Written Test Bank Flashcards
1
Q
How is burn fuel on the flight plan calculated?
A
The amount of fuel burn in pounds and time based on forecast winds, the flight plan route, and includes one instrument approach and landing.
2
Q
Do all cabin seats need to be assigned if a flight deck or flight attendant Jumpseat is to be utilized?
A
No. The flight deck and flight attendant Jumpseat’s may be assigned on a discretionary basis regardless of whether all cabin seats are occupied or not.
3
Q
Must a frontier employee have the letters ACM on his/her frontier ID badge to occupy the flight deck Jumpseat?
A
Yes, unless the frontier employee has a signed letter of authorization from frontier flight ops management.
4
Q
True or false:
The ACM Jumpseat briefing card may be used to satisfy the ACM briefing requirement?
A
True
5
Q
Employees with knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which they performed a safety sensitive or security related function at or near the time of the accident may not use alcohol for _ hours after the accident unless he or she has been given a post accident test for drugs and alcohol, or if frontier airlines has demonstrated that their performance could not have contributed to the accident.
A
8
6
Q
Which of the following qualifies the flight crew to fly into “special airports”? (Select all answers that apply)
A
[X] within the preceding 12 calendar calendar months the captain or first officer has made an entry to that airport , including takeoff and landing, while serving as a flight crew member
[X]within the preceding 12 calendar months, the captain has qualified by using pictorial means for that airport.
7
Q
Who has the authority to cancel a flight?
A
SOC - systems operational control
8
Q
Which of the following requires an alternate airport?
A
[X] any flight released under supplemental operations
[X] if severe icing conditions are forecast at the destination within one hour of the ETA a suitable alternate must be listed on the release
[X] when dispatched method 2
9
Q
Which of the following is NOT required before a revenue flight may block out?
A
The final flight information list
10
Q
If the planned route is changed by ATC prior to take off and the resulting stage length increases by more than ___ NM the captain must obtain an ARTR.
A
100 NM
11
Q
Which of the following best describes method 1?
A
If an engine failure occurs anywhere from v1 to the destination, the aircraft will clear all obstructions 5sm on either side of the intended route by 1000 ft until reaching the destination.
12
Q
How is contingency fuel on the flight plan calculated?
A
Fuel in time as well as in pounds based on holding at 15000 ft at green dot
13
Q
Which of the following best describes method 2?
A
If an engine failure occurs, the aircraft will be able to divert to at least one Suitable airport (drift down alternate) from Flight planned cruise altitude and clear all obstacles 5SM on either side of the route of flight by 2000 feet until reaching the diversion airport.
14
Q
Which of the following would require an ARTR? Select all answers that apply
A
An alternate is added or changed.
An MEL is added
15
Q
What does ALTN Fuel on the flight plan consist of?
A
Climb to cruise Flight altitude, cruise flight to the most distant alternate, one approach and landing, planned at a cost index of zero.
16
Q
Are simple special procedures mandatory to follow in both IMC and VMC? If so to what altitude?
A
They are mandatory in IMC until 3000’ AFE if radar vectors are not available and VMC until reaching 1000’ AFE unless otherwise specified.
17
Q
Which of the following are approved methods to get weight and balance information for departure? Select all answers that apply
A
AWP solution (primary method)
Computer-generated W&B manifest from centralized load planning
Manual W&B read back form located in the diversion kit
18
Q
Which of the following fuel considerations are required prior to departure?
A
When dispatched under op spec B043 the aircraft must have enough contingency Fuel to fly for a period of 10% of that portion of the en route time where the aircraft position cannot be reliably fixed at least once each hour.
The aircraft must have enough fuel to fly to the airport to which is dispatched ,thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport for the airport to which it is dispatched and ,thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
The aircraft must have enough fuel to consider one instrument approach and possible missed approach at the destination, wind, and other weather conditions forecast anticipated traffic delays and any other known conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft
19
Q
Frontier is authorized to conduct the following approaches except
A
(SA) CAT 1 approaches
20
Q
How can the flight crew determine if an airport is terrain sensitive?
A
Via a mountain symbol at the top of the first page of the AIP
Via contours published on any SID, STAR, or approach procedure
21
Q
Which of the following statements is false?
A
When a discrepancy has been entered into the aircraft logbook, only MCC must be notified
22
Q
Who must be notified after entering a discrepancy in the logbook?
A
MCC through the responsible dispatcher.
23
Q
Which of the following is a correct way to make a correction to a logbook entry?
A
To correct a single word or phrase error, draw a line through the entry and add the corrected information adjacent to the lined out item
To correct an entire entry block, draw a diagonal line through the entry and right entered in error on the diagonal line
24
Q
How is reserve fuel on the flight plan calculated?
A
Reserve fuel of 45 minutes flight time is based on last cruise altitude in the flight plan
25
Which of the following logbook entries requires the captain signature?
Computer reset
Flight crew placard
Follow up required
26
Which of the following best describes the MEL
The MEL program allows for a temporary change in type design to address missing or in operative equipment in order to maintain the validity of the airworthiness certificate
27
Which of the following best describes the CDL?
The CDL program allows for continued operations with missing secondary air frame and engine parts.
28
Which of the following best describes the NEF?
The NEF program allows the deferral of inoperative, damaged or missing items that will have no effect on the safe operation of the aircraft, and which are not required by certification standards or operating rules.
29
Which of the following best describes an ODM item?
ODM items include deferrals that are crew visibility in nature and utilize an info-only placard to notify air crewmembers that the item on the placard has been documented and is being tracked by the maintenance department.
30
Is frontier permitted to depart an airport VFR and then pick up an IFR clearance?
Yes under certain weather conditions and provided an IFR clearance is obtained as soon as possible but no further than 50 nautical miles from departure airport
31
What is class two navigation?
Any navigation conducted outside of class 1 navigation.
32
When is the autopilot required to be used to conduct an approach?
When the weather is less than 4000rvr (3/4sm) and the autopilot is available for use.
33
Which of the following is Frontier authorized to conduct an international air space?
A “VMC approach”
34
Prior to crossing a FIR boundary for international flights, the flight crew should obtain The latest weather for the Destiination and alternate if applicable true or false.
True
35
Where is Frontier authorized to conduct SLOPs?
Gulf of Mexico
36
How does the flight crew determine snowfall intensity when determining what holdover times to use?
If another form of obscuration is being reported along with snow then use the tower reported snowfall intensity
If no obscuration is presented on the tower reported snow intensity, then use the “snowfall intensities as a function of prevailing Visability” table located on the deice card to determine snowfall intensity.
37
Anti-icing with the flaps slats extended is permitted true or false
False
38
Deicing with the flap slats extended is permitted
True
39
Hey Flight can takeoff if the hold overtime expires if the flight crew performs a pre-takeoff contamination check (exit row check,and that check is satisfactory) within five minutes of advancing the thrust levers for takeoff.
True
40
When does the tarmac delay clock start for departures?
5 minutes after the last passenger is boarded.
41
An ARTR Is required if a flight diverts to an alternate that is different from that published on the dispatch release.
True
42
When are security searches required?
International flights
First flight of the day
43
A flight to Puerto Rico is not considered an international flight for security search purposes?
True
44
The captain must be informed of all individuals on board carrying firearms?
True
45
What are the four levels of threat?
Level 1: Verbal
Level 2: physical
Level 3: imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury
Level 4: Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck
46
Where can the flight crew find a list of Ops Specs C070 approved airports?
Airport information pages
47
Where can the flight crew find coded departure routes and instructions on how to uplink these routes into the MCDU?
Airport information pages
48
If an international flight diverts and does not clear customs what does the flight need to continue to its destination?
A permit to proceed
49
What does the test acronym consist of when giving the emergency preparation?
T - type of emergency
T - time remaining until landing
S - signals to brace,evacuate or remain seated (review as appropriate)
E - evacuation anticipated (yes/no)
50
What is the purpose of the flight attendant emergency whistle?
To indicate a threat level 2,3, or 4 situation
51
When are manual engine starts recommended?
After aborting a start because of an engine stall , egt over limit, or low starter air pressure.
52
In-flight, both flight directors should be either on or off.
True
53
Which of the following is true regarding the announcement of FMA changes?
Workload permitting and unless specified otherwise all FMA changes as indicated by a white box will be announced by the PF below FL180. At or above FL180, the vertical and lateral mode changes will be announced by the PF.
54
During pre-flight and prior to the application of electrical power, you notice the battery voltage is below 25.5 V, how should you recharge the batteries?
Ensure external power is supplied to the aircraft and select the bat 1 and 2 pbs to the auto position
55
On the preflight check, if engine oil quantity is not displayed on the ENG SD, how should you check the oil quantity on NEO aircraft?
Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw on the overhead maintenance panel to ON in order to display the oil qnty on the ENG SD page. After the check of the engine oil quantity, set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pb-sw to OFF
56
When is a full ADIRU alignment required?
Before the first flight of the day, when there is a crew change, prior to all international flights including Alaska, or prior to flights in class two airspace
57
When is a fast ADIRU alignment required?
Anytime the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position exceeds five nautical miles
58
During refueling what might happen if the fuel mode sel pushbutton switch is left in the man position on the ground and the center tank left transfer pushbutton switch and the center tank right transfer pushbutton switch are not in the off position?
The center tank fuel transfer will not stop when the wing tanks become full and a fuel spillage may occur?
59
Just prior to push back, if the nose wheel steering disconnect is not displayed on the E cam, but the groundcrew confirms that the steering selector bypass Pin is in the towing position what must the flight crew do?
Make a logbook entry. Contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher.
60
If a heading is assigned by ATC prior to takeoff, what heading should be preset on the FCU to disarm NAV mode?
Runway heading
61
No turns in HDG mode will be commenced below ___ ft AFE (VMC) or ___ ft AFE (IMC); unless otherwise required by the departure procedure?
400, 1000
62
How could you quickly determine if you can take shortcuts off your filed route if you are dispatched via method two?
Reference the terrain analysis common aircraft weights on the back of the normal checklist
63
What altitude should be set on the FCU for a visual approach utilizing a published procedure as back up reference?
The published missed approach altitude for the approach being used
64
What altitude should be set on the FCU for a visual approach with no procedure back up as a reference?
1500 feet above field elevation
65
Why is entering .3 on the Prog page of the MCDU for RNAV approaches required?
To ensure that the FMS stays in .3 for the missed approach rather than defaulting back to RNP 1.0
66
Why is deselecting navaids in the Mcdu for an rnav rnp approach required?
In the event of GPS loss, IRS only navigation may be more accurate than DME/DME position updating in the short term.
67
Which of the following statements are true if speed breaks are used above 315 knots/m .75 with the auto pilot engaged?
Rate of retraction of the speedbrakes are slow, the total time for retraction from full extension is approximately 25 seconds.
68
During the flare on landing, the PM will monitor the pitch attitude on the PFD and call “pitch” whenever approaching/or reaching what pitch attitudes?
321: 7.5 degrees
| 319/320: 10 degree
69
When should the after landing checklist be called for?
After clearing the runway and the aircraft is safely established on a taxi way, but not before taxi/runway crossing restrictions are clearly understood by both crewmembers.
70
After landing how long should we wait before starting the APU?
Two minutes after stowing the thrust reverser’s.
71
After taxi and during parking, you attempt to shut down an engine. However, the engine does not shut down. What should you do?
Switch the affected master lever on, then off. If the engine still fails to shut down, press the affected engine fire pushbutton.
72
After parking the aircraft, you notice a maintenance status message. A few seconds later, the class two message disappears. A logbook write up is required for the class two message that disappeared. True or false:
True
73
Which of the following statements should be followed when performing the securing checklist?
After having switched off the ADIRS, wait at least 10seconds before switching off the electrical supply to ensure that the ADIRS memorize the last data
Wait at least five minutes after block in to accomplish the securing procedure to allow the FMGC/AOC to complete the done phase and enter the preflight phase
74
In-flight prior to manipulation, both the pilot flying and pilot monitoring must confirm what switches?
Engine master switches, IR selector, all guarded controls.
| Thrust levers during an Ecam or QRH procedure
75
In most situations, the following sequence is the basic one that should be followed by the Flight crew during an abnormal/emergency situation
```
1 memory items
2 OEBs
3Ecam
4 QRH
5 abnormal & emergency procedures time permitting
```
76
However, this sequence may not cover all operational situation. Therefore, the flight crew should exercise their judgment and adapt the sequence of actions to the real conditions.
True
77
For an abnormal procedure during approach, perform the normal checklist first, then the Ecam/abnormal procedure or checklist. True or false.
False
78
For an abnormal procedure during takeoff, perform the after takeoff Check List first, then the Ecam/abnormal procedure or checklist. (not applicable to engine fire, oil low press, engine overlimit, engine failure and engine stall.)
True
79
Which of the following statements are true?
If red land Asap is part of the Ecam procedure, land as soon as possible at the nearest airport which a safe landing can be made.
If Amber land ASAP is part of the Ecam procedure, consider landing at the nearest suitable airport.
80
While performing an ECAM for an engine failure, the pilot flying will call “stop ECAM actions” prior to the pilot monitoring reading the ___ page in order to complete the after takeoff checklist
Status
81
What is the purpose of the Ecam advisory?
An ADVISORY informs the crew that a parameter is approaching a limitation and enables the flight crew to monitor the drifting parameter?
82
Where can the flight crew find triggering conditions for various ADVISORY situations or associated recommendations for an ECAM ADVISORY?
QRH procedure section
83
What is the purpose of the “summary” sections within the QRH?
To help the flight crew perform actions in the case of an ELEC EMER CONFIG or dual hydraulic failure.
84
Where can the flight crew find the computer reset table?
QRH procedure section
85
Where can you find frontiers procedures on engine out standard instrument departures as well as complex missed approaches utilizing an EOSID?
Fom VOL 2 - supplemental - special procedures and/or the AIPs
86
Crews operating at airports that utilize EO complex procedures shall set up and brief the procedure to be ready for an engine failure. T or F
True
87
When performing the class 2 nav accuracy check, FM position is considered reliable if
Error is less than or equal to 3nm
88
When performing the class 2 compass deviation check, all headings should be within ___ degrees of each other?
5
89
Which of the following statements is true?
Compliance with a TCAS 2 resolution advisory (RA) is required unless the captain considers it unsafe to do so, or unless the pilot has better information about the cause of the RA and can maintain safe operation.
90
If the engines and/or landing gear need to be deiced what actions must be taken?
A logbook entry. Notify mcc through the responsible dispatcher so the engines and/or landing gear are decided properly.
91
Do not move flaps or slats, flight control surfaces or trim surfaces, if they are not free of ice.
True
92
When must ENGINE ANTI-ICE be ON?
During all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated , except during climb and cruise when SAT is below -40C
During decent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below -40C
93
When should wing anti-ice be selected on?
In flight, whenever there is indication that airframe icing exists.
94
Takeoff in moderate and heavy freezing rain is prohibited.
True
95
After landing , if flaps/slats are NOT free of contamination, leave flaps/slats in the current configuration. Coordinate with ground/deice crew for cleaning/deicing of the flaps/slats prior to flap retraction.
True
96
What computer provides reactive windshear detection?
FAC
97
When is reactive windshear available?
At landing from 1300 RA to 50 RA (with at least config 1)
| At takeoff: 3 sec after liftoff up to 1300 RA (with at least config 1)
98
What are the 3 types of engine failure procedures?
Standard, simple-special, and complex special engine failure procedure.
99
How does a simple-special engine failure procedure differ from a standard engine failure procedure?
The simple special procedure differs from standard procedures in that a turn to a navaid or heading is required before reaching 1000 AFE.
100
Which of the following best describes the “decelerated approach” technique?
The aircraft reaches the stabilized approach altitude in the landing configuration and at Vapp.
101
What is the recommended technique to capture the glide slope from above?
Use V/S 1500fpm to ensure the A/THR is in speed mode rather than idle mode.
102
What approaches require the flight crew to monitor and use raw data for an approach?
Vor, LOC, ILS, and LDA approaches.
103
Frontier is authorized to conduct approaches that have published Climb gradients in the missed approach with all engines operating for any given aircraft, condition, weight, and configuration for climb gradients less than ___ feet per nm?
937
104
F9 is approved to utilize RNAV (RNP) approaches when cold temperature altitude corrections apply.
False
105
Frontier flight crews are authorized to build an RNAV visual approach manually in the fmgc.
False
106
Due to database limitations, aircraft equipped with the Honeywell step 1A FMS do not have LDA approaches stored when the same runway has an ILS stored. In these cases, if the LDA approach is accepted, the flight crew is required to
Manually hard tune the LDA frequency by entering the LDA identifier and verify the correct inbound course.
107
What are the lowest minimums for a CAT 2 approach?
100ft DH, 1000 rvr
108
What are the lowest minimums for a cat 3 approach?
Fail operational capable aircraft (FMA - cat 3 dual) 100ft AH : 300rvr
Fail passive capable aircraft (FMA - CAT 3 single) 50ft dh: 600rvr
109
What are the lowest minimums for a cat3b approach?
100ft AH: 300rvr
110
To use an alert height for a cat 3 approach, the aircraft must be
Cat 3 dual (fail operational)
111
Which of the following best describes a cold temperature restricted airport?
Airports which require cold temperature altitude corrections to applicable instrument approach procedures when the temperature at the airport is at or below a specific value.
112
How can you determine if an airport is a cold temperature restricted airport (CTRA)?
CTRAs and the associated temperature limits are published in the notes section of jeppesen approach charts.
113
Which approach type do cold temperature corrections apply to?
ILS approach
114
What are frontiers 2 recommended strategies to apply if an engine failure occurs during cruise?
Standard strategy, obstacle strategy
115
Which of the following choices best outlines the obstacle strategy for an engine failure in cruise?
Set MCT, A/THR off, set and pull HDG as appropriate, determine cruise flight level, notify ATC, set green dot speed and pull.
116
Which of the following choices best outlines the standard strategy for an engine failure in cruise?
Set MCT, A/THR off, set and pull HDG, determine cruise flight level, notify ATC, set .78M/300kts and pull.
117
Which of the following best describes S speed?
Minimum slat retraction speed - a green S symbol appears when the flap selector is in position 1 and is the lowest speed to select flaps 0.
118
Protection speeds (e.g. Va prot, Va max, Vmax, Va max, etc.) are computed by?
The FAC
119
Which of the following statements are true?
Alpha floor is available from lift off to 100ft RA on approach. A/THR needs to be available, it does not need to be active.
Alpha floor is a protection that automatically sets the thrust at TOGA, regardless of thrust lever position, when the aircraft reaches a very high angle of attack.
120
When would you get a “TOGA LK” with a flashing amber box on the FMA?
After the alpha floor protection has been activated , alpha floor conditions are no longer met, and toga is active.
121
If the thrust levers are in the CL detent (both engine operative) or one thrust lever is in the MCT detent (one engine operative) “THR LCK” will appear on the FMA if:
The auto thrust fails or the FCU A/THR pushbutton is pushed.
122
Which of the following best describes the alpha/speed lock function?
The alpha /speed lock function inhibits slat retraction at high angles of attack and low air speeds.
123
What pilot action is required to cancel TOGA LK?
Disconnect the auto thrust.
124
What are the three types of ECAM failures?
Independent, primary, secondary
125
Which of the following describes the possible types of ECAM failures?
Secondary failure- a failure that is caused by the primary
Independent failure - a failure that does not affect other systems
Primary - a failure that affects other systems and causes secondary failures.
126
After completion of the ECAM, the flight crew will refer to the QRH procedures section of the QRH to determine if procedures apply and complete the procedures as required. Time permitting the flight crew will refer to the abnormal & emergency procedures contained in the QRH. What does time permitting mean?
Do not prolong the flight for the sole purpose of consulting the abnormal & emergency procedures section of the QRH.
127
What buses are powered by the emergency generator?
AC ESS and AC ESS shed bus
DC ESS and DC ESS shed bus
128
What powers the emergency generator?
Blue hydraulic pressure from the RAT
129
Which of the following statements is true when pressing the RAT MAN ON pb located on the HYD panel?
Rat provides blue HYD pressure only.
130
What does the illumination of the amber smoke light in the gen 1 line pushbutton indicate?
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting.
131
When performing the preliminary flight deck preparation, what is the minimum battery voltage?
25.5volts
132
What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG?
Do not press and hold the IDG pb for more than 3 seconds
Do not disconnect the IDG when the engine is not operating or windmilling
133
With the APU start pb Avail (green) light illuminated and the ext Pwr pb on (blue) light illuminated, which system is powering the aircraft?
External
134
In aircraft equipped with center tank fuel pumps, which of the following statements are true?
With the mode sel pb-sw in auto, the center tank pumps automatically run at engine start for 2 mins
With the mode sel pb-sw in auto, after the start sequence the center tank pumps automatically run if the slats are retracted.
With the mode sel pb-sw in auto, the center tanks pumps automatically stop 5min after center tank low level is reached.
135
What will cause the fault light to illuminate on the fuel mode sel pb?
When the center tank contains more than 550lbs of fuel and the left or right wing tank has less than 11000lbs of fuel.
136
What actions occur when an engine fire push button is pressed?
The respective hydraulic shutoff, pack flow control,and engine bleed valve closes
The aural fire warning is silenced and the fire extinguisher squibs arm.
Deactivates the IDG, cuts off FADEC power supply, and closes the low-pressure fuel valve.
137
What actions occur when the APU fire pushbutton is pressed?
The APU low pressure fuel valve fuel valve closes and the APU fuel pump shuts off
The APU generator is deactivated, the APU bleed and xbleed valves close
The APU shuts down, the aural warning is silenced, and squibs are armed on the APU fire extinguisher
138
On the primary flight display, what do the large red chevrons indicate.
Pitch attitude greater than 30 degrees
139
What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?
The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/ deceleration remains constant.
140
Which of the following is true regarding VLS?
VLS represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to the stall speed. In approach mode VLS is equivalent to Vref.
141
How is VLS displayed on the PFD?
VLS is represented by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale.
142
Which of the following are true regarding altitude/speed constraint circles?
White - constraint is not taken into account
Magenta - constraint is predicted to be satisfied
Amber - constraint is predicated to be missed
143
What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of the E/WD screen?
Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR push button on the ECAM panel
144
What is the active range of the A/THR?
From just above idle up to and including the CL detent (both engines). From just above idle up to and including the MCT detent (1 engine).
145
When will the RAT automatically extend?
The RAT will automatically extend if ac bus 1 and 2 are not powered and airspeed greater than 100kts.
146
What is the approach category for the A319/320?
Category C
147
What is the maximum crosswind limitation for takeoff?
35kts
148
What is the maximum crosswind limitation for landing?
38kts
149
What is the maximum tire speed?
195kts
150
What is the maximum wiper speed?
230kts
151
What is the max aircraft speed with window open?
200kts
152
(On A320/321 aircraft) the maximum taxi speed when making a turn is ___ kts when the aircraft weight is greater than ___ lbs?
20 kts, 167,550
153
What is the maximum altitude to start the APU using battery power only?
25000 ft msl
154
What is the autopilot minimum engagement height after takeoff?
100ft agl
155
What is the autopilot minimum engagement height enroute?
900 ft agl
156
What is the minimum oil temp required before takeoff?
19C
157
What is the maximum time to use TOGA with all engine operating.
5 minutes
158
What is the maximum time to use TOGA thrust with one engine inoperative?
10 minutes
159
What is the maximum altitude that the flaps or slats may be extended?
20000 ft MSL
160
What is the minimum height the autopilot can be engaged during a Go-around(if Srs is indicated)?
100ft AGL
161
To meet frontiers stabilized approach criteria, by 1000ft AFE, the aircraft must be
In a steady rate of decent not to exceed 1200 fpm.
On the correct lateral path
On the correct vertical path
162
To meet frontiers stabilized approach criteria by 1000ft afe the aircraft must be
In the final landing configuration
| Absent any GPWS warnings and cautions
163
To meet Frontier stabilized approach criteria by 500 feet AFE the aircraft must be
In a steady rate of decent not to exceed 1000fpm
| Within -5 to +15 knots of target speed for approach
164
What does correct lateral path mean in terms of frontiers stabilized approach criteria?
+- one dot for ILS/loc, 1/2dot for vor, or .3nm for RNAV
165
What is the maximum tail wind limitation for takeoff (a319/A320)?
15kts
166
What is the maximum tailwind limitation for takeoff (a321)?
10kts
167
What is the maximum tail wind limitation for landing (A319/A320)?
10kts
168
What is the maximum tail wind limitation for Landing (A321)?
10kts
169
What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?
65kts
170
What is the maximum wind speed for cargo door operation?
40kts unless The aircraft nose is oriented into the wind, or if the cargo door is on the Leeward side of the aircraft, then operation of the cargo door is permitted in winds up to 50kts
171
If the aircraft nose is oriented into the wind, or if the Cargo door is on the Leeward side of the aircraft, operation of the cargo door is permitted in winds up to ___kts. If the wind speed begins to exceed these limitations, the cargo door must be closed before the wind speed exceeds ___kts
50, 65
172
What are the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds below flight level 200(A319/320)?
250
173
What are the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds From FL200 to FL310 (A319/A320)?
275
174
What are the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds above FL310 (A319/A320)?
.76mach
175
What are the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds below FL200 (A321)?
270
176
What is the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds from FL200 to FL310(A321)?
300kts
177
What is the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds above FL310 (A321)?
.76 Mach
178
At what height must the auto pilot be turned off for an RNAV visual approach?
500’ agl
179
When must the auto pilot be turned off for a non-precision approach?
DDA/DA
180
At what height must the auto pilot be turned off for a non-auto land ILS with a CAT 1 FMA?
160 ft AGL
181
At what height must the auto pilot be turned off for a non-auto land ILS with a CAT 2/3 FMA?
80’ agl
182
When must the auto pilot be turned off for an auto land approach?
Rollout/taxi speed
183
Frontiers policy is to set up brief and fly a CAT 2 or CAT 3 auto land IF the reported RVR/visibility is at or below ___ or ___ AND all of the requirements for an autoland can be met.
1/2sm, 2400rvr
184
What is the minimum engine oil quantity for CEO aircraft prior to each flight?
9.5 qt + .5qt for every hour of estimated flight time.
185
What is the minimum engine oil quantity for NEO aircraft prior to each flight?
9.0 qt + .5qt for each hour of estimated flight time and not below 10.6qt. If engines have been shut down for more than 60 minutes, decrease these values by 3qt.
186
Takeoff at reduce thrust is prohibited (select all answers that apply)
On slippery or contaminated runways.
When suspected, reported, or known windshear is present.
When a special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff
187
Which of the following are memory items for loss of breaking
```
REV - MAX
BRAKE PEDALS - release
A/SKID - OFF
A/SKID & N/W STRG - OFF
BRAKE PEDALS - PRESS
MAX BRK PR - 1000PSI
IF STILL NO BRAKING: PARKING BRAKE - SHORT SUCCESSIVE APPLICATIONS
```
188
What is the memory item for “Smoke/fumes/Avncs smoke”?
OXY MASK/GOGGLE - USE 100%/ EMERG
189
Which of the following are memory items for “stall warning at lift off”?
THRUST - TOGA
PITCH ATTITUDE - 15 degrees
BANK - WINGS LEVEL
190
Which of the following are memory items for “Wind shear warning - Predictive windshear” when airborne?
THR LEVERS - TOGA
AP (if engaged) - KEEP ON
SRS ORDERS - FOLLOW
191
Which of the following are memory items for “windshear warning - reactive windshear” for Airborne, initial climb, or landing?
THR levers at TOGA - SET or CONFIRM
AP (if engaged) - KEEP ON
SRS ORDERS - FOLLOW
192
Which of the following are memory items in the event of an “unreliable speed indication”?
AP/FD off
A/THR off
BELOW THR RED ALT - 15 degree/ TOGA
ABOVE THR RED ALT below FL100 - 10 degree/ CL
ABOVE THR RED ALT above FL100 - 5 degree/ CL
FLAPS - maintain current config
FLAPS ( if config full) - select config 3 and maintain
Speed brakes - check retracted
L/G - UP
193
Which of the following are memory items in the event of a “EGPWS WARNING “?
AP - OFF
PITCH - PULL UP
THR LEVERS - TOGA
194
Which of the following are memory items in the event of a “TCAS WARNING”?
AP -OFF
BOTH FDs - off
Respond promptly and smoothly to an RA by adjusting or maintaining the pitch, as required, to reach the green area and/or avoid the red area of the vertical speed scale.
195
Which of the following are memory items in the event of an “emergency descent”?
```
CREW OXY MASK - USE
SIGNS - ON
EMER DESCENT - initiate
IF A/THR not active, THR LEVERS - IDLE
SPD BRK - FULL
```
196
Which of the following are memory items in the event of a “stall recovery”?
```
Nose down pitch control - apply
Banks - wings level
Thrust - increase smoothly as needed
Speedbrakes - check retracted
Flight path - recover smoothly
If clean configuration and below 20000ft FLAP 1 - SELECT
```
197
Which of the following are memory items in the event of a “windshear warning - reactive windshear” if after V1?
THR LEVERS - TOGA
REACHING VR - rotate
SRS ORDERS - follow
198
Which of the following are memory items in the event of a “windshear warning - predictive windshear” landing?
GO AROUND - PERFORM
| AP ( IF ENGAGED) - KEEP ON
199
When the first officer has less than 100 hrs of flight time as SIC in type airplane being flown at Frontier, the captain(unless a check airman) must make all takeoff and landings in what conditions?
When the crosswind component for the runway to be used is in excess of 15 knots.
When the braking action on the runway to be used is less than good.
200
Which of the following describes emergency authority?
In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the pilot in command may take any action deemed necessary under the circumstances.
201
Who has operational control to refuse a passenger.
The CRO
202
What are some strategies for dealing with weight restricted flights?
Increase the PMTOW or reduce tanker fuel
Remove COMAT (notAOG)
Obtain child counts
