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F9 Pilot Init/Rec/Upgrade Updated 03/23 > Vol I Questions > Flashcards

Vol I Questions Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

Explain Captain/Dispatcher Joint Responsibility

A

They are jointly responsible for the pre-flight planning of each flight. They shall determine the suitability of weather, field, traffic and airway facilities.

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2
Q

When is an ALTERNATE required?

A
  1. For Destination: 1,2,3 RuleDomestic - Less than 2000ft Ceilings and 3SM VisFLAG - Less than 2000ft AFE or 1500ft above lowest pub MIN. and Vis 3SM or 2SM more than lowest applicable VIS Min.
  2. Destination and Alternate - MarginalDestination - Ceiling is within 100ft, or VIS is within 1/2 mile of minimums for DES airport.
    Alternate - Weather must be within 100ft or 1/2 sm of derived alt mins. (400ft & 1; 200ft &1/2)
  3. Exemption 3585 - 2 ALTs required. (Conditional Remarks are controlling)
    • Domestic Only
    • Destination - at or above 50% of the landing minimums for the approach expected to be used. (VIS ONLY)
    • 1st ALT - At or above 50% of DERIVED alt mins. (VIS & Ceiling)
    • 2nd ALT - At or above DERIVED alt mins. (VIS & Ceiling).
  4. Other reasons for ALT:
    • RNAV only airports
    • Severe Icing
    • Method 2
    • Supplemental / Offline Charters
    • Flag operations greater than 6 hours
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3
Q

What ways can you get a valid W&B?

A
  1. AWP Solution (primary)
  2. Computer-generated W&B manifest from Centralized Load Planning
  3. Manual W&B read back form located in the diversion kit.
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4
Q

When is a TO alternate required?

A

A. When weather conditions at DEPT airport are lower than CAT I mins.
B. Max of 1 hr flight time and distance of 330 NM (Normal cruise speed, single engine, still air).

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5
Q

When is A/P required for an approach?

A

Weather is less than 4000 RVR or 3/4 VIS. and A/P is functional.

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6
Q

When is auto-land required?

A

A. ATIS reported VIS is at or below 2400RVR or 1/2 SM.
B. CAT II/III Runway available
C. Aircraft capable
D. Crew members Trained

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7
Q

What equipment must be operating prior to entering RVSM airspace?

A

A. 2 Primary Altitude Measuring Systems
B. 1 Automatic A/P System
C. 1 Altitude Alerting Device
D. 1 Altitude Reporting Transponder
E. ADRs (2)
F. DMCs (2)
G. FCU
H. PFDs (2)

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8
Q

What are 4 requirements to accept an RNAV departure?

A

A. Must be retrieved from Nav Database
B. Must use FD or AP in LNAV
C. Cross track error limited to 0.5 NM
D. Must be able to engage RNAV no later than 500ft above airport elevation.

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9
Q

How must an approach be conducted when the visibility is less than 3/4 mi, or 4000 RVR?

A

Coupled approach if A/P is available

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10
Q

How must an approach be conducted when the visibility is 1/2 mi / 2400 RVR or less?

A

Auto-land must be conducted if available. You can use 1800 CAT I mins if no auto-land available

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11
Q

What flight release paperwork is required to be onboard before a flight can block out?

A

Dispatch Release
Flight Plan
Latest available weather and forecast
NOTAM’s
Performance Info
Weight and Balance Manifest

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12
Q

How does a pilot initiate the call to the FAs to inform them to prepare the cabin for possible evacuation?

A

Use EMERG Call button

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13
Q

What is the lowest authorized RVR F9 can depart a runway?

A

500/500/500 HIRL and CL lights

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14
Q

When is the crew briefing required?

A
  1. When practicable
    2.First flight of the day.
    3.Crew changes occurs during the duty day
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15
Q

When is a DDA required? (Derived Decision Altitude)

A

when conducting an approach with a published MDA(H). Add 50ft to the MDA (H).

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16
Q

Is F9 authorized to fly circle to land approaches? Is F9 authorized to perform circle to land maneuvers? If so, what are the minimums?

A

Circling Approaches - NO
Circling Maneuvers- YES, ceiling/vis must be the higher of 1000/3 or charted circling mins. Use higher of 1000HAA or MDA for minimums.

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17
Q

How long is the aircraft airworthiness sign-off good for?

A

8 Days

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18
Q

How many wing walkers are required to park the plane at the gate?

A

None required; 2 Preferred

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19
Q

RNP 10

A

50nm separation laterally over specified areas. With 10 nm system cross-track error of 10nm or less for 95%.

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20
Q

RNAV 1 &2

A

Total system error of not more than 1NM & 2NM for 95% of the total flight time.

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21
Q

When may we fly to a published MDA?

A

Never, a DDA must be utilized when a MDA is published/

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22
Q

Who has the authority to cancel a flight

A

Only SOC (Systems Operations Control) has the authority to cancel a flight.

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23
Q

Explain Method 1 vs Method 2

A

Method 1 - If a failure occurs anywhere from V1 to Destination. 1,000ft and 5sm on either side.
Method 2. - If an engine failure occurs enroute the aircraft will be able to divert to at least one suitable airport and have clearance of 2,000ft and 5sm on either side.

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24
Q

Standard Strategy vs. Obstacle Strategy

A

Standard - Descend at SPD M.78/300kts (CEO) or M.77/270Kts (NEO)
Obstacle - Descend at Green Dot

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25
Q

During single engine taxi, the #2 engine must be started a minimum of how many minutes prior to take off and why?

A

No less than 3 minutes to avoid thermal shock as well as ensuring both engines are fed from separate wing tanks.

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26
Q

Lost Certificate?

A

FAA website for a temporary authority. Only good for 60 days

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27
Q

Less than 100 hrs First Officer limits?

A

Captain must make all takeoffs and landings if:
1. RVR is at or below 4000ft
2. Vis is at or below 3/4 mile
3. Runway is Wet, Slippery, or Contaminated
4. Braking action less than GOOD
5. Crosswind Component in excess of 15 kts
6. LLWS advisories or alerts are in effect.
7. Special Airport
8. Captain deems it prudent

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28
Q

ARTR (Amend Release to Read)

A

SHAFT ME MI CAPT
- Supplemental Operation crew change. (On-demand, non-scheduled and charter).
- Hour after release (Scheduled Departure time)
- Alternate for Destination added or changed
- Fuel added over 1000 lbs
- TO alternate added
- MEL added or cleared
- Mileage increase to over 100 NM due to re-route
- Captain Change on domestic/flag flight

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29
Q

MEL Category Timelines

A

A - Specified time per the MEL
B - 3 Consecutive calendar days
C - 10 Consecutive calendar days
D - 120 Consecutive calendar days

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30
Q

What does ALTN fuel on flight plan consist of?

A

Climb to cruise, most distant alternate, one approach and landing.

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31
Q

Logbook entries that require the Captain Signature?

A
  1. Computer Reset
  2. Flight Crew Placard
  3. Follow Up Required.
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32
Q

Is F9 allowed to depart VFR and pick up IFR clearance?

A

Yes, under certain weather conditions and IFR clearance is obtained no further than 50 miles from airport.

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33
Q

When does the Tarmac Delay Program begin?

A

5 Minutes after last passenger boards

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34
Q

When are security searches required?

A

First flight of day
International flights

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35
Q

What are the 4 levels of threat?

A
  1. Verbal
  2. Physical
  3. Imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury
  4. Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck.
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36
Q

What is the purpose of the FA whistle?

A

Indicate a threat level 2,3 or 4 situation

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37
Q

Describe a Cold Temp restricted Airport

A

Airports in which cold temp corrections have to be made to an approach when the temperature is outside the published values.

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38
Q

What are some duties and responsibilities of the Captain?

A
  1. To be the senior representative of Frontier Airlines on each flight an to deliver the product to our customers.
  2. To act as the Inflight Security Coordinator (ISC) to ensure the safe operation, crew coordination and passenger comfort, etc.
  3. Check airworthiness of A/C
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39
Q

Who must fill out the ACM Authorization Form?

A

Only those requesting to access the flight deck or cabin jumpseats.

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40
Q

When must the pilots DON and use the O2 masks?

A

Cabin press above 10,000ft

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41
Q

Is the operation of the A/C permitted on any surface if braking action is NIL?

A

No

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42
Q

When do “Braking Action Advisories” go into effect?

A
  1. When tower controllers receive runway braking action reports which include the terms poor or nil.
  2. Whenever weather conditions are conductive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway braking conditions.
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43
Q

When are radio reports always required? (Name a couple)

A
  1. Deviation from an ATC clearance
  2. When vacating a previously assigned ALT or FL for a new ALT.
  3. When unable to climb at a rate of at least 500ft/min.
  4. When leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
  5. Weather encounters
  6. Any malfunction of communication, navigational equipment.
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44
Q

What would you do if you lost weather radar enroute?

A

The flight may continue to its planned DEST provided thunderstorms or hazardous weather conditions can be avoided.

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45
Q

What are requirements to fly into “Special Airports”?

A

Within the preceding 12 Calendar months:
1. Captain or FO has made and entry into that airport, including TO and LDG while serving as crew member
2. The CAPT has qualified by using pictorial means for the airport (JEPP Qual Charts).

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46
Q

When is a captain considered “high mins”?

A

When he/she has less than 100 hours as PIC outside of IOE in Frontier Airlines A/C.

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47
Q

What are the “high min restrictions”?

A

Apply following to instrument approach:
- Increase DA or MDA by 100ft; and
- Increase VIS by 1/2 SM or RVR equivalent

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48
Q

What are the dispatch weather requirements for “High Mins”

A

DEST;
- Dispatch of a flight to a planned DEST airport is based solely on the VIS Requirements. This translates to the minimum vis for approach used + 1/2SM.

ALT;
- When conducting an Instrument approach the MDA or DA and VIS must be increased by adding 100ft and 1/2SM (or RVR equivalent).

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49
Q

What approaches are high minimum captains NOT permitted to conduct?

A

CAT 3 Ops

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50
Q

What is exemption 5549?

A

Relief from higher landing weather minimum requirements to be dispatched and operate at lower CAT 1 and 2 mins.

Chart is VOL1 Sec 10.40

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51
Q

Can high min captains use exemption 3585?

A

NO

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52
Q

How many hours of rest for a consecutive work week of 168 hours? (7 days)

A

30 hours

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53
Q

How many hours of rest is required b/w flight duty or reserve availability periods? How many hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity is required?

A

10 hours b/w flight duty or reserve availability.

10 hours of rest must include 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity.

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54
Q

How would you handle an EFB failure before departure, during taxi, or between legs of a trip?

A

Reference the EFB Failure flow chart in Sec 10.70

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55
Q

When is the Captain the ISC?

A

From door close to door open

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56
Q

Explain Emergency Authority

A

Emergency situation in which the PIC may deviate from company or federally given procedures and regulations to meet the needs of safety.

You do NOT need to delcare emergency unless there is an immediate threat to flight.

If used a written report is due within 36 hours.

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57
Q

Must the captain brief all the FAs?

A

No. You can brief the A flight attendant and FO. The A can be responsible for briefing the rest of FAs.

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58
Q

Must all FAs be on board and remain on board during passenger boarding and de-planing?

A

YES

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59
Q

Who has operational control to refuse a passenger?

A

The CRO. Although the captain retains final authority, the recommendation of the CRO must be carefully considered. Reasoning must be clearly documented.

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60
Q

Where can you find what manuals and equipment are required to be onboard for each flight?

A

Sec 20.10 Pg. 2

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61
Q

Explain how to Derive ALT minimums

A
  • Airports with at least 1 operational NAV facility providing:
    1. Straight-in non-precision approach procedure, or
    2. Cat 1 Precision approach, or
    3. Circling maneuver from an IAP.

ADD 400ft & 1SM

  • Airports with at least 2 operational NAV facilities, each providing a straight-in approach procedure to different suitable runways.

ADD 200ft to higher DA(H) or MDA(H) of the two approaches
& 1/2SM to the higher approaches.

62
Q

Where would you see extra fuel for ATC expected delays, MEL/CDL restrictions, etc? And to hold at green dot/15000?

A

Contingency

63
Q

How much flight time does RESERVE fuel allow for?

A

45 minutes.

64
Q

What does EXTRA fuel mean?

A

Extended TAXI time possibilities.

65
Q

When does a TLR become invalid?

A

0.10” QNH below

66
Q

How does a Simple-Special ENG failure differ from a Standard Procedure?

A

Simple-special have a turn to a Navaid or HDG before 1000ft AFE

67
Q

Are simple-special procedures mandatory to follow in both IMC and VMC? If so, to what altitudes?

A

Yes.

VMC until reaching 1000ft AFE unless otherwise specified.

IMC, if radar vectors are not available, comply until 3000ft AFE. Then on course.

68
Q

What is standard hold?

A

Right turns with 1 min legs.

69
Q

When is a Complex-Special procedure issued?

A

When an engine failure procedure is to complex to fit into the simple-special table.

70
Q

Can we use planned TLR for actual landing performance?

A

No. Planning purpose only. Find it through our FS App, ACARS, QRH.

71
Q

How much fuel is required prior to departure?

A

Fly to airport of dispatch, thereafter; to fly to most distant alternate, thereafter; to fly 45 minutes at flight plan cruise altitude.

Must consider:
1. 1 instrument approach and possible missed approach at DEST.
2. Wind and other weather conditions
3. Known delays
4. Increased fuel consumptions for high speeds.

72
Q

If AWP is not being used for W&B. Difference of __ lbs must be notified to Load Planning

A

400lbs

73
Q

If no fuel slip, or fuel reliability is not accurate, can we still depart?

A

Yes, as long as FOB is not less than 500lbs from the release fuel.

74
Q

While refueling, may the APU be started and conditioned air be used?

A

Yes, but avoid electrical power transfers.

75
Q

Is visibility the only requirement to consider for TO under part 121?

A

Most yes, VIS is normally the only requirement for TO Mins. Unless specified per SID or particular runway requirements.

76
Q

What are standard TO minimums?

A

VIS. 1sm or 5000RVR

77
Q

If there is no published TO mins, what mins should be used?

A

Nothing lower than the OPS Spec C078.

78
Q

When does SMGCS go into effect?

A

When RVR is 1200ft or less.

79
Q

What are “Follow ME” services?

A

CAT II/III operations below 600RVR. Vehicles are available.

80
Q

What is considered severe icing?

A

Rate of accumulation of ice, where deicing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard.

81
Q

What is F9s severe icing policy regarding Alternate airports? And when are operations prohibited?

A

1 hour before or after ETA and Alternate must be provided.

Operations are prohibited:
1. Moderate and heavy freezing rain and heavy freezing drizzle.
2. Known severe icing conditions, except under EMER authority.

82
Q

What is DDA?

A

Derived Decision Altitude. (Monkey do add 50ft).

83
Q

How do you know if an airport is “terrain sensitive”?

A

SID, STAR, and approach plates will have terrain contours.

84
Q

Must all briefings include terrain is the airport if “terrain sensitive”?

A

No. Unless it is a specific threat to route.

85
Q

The seat belt sign is required to be turned/left on when?

A
  • While A/C is moving on ground.
  • During TO, initial climb, descent below 18000ft, and landing.
  • Prior to entering moderate or greater turbulence(Known). Or after its entered until conditions better.
86
Q

During the enroute phase of flight, what should be monitored on #2?

A

121.5. Unless ACARS are MEL’d, then monitor ARINC.

87
Q

If ACARS is unavailable, what information should be relayed to station operations on departure after TO, prior to arrival, and at the gate after arrival?

A

DEPT: Out and OFF times and FOB.
ARRIVAL (in range call): ETA, specials, and FOB
At the Gate after arrival: On and In times and FOB

88
Q

Where can you find a list of items/events that normally require contact with or a report to dispatch?

A

Reports to Dispatch table. 25.10 5-6PGS

89
Q

What is the procedure if one or more logbook pages is discovered to be missing?

A

Discrepency must be entered in the logbook for the missing pages and phone contact to MCC through your dispatcher.

90
Q

Flight crews are authorized to attempt system resets under what guidance?

A
  • A/C QRH
  • FOM VOL2
  • Maintenance manual guidance from MCC.
91
Q

What is the procedure to rectify an error entered in the logbook?

A

Single word or phrase errors are to be corrected by drawing a blank through the entry and adding the corrected information adjacent to the lined- out item. “EIE entered in error” should used.

92
Q

When a crew is required to start a new logbook page, what 2 items must be entered along with the associated discrepancy/write up?

A

A/C Number
Todays Date (Denver time.)

93
Q

What aircraft logbook entries are permitted by the flight crew?

A
  • Discrepency
  • FCP
  • System Reset
  • Follow-up required
  • Overweight landing
94
Q

When making an entry into the logbook when is the captains signature required?

A

Only for
- Computer reset
- Follow-up required
- FCP

95
Q

What are the 3 color types of deferral placards?

A

MEL/CDL/Info Only - Orange
MEL/CDL - FR - Green
NEF - Pink

96
Q

Is the flight crew permitted to install a circuit breaker collar?

A

Yes, if the procedure calls for it and MCC directs crew to do so.

97
Q

Can flight crews remove circuit breakers?

A

No

98
Q

How long does a flight crew have to submit an incident report?

A

36 hours

99
Q

What are the minimum hand/light signals the flight and ground crew must discuss prior to pushback if headsets are unavailable?

A

Hand/light signals for brake release, clear to push, and emergency stop.

100
Q

What is SWAPS?

A

Severe weather A/C parking system.

101
Q

Is F9 permitted to depart an airport VFR and then pickup an IFR clearance?

A

Yes,
- Must maintain Part 91 cloud clearance
- Reported ceiling and visibility to be 1000ft or greater, 1SM (2SM AT NIGHT).
- Remain VMC until IFR clearance received.
- Must obtain IFR clearance ASAP, but not further than 50nm from departure airport.

Sec 25.40

102
Q

Can the flight crew accept an RNAV SID/STAR or RNAV approach if both GPS’s are unavailable (e.g. MEL’d)

A

Yes. You can use GPS or DME/DME/IRU for RNAV 1 procedures.

103
Q

IRS only A/C can maintain RNP of 10 or better for how long?

A

6.2 hours

104
Q

Are both VIS and Ceiling required for landing minimums?

A

Visibility is the only requirement for landing minimums. An approach can be made if the required visibility is reported, regardless of the ceiling. The only exception to this is minimums for a circling maneuver.

105
Q

What is the APU fuel burn rate when supplying conditioned air under max generator load?

A

Approx 275/lbs per hour. (41 gal/hr)

106
Q

When should MIN FUEL be declared to ATC?

A

When new routing or holding leads to you being below your RESERVE fuel on release.

107
Q

What is the required aircraft equipment to dispatch a flight from the United States to an international destination?

What about to be dispatched to the USA?

A
  • APU
  • GPWS
  • TCAS
  • ACARS
  • ACARS
108
Q

Can we do visual approaches in international airspace?

A

No. Request VMC approach.

109
Q

May direct clearances off the flight planned route be accepting during class 2 operations?

A

Yes if:
- GPS Primary or NAV ACCURACY HIGH
- Course and Distance appear reasonable.
- Abeam points are selected for fuel scoring.

110
Q

What is SLOP and what’s its purpose?

A

Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures. Used for onset to avoid the effects of wake turbulence of preceding aircraft.

111
Q

How far can the SLOP deviation off centerline and which side of course should the offset be?

A

1 or 2NM to the right of center line relative to the direction of flight.

112
Q

Where is F9 authorized to conduct SLOP’s

A

Gulf of Mexico and WATRS airspace

113
Q

If an international flight diverts and does not clear customs what does the flight need to continue to its destination?

A

A permit to proceed.

114
Q

What is the ICAO phraseology to be used for declaring an emergency?

A

MAYDAY - used when A/C is in distress
PANPAN - used when an A/C is in an urgency condition.

115
Q

How many passengers are permitted on board a repo flight if not FAs are on board?

A

19

116
Q

Are non-revenue passengers permitted on repo flights?

A

Yes. As long as Captain approved and names of persons communicated to SOC/Dispatch.

117
Q

When are allowance times used versus holdover times?

A
  • Allowance times are used in conditions involving ice pellets.
  • Holdover times are used in conditions involving frost, ice, or snow.
118
Q

What conditions require application of undiluted Type IV fluid?

A

Heavy snow and Ice Pellets

119
Q

If the holdover time expires may the flight crew takeoff?

A

Yes, as long as the A/C passes the pre-takeoff contamination check (exit row check) within 5 minutes of advancing the trust levers for TO.

120
Q

Are pre-takeoff wingtip and pre-takeoff contamination checks applicable to ALLOWANCE times?

A

NO. only holdover

121
Q

Is deicing with the flaps/slats extended permitted? Is anti-icing with the flaps/slats extended permitted?

A

We are authorized to Deice with Flaps/Slats extended, but must retract Flaps/slats prior to Anti-ice.

122
Q

What types of de-ice fluid does F9 use and what are the colors of those fluids?

A

Type 1 - De-ice Orange
Type 2 - Anti-Ice Green
Type 3 - F9 DOES NOT USE
Type 4 - Anti-Ice Green.

123
Q

What 3 elements must the flight crew record when given the post deice anti-ice report from the deice crew?

A
  1. The brand and type of fluid used
  2. Percentage of fluid within the fluid/water mixture
  3. Local time the anti-ice application began.
124
Q

Can the flight crew takeoff if the holdover time expires for Heavy Snow conditions?

A

No. because no holdover time exists for Heavy snow. Therefore, the flight crew must perform the pre-takeoff contamination check within 5 minutes of advancing the thrust levers for TO.

125
Q

How does a flight crew determine if the Anti-ice fluid is no longer providing proper protection?

A

Type I, II, IV fluids are no longer effective when the surfaces are losing there gloss, turning white, or have visible snow or other precipitation remaining on the surface without melting.

126
Q

What medical kit must be authorized by the captain before it can be used?

A

Emergency Medical Kit. (EMK)

127
Q

What is a tarmac delay?

A

It is the elapsed time in which an aircraft is held on the ground either before takeoff or after landing with no opportunity for the passengers to deplane.

128
Q

What is the limit on the tarmac delay?

A

3 hours for Domestic flights
4 hours for international flights.

129
Q

When does the TDP clock start for arrivals?

A

Normally the ON time.

130
Q

When does the TDP clock start for departures?

A

Departures: 5 min after last passenger boarded.
Holding at Gate: If a delay of 30 minutes or more is anticipated, main cabin door should remain open.

131
Q

Who normally makes the decision to permit passengers to disembark after diverting to an alternate airport?

A

SOC. If SOC is not available to make the decision, the captain may choose to deplane passengers once the conditions for allowing passengers to disembark in VOL 1 45.30 have been considered.

132
Q

What is the lost comm procedure?

A

Transponder - 7600 Squawk

Visual Conditions - If failed during VMC, maintain VFR

Instrument Conditions - If you cannot maintain VMC. Then:
- Route: Last assigned route
- Altitude: Last assigned in the clearance; min for IFR operations.
- Leave clearance limit: As close to ETA from flight plan.

133
Q

When should the flight crew issue a “Cabin Advisory” vs an “Emergency Prep”?

A

Will the passengers need to brace or evacuate?

Yes - Emer Prep.
No - Cabin Advisory

134
Q

TEST?

A

Type of Emergency
Evacuation Needed?
Signals? (Brace x3, Remain Seated x3, Evacuate x3)
Time remaining?

135
Q

When are security searches required?

A
  • First flight of day
  • International flight (not including Alaska)
  • Private charters
    • Following the charter and prior to Part 121 revenue flight
    • A/C may be repositioned under Part 91 without a search.
136
Q

Who must fill out the “Notice to Armed Individual” form?

A

LEOs.

FAMs and FFDO’s are not required.

137
Q

Must all armed individuals know where the other armed individuals are located?

A

Yes.

  • Gate agent is responsible for notifying the FAM Team leader of the presence and location of all FFDOs and LEOs on board the aircraft.
  • PIC is responsible for notifying all other armed individuals (FFDOs) of the presence and location of all armed individuals including FAMs on the A/c.
  • PIC must also tell A flight attendant (Location of all).
138
Q

Does F9 carry high-risk or low-risk prisoners?

A

No.

139
Q

What is the captains 2 primary responsibilities regarding armed individuals?

A

Captain ensures:
- All crew members are aware of armed individuals onboard the aircraft.
- Each armed individual is aware of all other armed individuals.

140
Q

What are the 4 levels of threat?

A

Level 1 - Verbal
Level 2 - Physical
Level 3 - imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury
Level 4 - Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck.

141
Q

Where can the flight crew find a list of Ops Spec C070 approved airports?

A

AIP (Airport Information Pages.

142
Q

Emergency Airports depicted on the AIP are based on the availability of what criteria?

A
  • An instrument approach
  • Min 6000ft runway
    -Runway weight bearing capacity suitable for the aircraft.

No guarantee of the availability of fuel, services, crash/fire, passenger handling, etc.

143
Q

RNP 10 Equipment Needs

A
  • 2 FMGCs
  • 2 MCDUs
  • 2 IRS
  • 2 ND
144
Q

Do all cabin seats need to be assinged if a flight deck or flightattendant jumpseat is to be utilized?

A

NO. the flight deck and flight attendant jumpseats may be utilized on a discretionary basis; all cabin seats need not be assinged in order to assign the jumpseats.

145
Q

Can F9 mechanics sit on the flight deck jumseat for travel?

A

Yes. but F9 mechanicsmust be “on duty” in order to access the flight deck jumpseats.

146
Q

Can pilots and dispatchers of other airlines use our flight deck jumpseat privileges??

A

Yes. Pilot and dispatchers of other airlines may be authorized to occupy a flight deck jumpseat on domestic flights if there is a reciprocil agreement in place.

147
Q

Who can occupy the flight deck jumpseat on INTL flights?

A

F9 employees with the ACM authorization on ID.

148
Q

The captain is the final authority over flight deck access and shall have the right to deny access to any person, without excersing their emergency authority, with the exception of?

A
  • FAA air carrier inspector
  • DOD evaluator
  • U.S. Secret service agent
  • A representative of the NTSB
149
Q

What is required for the ACM breifing for persons sitting in the flight deck jumpseat?

A

Show the briefing card. (to everyone nottyped on airbus)

150
Q

Is operation of the A/C under its own power permitted on any surface if braking action is NIL?

A

NO

151
Q

Are intoxicated persons allowed to board the A/C?

A

No. A person who appears to be intoxicated shall be denied boarding.

152
Q

What would you do if you lost weather radar enroute?

A

The flight may continue to its planned dest provided thunderstorms or hazardous weather condtionscan be avoided visually.

F9 Pilot Init/Rec/Upgrade Updated 03/23 (14 decks)

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