recommended?
After aborting a start because of an engine stall , egt over limit, or low starter air pressure.
In-flight, both flight directors should be either on or off.
True
Which of the following is true regarding the announcement of FMA changes?
Workload permitting and unless specified otherwise all FMA changes as indicated by a white box will be announced by the PF below FL180. At or above FL180, the vertical and lateral mode changes will be announced by the PF.
During pre-flight and prior to the application of electrical power, you notice the battery voltage is below 25.5 V, how should you recharge the batteries?
Ensure external power is supplied to the aircraft and select the bat 1 and 2 pbs to the auto position
On the preflight check, if engine oil quantity is not displayed on the ENG SD, how should you check the oil quantity on NEO aircraft?
Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw on the overhead maintenance panel to ON in order to display the oil qnty on the ENG SD page. After the check of the engine oil quantity, set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw to OFF
When is a full ADIRU alignment required?
Before the first flight of the day, when there is a crew change, prior to all international flights including Alaska, or prior to flights in class two airspace
When is a fast ADIRU alignment required?
Anytime the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position exceeds five nautical miles
During refueling what might happen if the fuel mode sel pushbutton switch is left in the man position on the ground and the center tank left transfer pushbutton switch and the center tank right transfer pushbutton switch are not in the off position?
The center tank fuel transfer will not stop when the wing tanks become full and a fuel spillage may occur?
Just prior to push back, if the nose wheel steering disconnect is not displayed on the E cam, but the groundcrew confirms that the steering selector bypass Pin is in the towing position what must the flight crew do?
Make a logbook entry. Contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher.
If a heading is assigned by ATC prior to takeoff, what heading should be preset on the FCU to disarm NAV mode?
Runway heading
No turns in HDG mode will be commenced below ___ ft AFE (VMC) or ___ ft AFE (IMC); unless otherwise required by the departure procedure?
400, 1000
How could you quickly determine if you can take shortcuts off your filed route if you are dispatched via method two?
Reference the terrain analysis common aircraft weights on the back of the normal checklist
What altitude should be set on the FCU for a visual approach utilizing a published procedure as back up reference?
The published missed approach altitude for the approach being used
What altitude should be set on the FCU for a visual approach with no procedure back up as a reference?
1500 feet above field elevation
Why is entering .3 on the Prog page of the MCDU for RNAV approaches required?
To ensure that the FMS stays in .3 for the missed approach rather than defaulting back to RNP 1.0
Why is deselecting navaids in the Mcdu for an rnav rnp approach required?
In the event of GPS loss, IRS only navigation may be more accurate than DME/DME position updating in the short term.
Which of the following statements are true if speed breaks are used above 315 knots/m .75 with the auto pilot engaged?
Rate of retraction of the speedbrakes are slow, the total time for retraction from full extension is approximately 25 seconds.
During the flare on landing, the PM will monitor the pitch attitude on the PFD and call “pitch” whenever approaching/or reaching what pitch attitudes?
321: 7.5 degrees
319/320: 10 degree
When should the after landing checklist be called for?
After clearing the runway and the aircraft is safely established on a taxi way, but not before taxi/runway crossing restrictions are clearly understood by both crewmembers.
After landing how long should we wait before starting the APU?
Two minutes after stowing the thrust reverser’s.
After taxi and during parking, you attempt to shut down an engine. However, the engine does not shut down. What should you do?
Switch the affected master lever on, then off. If the engine still fails to shut down, press the affected engine fire pushbutton.
After parking the aircraft, you notice a maintenance status message. A few seconds later, the class two message disappears. A logbook write up is required for the class two message that disappeared. True or false:
True
Which of the following statements should be followed when performing the securing checklist?
After having switched off the ADIRS, wait at least 10seconds before switching off the electrical supply to ensure that the ADIRS memorize the last data
Wait at least five minutes after block in to accomplish the securing procedure to allow the FMGC/AOC to complete the done phase and enter the preflight phase
In-flight prior to manipulation, both the pilot flying and pilot monitoring must confirm what switches?
Engine master switches, IR selector, all guarded controls.
Thrust levers during an Ecam or QRH procedure
In most situations, the following sequence is the basic one that should be followed by the Flight crew during an abnormal/emergency situation
1 memory items 2 OEBs 3Ecam 4 QRH 5 abnormal & emergency procedures time permitting
However, this sequence may not cover all operational situation. Therefore, the flight crew should exercise their judgment and adapt the sequence of actions to the real conditions.
True
For an abnormal procedure during approach, perform the normal checklist first, then the Ecam/abnormal procedure or checklist. True or false.
False
For an abnormal procedure during takeoff, perform the after takeoff Check List first, then the Ecam/abnormal procedure or checklist. (not applicable to engine fire, oil low press, engine overlimit, engine failure and engine stall.)
True
Which of the following statements are true?
If red land Asap is part of the Ecam procedure, land as soon as possible at the nearest airport which a safe landing can be made.
If Amber land ASAP is part of the Ecam procedure, consider landing at the nearest suitable airport.
While performing an ECAM for an engine failure, the pilot flying will call “stop ECAM actions” prior to the pilot monitoring reading the ___ page in order to complete the after takeoff checklist
Status