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F9 Pilot Init/Rec/Upgrade Updated 03/23 > BIG 89 > Flashcards

BIG 89 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

Reasons for ARTR (Amend Release to Read)

A

SHAFT ME MI CAPT
S - Supplemental operation
H - Hour after release (Scheduled departure time)
A - Alternate for Destination added or changed.
F - Fuel added over 2000 lbs
T - Takeoff alternate added

ME - MEL added or cleared
MI - Mileage increased due to ATC reroute more than 100nm
CAPT - Captain change Domestic/Flag operations.

ARTR may be delivered by any means available. To be valid, ARTR must be acknowledged by the captain.

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2
Q
  1. Is it ok to leave the cockpit with the Parking break released?
A

No, one station must be manned when the parking break is released unless mx is being preformed and they ok it.

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3
Q
  1. What do you do if the airplane moves with the parking break on?
A

Release the parking break and apply toe brakes

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4
Q
  1. What action is taken at minimums when landing from a non-precision approach?
A

AP off FDs off if adequate visual references are in sight otherwise conduct missed approach

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5
Q
  1. When is it appropriate to call continuing on an approach?
A

At DA when approach lights are in sight may not continue below 100 ft HAT

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6
Q
  1. When do you select flaps full on a single engine approach?
A

Established on final descent to an assured landing.

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7
Q
  1. When may a single engine auto land be conducted?
A

Flight crew may use emergency authority when they think its the safest course of action. Config full should be used

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8
Q
  1. In case of a dual engine failure , which actions do you apply first ECAM or QRH?
A

QRH

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9
Q
  1. Who has authority to cancel a flight?
A

Only Systems Operational Controller

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10
Q
  1. When may we fly to a published MDA?
A

Never. Monkey Do add. Needs to be converted to a DDA.

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11
Q
  1. How do you verify that your EPE does not exceed your RNP of 1.0?
A

Nav accur high denotes your estimated position error does not exceed appropriate criteria. See MCDU prog page

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12
Q
  1. What does RNAV 1 mean?
A

Requires a total system error of not more than 1nm for 95% of the total flight time

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13
Q
  1. What is the definition of marginal wx?
A

Ceiling within 100ft or visibility within 1/2 mile of approach minimums at destinAtion and same critieria for derived minimums at alternate airport

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14
Q
  1. What is the lowest RVR we are authorized to take off at assuming all lights are working?
A

500 500 500 rvr

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15
Q
  1. Which leading edge devices are anti ice protected? Is the tail ice protected?
A

Slats 3 4 and 5. No

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16
Q
  1. When is full alignment of the IRS’s required?
A

FFOD, gps not available and navaid coverage is poor on the expected route, gps not available and expected flight time is more than 3 hours, international flights, Alaska flights, flights in class 2 airspace.

17
Q
  1. During engine start the electrical power supply is interrupted, what is our action?
A

Abort the start manually dry crank for 30 seconds

18
Q
  1. After engine start the ground crew reports a fuel leak what are our actions?
A

Run engine at idle for 5 minutes. If leak stops aircraft an be dispatched. If not mx is required.

19
Q
  1. During engine start with the thrust levers out of idle, will the engines start?
A

Yes but thrust will increase rapidly to corresponding thrust lever position.

20
Q
  1. During cockpit prep, setting QNH on FCU what is the max altitude difference between PFD 1 and 2?
A

+- 20ft

21
Q
  1. During cockpit prep, when turning off and on the batteries what are we looking for?
A

Charging cycle initiated. Check ELEC page both battery currents will drop below 60amps after 10 seconds and continue to decrease. If not crew must continue to wait until charging is complete.

22
Q
  1. Does bat 1&2 need to be in auto for an APU start?
A

Yes.

23
Q

FFOD, the electrical system is powered with AC power. Is a battery voltage check required?

A

No.

24
Q
  1. How many wing walkers are required to park the plane?
A

None required. Two preferred.

25
Q

Unpressurized Areas?

A

Tailcone, main gear bay, PACKs, nose gear bay, radome

26
Q

What happens during gravity gear extension?

A

1st turn - Cuts off Hydraulics
2nd Turn - Unlocks gear doors
3rd turn - Allows gravity to drop gear (unlock pins release)

27
Q

When do spoilers Automatically retract?

A

When spoilers become faulty, inhibited, or not electronically controlled.

28
Q

What controls are mechanically backup?

A

THS & Rudder

29
Q

How do you perform Alternate brake check?

A

Yellow Pump off (IN)
Chocks in
Parking Brake Off
Brake Pedals Push
2000-2700 PSI
Release Brakes
Parking Brake on

30
Q

What temp and conditions must the engine ice be turned on and in what phase of flight?

A

Below 10c (OAT or TAT)
Visible moisture
All phases except climb and cruise below -40c

31
Q

What do the FACs do?

A

Rudder
- turn coordination & yaw dampening
- trim
- travel limit
Flight Envelope Protection
- PFD Speed tape
- Alpha Floor
Low Energy warning
- “Speed, Speed, Speed”
Windshear Protection

32
Q

In flight, when will the speed brakes automatically retract?

A
  • SEC 1/2 Faults
  • Elevator Fault
  • AOA protection active
  • Flaps Full
  • Thrust levers above MCT
  • Alpha Floor Active
33
Q

Do you have Anti-Skid if you lose your normal braking?

A

If BSCU is still working you will. (Brake and Steering Control Unit)

34
Q

What is the max recommended thrust to be used to get the A/C to move on the ramp?

A

40% N1

35
Q

While conducting an ECAM procedure, what are the 5 things the Pilot Flying is responsible for?

A

“ECAM Action”
“Clear …….”
“Clear Status”
“Stop ECAM”
“Continue ECAM”

36
Q

When is a logbook entry required for a computer reset?

A
  • Always
  • “CR” if successful
  • Discrepancy is unsuccessful
37
Q

When turning BATT 1 &2 off then on, what are we looking for?

A

Charging cycle initiated.
- Both Batt currents will drop below 60A after 10 seconds and continue to decrease. If not crew must wait till charging is complete.

F9 Pilot Init/Rec/Upgrade Updated 03/23 (14 decks)

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