Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neuro Test 1 > Written Concepts for Test 1 > Flashcards

Written Concepts for Test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

If you have a upper motor neuron lesion on one side of the facial nerves what happens?

A

Only the contralateral lower part of the face will be affected because the uppr half is innervated by both sides of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

If you have a lower motor neuron lesion to one side of the facial nerves what happens?

A

Whole side of the face is paralyzed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the only sensory input that does not go through the thalamus?

A

Olfactory Nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the only cranial nerve to exit on the dorsal portion of the brainstem?

A

Trochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What cranial nerves are involved in the pupillary light reflex

A

2: sensory
3: motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which branch of the trigeminal is the only one with a motor component?

A

Mandibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What cranial nerves are involved in the Corneal blink reflex

A

5: Sensory

7: Motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where is the cell body for the Light Touch sense of the trigeminal nerve?

A

Trigeminal Ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Where is the cell body for fast nociception of the trigeminal nerve?

A

Trigeminal Ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where is the cell body and the first synapse for proprioception of the trigeminal nerve

A

mesenphalic nucleus of midbrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where is the destination of the information carried by the proprioception portion of the trigeminal nerve

A

reticular formation and cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What nerve is responsible for the lacrimal gland (tears in the eye) and most salivary glands?

A

Facial nerve via the PARASYMPATHETIC superior salivatory n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Contricting the eye is _____sympathetic whereas dialating the eye is ____sympathetic

A

constricting: parasympathetic

dilating: sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

True or false: Trigeminal neuralgia involves sensory loss to portions of face innervated by trigeminal nerve

A

False, no sensory loss. It is sharp shooting pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is bells palsy

A

Diagnoses of exclusion: Virus swells the facial nerve and causes ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What cranial nerves control the gag and swallowing reflex?

A

CN 9: Sensory

CN 10: Motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hypoglossal UMN lesion vs LMN lesion

A

UMN Lesion: Tongue deviates to opposite side of lesion due to inactivity of contralateral tongue muscles

LMNS lesion: Tongue deviates to same side as lesion due to inactivity of ipsilateral tongue muscles

Summary: Hypoglossal UMN is CONTRALATERAL, LMN is IPSILATERAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Dysarthria

A

Poor control of speech muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Smaller motor neurons innervate ____ twitch fibers whereas larger motor neurons innervate ____ twitch fibers

A

Smaller - Slow Twitch

Larger- Fast Twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a presynaptic bouton

A

Swelling at the end of the axon of motor neurons, it lies over the “motor end plate”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is rate coding?

A

Increased motor neuron firing frequency will lead to higher force summation of muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

At lower frequencies, ____ twitch muscles fibers have higher force summation than _____ twitch muscle fibers

A

Slow twitch muscle fibers have higher force summation than fast twitch

(but not higher overall force)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of muscle fibers have the fastest time to peak force and fastest contraction time

A

Fast Twitch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

______ motor neurons are recruited and fire before _____ motor neurons are recruited

A

Smaller are recruited before larger

Why? They have smaller membranes and are easier to depolarize (larger input resistance AKA ohms law, voltage = current x resistance)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the transverse tube (T-Tube)

A

muscle membrane surrounding sarcoplasmic reticulum which allows propagation of action potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Part of muscle cell that:
1. Releases Ach
2. Stores Calcium
3. Facilitates cross bridge action of actin-myosin

(Basically it activates muscle contractions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the Z disc?

A

End of sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the M line?

A

Holds together myosin at sarcomere center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is titin?

A

Holds Actin and myosin together and prevents sarcomere from being pulled apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How does actin and myosin move in the sarcomere?

A

Myosin ( in the middle) pulls the Actin towards the M-Line (the center)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Ca+ binding to ______ causes _______ to uncover sites on the actin which allows for myosin to bind to it

A

Ca+ binding to troponin causes tropomyosin to uncover sites on the actin which allows for myosin to bind to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Healthy innervated muscles will ______ sarcomeres when immobilized in shortened position for prolonged time

Healthy innervated muscles will ____ sarcomeres when immobilized in lengthened position for long time

A

Shortened - lose

Lengthened - gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The cutaneous withdrawal reflex is a ____________ reflex that occurs in response to pain before concious awareness

A

monosynaptic (one synapse)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are Muscle cramps?

A

Painful contractions of muscle due to overstimulation of motor or sensory neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are fasciculations

A

visible fast twitches of all muscle fibers in 1 motor unit Normal OR pathological

(different than a fibrillation which is not visible - always pathological)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is myoclonus and is it always pathological?

A

Brief contractions of muscle/group of muscles

Normal Or Pathological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are tremors?

A

Involuntary rhythmic mvmts

Can be normal or pathologic
Pathologic: postural, orthostatic, intention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Decrease or loss of reflexes (DTRs)
Paresis or paralysis
Muscle atrophy
Decrease or loss of muscle tone
Fibrillations

These are all signs of ________

A

Motor Neuron Lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the purpose of a NCV (nerve conduction velocity study)

A

To diagnostically differentiate between disorders of:
Motor neuron
NM junction
Muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the purpose of an electromyography

A

differentiate between denervated muscle or myopathy

Note: EMG and ECV typically done on same visit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is post polio syndrome?

A

Disease of lower motor neurons

  1. Motor units die due to polio
  2. Motor units recover forming giant motor units
  3. Motor units die due to excessive metabolic demand causing new weakness and fatigue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The lateral horn of the gray matter is present only in:

What is the lateral horn for?

A

T1-L2

Autonomic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What order of neurons are found in the ventral horn?

A

cell bodies of 1st order neurons leaving the spinal cord to the muscles they innervate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The subarachnoid space is also called the…

A

intrathecal space

note: where the CSF is found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What arteries supply the ventral and dorsal spinal roots?

A

Anterior and posterior radicular arteries

These arteries come off of segmental spinal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The spinal cord only occupies ____% of the intervertebral foraminal space

A

33-55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In the spinal cord: ______ motions can increase the pressure at all vertebral levels normally

A

cervical motions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the only tract who’s information gets all the way to the medulla before synapsing?

A

Dorsal column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

True or false: ascending and descending spinal signals synapse on the same interneurons

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Renshaw cells are activated by the ___________ of gamma motor neurons

A

recurrent branches

(Branches that turn back onto their own cell body)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the 3 CNS levels needed for urinary continence?

A

Frontal Cortex, Pons, Sacral cord

53
Q

During Tethered cord syndrome

Damage to anterior cauda equina will lead to:

Whereas stretch to spinal cord will lead to:

A

Anterior cauda equina: LMN signs (PNS)

Stretch to spinal cord: UMN signs(CNS)

54
Q

Sodium channels have an ____ refractory period but calcium channels do not

A

Absolute

55
Q

Voltage gated Na+ channels are located on the….

A

Nodes of Ranvier

Note: also where AP is generated

56
Q

What’s it called when the AP leaps from one node of ranvier to another

A

Salatory conduction

57
Q

Nodes of ranvier are spaced ___mm apart

A

0.2-2mm apart

58
Q

What kind of conduction happens at unmylinated axons?

A

Continuous

Note: not as fast as salatory

59
Q

Cardiac and smooth muscle has the _____ conduction time compared to skeletal muscle and nerves

A

cardiac/smooth muscle - slowest

Skeletal- kinda fast

Nerves- speedy speedy speedy

60
Q

What kind of synapse goes towards a cell body?

(axoaxonic/axodentritic/axosomatic)

A

Axosomatic

61
Q

Presynaptic effect can only occur in ____ synapses.

(axoaxonic/axodentritic/axosomatic)

A

Axoaxonic

Where the presynaptic terminal points to another neuron’s presynaptic terminal

62
Q
  1. action potential comes to presynaptic terminal
  2. presynaptic terminal membrane depolarizes –> open voltage-gated __________
  3. Ca2+ flows in & frees Ca2+ stored in cell –> _________ with neurotransmitters inside are triggered to move toward release site
  4. vesicles fuse w/ presynaptic membrane & release NTs into ___________
  5. NTs spread across cleft
  6. NTs touch matching postsynaptic receptor –> binds
  7. ___________ alters shape –> opens ion channel OR triggers intracellular messengers
A

Voltage gated calcium channels

Vesicles

Synaptic Cleft

Post Synaptic Receptor

63
Q

What activates the secondary messenger system?

What is the second messenger?

A
  1. Neuromodulator
  2. G-Protein (produced inside of neurons)
64
Q

What are the 3 “amine” class neurotransmitters

A

Dopamine
Serotonin
Norepinephrine

65
Q

What disease is caused by damage of AcH receptors on muscles?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

66
Q

Ach is considered a neurotransmitter in ______, but a neuromodulator in the ______

A

Muscles

Brain

67
Q

In Huntington disease, you see low levels of what neurotransmitter?

A

GABA

As well as glycine which is also inhibitory

68
Q

Receptors for ________ are all secondary messenger systems

A

Dopamine

69
Q

In PTSD, you see excessive _____ levels

A

Norepinephrine

70
Q

What neurotransmitter is involved in mood, pain perception, arousal, and motor activity?

A

Serotonin

71
Q

In ______ syndromes, substance P can act as a neuromodulator

A

Pain syndromes

72
Q

What do neural crest cells form?

A

Periphery sensory neurons

Autonomic Regions

Endocrine glands

73
Q

The spinal cords stops growing at ___ years old, the vertebral column stops growing at ___

A

4-5

16-18

74
Q

What day does brain development occur?

A

Day 28

75
Q

In development, The posterior region of the forebrain remains near the midline to form the….

A

Diencephalon: Thalamus, Hypothalamus

76
Q

Which part of the developing brain becomes the telencephalon?

(Forebrain/Midbrain/Hindbrain)

A

Forebrain

77
Q

Cortex refers to….

A

The layers of cell bodies on the surface of the hemispheres

78
Q

What does the central canal of the forebrain form?

A

The lateral ventricles

79
Q

The insula is considered the ____ lobe of the cortex

A

5th

80
Q

Neurons sprout ________ that they use to sample potential environments, recoiling from some areas and attracted to others

A

Growth cones

81
Q

What happens when growth cones reach a target cell?

A

Synaptic vesicles form and microtubules extend to the presynaptic membrane

82
Q

Muscle fiber type is dependent on the __________ which shapes the development of muscles

A

Type of innervation

(The neurons decide if it’s fast or slow twitch)

83
Q

Myelination of long axons is finished by ___ years old

Myelination of motor neurons out the cortex is finished by __ years old

A

3 years old

2 years old

84
Q

When abnormal events occur prior to __ weeks gestation, major deformities of the nervous system will be present

A

20 weeks

85
Q

What is the lateral wall of the lateral ventricles?

A

Caudate nucleus

86
Q

What is below the lateral ventricles?

A

Thalamus

87
Q

What is above the lateral ventricles?

A

Corpus callosum

88
Q

The 3rd ventricle is surrounded by the…..

A

Diencephalon

89
Q

Where is the inner and outer layer of the dura not fused?

A

Dural sinuses which collect CSF and blood

90
Q

what layer of the dura continues as spinal dura

A

inner layer

(not the outer layer)

91
Q

What part of the arachnoid matter connects to the pia matter and suspends the brain

A

arachnoid trabeculae

92
Q

what are the three layers of the choroid plexus? AKA what three layers does CSF have to go through

A

capillaries

connective tissue

epithelial cells

93
Q

what is the triad of symptoms for hydrocephalus

A

-gait

-incontinence

-cognitive deficits

94
Q

where does noncommunicating hydrocephalus usually occur

A

cerebral aqueduct

95
Q

what kind of aneurysm is most common

what is this type called when it happens at a cerebral artery

A

sacular

berry

96
Q

what type of aneurysm happens on both sides of the blood vessel

A

fusiform

97
Q

in what ventricle is intracranial pressure measured

what is the normal range of intracranial pressure?

A

Lateral Ventricle

5-15, (20 is pathological)

98
Q

What type of herniation puts pressure on the the midbrain, the reticular formation, and CN3

A

Uncal

99
Q

What type of hernation causes stretching of the basilar artery and bilateral paralysis with impaired conciousness

A

central herniation

100
Q

what kind of herniation can put pressure on the brainstem and block the 4th ventricle

A

tonsillar

101
Q

what is a transient ischemic attack

A

brief localized loss of brain function that resolves within 24 hrs

(precursor to a stroke; becomes a stroke if it lasts more then 24 hours(CVA))

102
Q

__% of strokes are infarcts

A

80%

103
Q

What has a smaller receptor field, subcutaneous or superficial receptors?

A

Superficial receptors have a smaller field (more accurate 2 point discrimination)

104
Q

Patients with _______ will have similar preformance preforming tasks with eyes open and eyes closed

A

cerrebellar ataxia

(because they cant cooridinate movements anyway)

105
Q

Which disorder still has proprioception: Sensory ataxia or Cerebellar ataxia

A

Cerebellar ataxia

106
Q

varicella zoster virus causes chicken pox & infects ________ –> virus remains latent in ____________ –> breaks out & travels distally to nerve endings

Causing…. Shingles

A

Dorsal Root Ganglion

107
Q

what areas of the brain are active during perception of pain

A

cingulate and insular

108
Q

the dorsal horn releases __________ to inhibit pain

A

enkephalin or dynorphin

109
Q

parathesia vs dysthesia

A

parathesia- tingling/numbness

dysthesia- burning/shooting/painful

110
Q

What is the term for pain from a stimulus that wouldn’t normally cause pain

A

allodynia

note: with allodynia, abnormal activation of microglia may be implicated

111
Q

In primary hyperalgesia, stimuli that would normally be _________ now causes excessive sensitivity

A

mildly painful

112
Q

In secondary hyperalgesia the pain spreads to ____________

A

areas away from the injures site

113
Q

increased pain due to repeated stimulus or continued presence of single stimulus are examples of….

A

Temporal summation

114
Q

tenderness & stiffness of muscles & neighboring tissues & achy pain w/o painful external stimuli is called…

A

Fibromyalgia

Note: small fiber myopathy contributes to fibromyalgia

115
Q

What are signs of excessive intracranial pressure?

A

HA upon awakening

HA caused by coughing, sneezing, straining, vomiting

worse when laying down

116
Q

___% of ppl seeking primary care for LBP have no definitive specific tissue injury & __% resolves post 6-12 wks

A

90%

70%

117
Q

Allodynia is likely caused by _______ where demyelination allows an AP in 1 neuron to cause an AP in another neuro

A

ephaptic transmission/cross talk

118
Q

What muscle spindles do 1a fibers go to?

What muscle spindes do type 2 fibers go to?

What muscle spindles do static gamma motor neurons go to?

What muscle spindles do dynamic gamma motor neurons go to?

A

ALL

All but dynamic nuclear bag

All but dynamic nuclear bag

Only dynamic nuclear bag

119
Q

What kind of gamma motor neurons do golgi tendon organs get?

A

1B

120
Q

Golgi tendon organs can either cause autogenic ______ or ________

A

Inhibition or activation of the same muscle they originate from

121
Q

What is external strabismus

A

Eye fixed in abduction

(trochlear nervea and occulomotor not working)

122
Q

if you have trochlear nerve not functioning, you will expect to see a head tilt to the _____ side

A

head tilt to opposite side

123
Q

What is the main symptom you’d expect to see if the Abducens nerve is damaged

A

double vision

123
Q

The cochlear nuclei transmits auditory information to what 3 structures?

A
  • reticular formation
  • inferior colliculus
  • medial geniculate body
123
Q

Which salviary gland is not associated with the facial nerve?

A

Parotid

(Facial nerve controls all of the rest)

124
Q

What structure integrates info from both ears in order to locate sound?

A

Inferior colliculus

125
Q

which structure serves as thalamic relay station to primary auditory cortex?

A

medial geniculate body

126
Q

What is more common: Sensorineural deafness or conductive deafness

A

Conductive Deafness

Neuro Test 1 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions