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IDBR > worms > Flashcards

worms Flashcards

1
Q

what is the infective stage for mosquitos of malaria

A

gametocytes

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2
Q

which two species of malaria can infected RBCs at any stage
significance?

A

falciparum and Knowlesi
no limit on level of parasitemia

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3
Q

describe duffy antigen negative

A

evolutionary benefit against vivax because vivid uses Duffy antigen to enter RBCs

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4
Q

describe evolutionary benefit of sickle cell trait

A

increases survival during p. falciparum infection, selectively sickles infected RBCs

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5
Q

describe evolutionary trait of G6PD def

A

malaria parasites grow poorly in G6PD deficient RBCs

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6
Q

malaria prophylaxis in pregnancy

A

mefloquine or chloroquine

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7
Q

malaria ppx for Central America and Middle East

A

chloroquine ok if sensitive area

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8
Q

what to check before prescribing tafenoquine for ppx

A

G6PD

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9
Q

side effect of artesunate

A

delayed onset anemia after administration

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10
Q

where is there artemisn resistance

A

SE asia and parts of Africa

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11
Q

treatment of p vivax

A

chloroquine for 3 days
then primaquine or tafenoquine for eradication of hyponozoites

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12
Q

what to check before giving primaquine or tafenoquine

A

G6PD

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13
Q

method for babesia transmission

A

transfusion related

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14
Q

co-infections with babesia

A

Lyme and anaplasma

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15
Q

treatment of babesia

A

azithromycin + atovaquone
clindamycin + quinine

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16
Q

treatment of severe babesia

A

exchange transfusion

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17
Q

severe disease of babesia can occur in what two patient populations

A

HIV or asplenia

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18
Q

two stages of leishmania

A

promastigote (in sand fly)
amastigote (in macrophages in humans)

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19
Q

what is the most common species of leishmania to cause mucocutaneous form

A

l. braziliensis

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20
Q

new world leishmania species

A

L. mexicana complex
braziliensis
infantum chagasi

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21
Q

old world leishmania species

A

tropica
major
Donovani
infantum chagasi

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22
Q

species in viannia subgenus that cause mucocutaneous disease

A

braziliensis, guyanensis and panamensis

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23
Q

treatment of mucocutaneous leishmania

A

miltefosine or ambisome

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24
Q

contraindication against miltefosine

A

can’t use in pregnancy, patient can’t get pregnant for 5 months after treatment

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25
Q

visceral leishmania species

A

Donovani and infantum chagasi

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26
Q

how to diagnose visceral leishmania

A

bone marrow aspirate or splenic aspirate

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27
Q

treatment of l Donovani visceral leishmania

A

miltefosine

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28
Q

treatment of infantum chagasi visceral leishmania

A

ambisome

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29
Q

vector of African trypanosomiasis

A

tse tse fly

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30
Q

west Africa trypanosome

A

trypanosoma Brucei gambiense

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31
Q

east Africa trypanosome

A

trypanosoma Bruce rhodisiense

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32
Q

gambiense reservoir

A

humans

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33
Q

progression time of gambiense

A

many months

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34
Q

rhodesiense reservoir

A

cattle and game park animals

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35
Q

progression time of rhodisiense

A

weeks

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36
Q

initial presentation of HAT

A

chancre at site of bite, regional LAD

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37
Q

delayed presentation of HAT

A

fever, HSM, LAD, headache, very late progression to somnolence

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38
Q

lab findings in HAT

A

elevated IgM
hyperGammaglobulinemia
anemia
thrombocytopenia

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39
Q

diagnosis of HAT

A

peripheral smear
FNA of affected lymph node

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40
Q

side effect common to benznidazole and nifurtimox

A

Skin issues

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41
Q

mimic of CNS toxo in AIDS patient

A

chagas disease

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42
Q

chronic granulomatous keratitis in contact lens wearers or LASIK

A

acanthamoeba

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43
Q

epi risks of cryptosporidium

A

water parks
day cares
cattle workers

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44
Q

cyclospora presentation

A

watery diarrhea with vomiting

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45
Q

cyclospora epi risks

A

raspberries
lettuces
herbs

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46
Q

size of cryptosporidium

A

5 um

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47
Q

treatment of cryptosporidium

A

nitazoxanide or paromomycin

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48
Q

cyclospora size

A

10 um

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49
Q

treatment of cyclospora

A

TMP-SMX

50
Q

size of cystisospora

A

20 um

51
Q

treatment of cystisospora

A

tmp-smx

52
Q

only ciliated protozoan pathogen of humans

A

balantidium coli

53
Q

flask shaped ulcers on pathology

A

entamoeba histolytica

54
Q

test of choice for e. histolytica

A

stool PCR

55
Q

diagnosis of e. histolytica with liver disease

A

serology test of choice

56
Q

treatment of asymptomatic e histolytica

A

luminal agents such as paromomycin

57
Q

treatment of symptomatic e histolytica

A

tissue agents such as metronidazole or tinidazole THEN luminal agent

58
Q

treatment of e histolytica liver abscess

A

medical therapy (tissue agent then luminal agent) usually sufficient!
drainage if no response to medical therapy or dx unclear or v large abscess

59
Q

tick borne illness in gulf or SE US with characteristic eschar

A

rickettsia Parkeri

60
Q

diagnosis of rickettsia Parkeri

A

serology
PCR or culture from skin biopsy or swab of the eschar

61
Q

tick borne illness with eschar but on pacific coast

A

pacific coast tick fever
rickettsia philippii

62
Q

tick borne illness with multiple eschar but in Africa

A

rickettsia Africae

63
Q

tick borne illness in urban area with eschar and maculopapular rash

A

rickettsialpox or rickettsia akari

64
Q

vector for rickettsia akari

A

mouse mites

65
Q

scrub typhus organism

A

orienta tsutsugamushi

66
Q

vector of scrub typhus

A

mite (chiggers)

67
Q

scrub typhus geography

A

asia

68
Q

endemic typhus organism

A

rickettsia prowazekii

69
Q

animal association with endemic typhus/prowazekii

A

flying squirrels

70
Q

vector for prowazekii

A

body louse

71
Q

vector for rickettsia typhi

A

flea

72
Q

murine typhus organism

A

r. typhi

73
Q

HME vector

A

lone star tick

74
Q

anaplasma vector

A

ixodes scapularis

75
Q

risk for babesia

A

asplenia

76
Q

unique clinical feature of babesia

A

hemolytic anemia

77
Q

tick borne relapsing fever organism

A

borrelia hermsii

78
Q

geography of tick borne relapsing fever

A

western US

79
Q

tick borne relapsing fever reaction after treatment

A

J-H reaction

80
Q

Louse borne relapsing fever organism

A

borrelia recurrentis

81
Q

timing of rash in RMSF

A

appears several days after fever and viral like prodrome

82
Q

anaplasma affected cell

A

PMN

83
Q

ehrlichia affected cell

A

monocyte

84
Q

most common cause of blood transfusion infection in US

A

babesia

85
Q

flying squirrels

A

endemic typhus

86
Q

rodent infested urban house

A

rickettsialpox

87
Q

describe skin findings in rickettsialpox

A

tache noir first then dozens of papules/vesicles

88
Q

schistosome way of entry to humans

A

through skin

89
Q

describe cecarial dermatitis or swimmer’s itch

A

urticarial plaques and itchy papules that occur upon reexposure to cercariae penetrating skin in a sensitized person

90
Q

describe acute schistosomiasis or katayama fever

A

fever, abdominal pain, eosinophilia

91
Q

clinical features of s. mansoni

A

granulomatous colitis
portal hypertension

92
Q

clinical features of s. haematobium

A

granulomatous cystitis
bladder fibrosis and cancer
obstructive uropathy
men: prostatitis, epididymitis
women: endometritis, cervicitis, vaginitis

93
Q

clinical feature of s. japonicum

A

CNS disease, eggs to brain and spinal cord

94
Q

describe fasciola hepatica clinical presentation

A

acquired by eating encysted larvae on acquatic vegetation, fluke migrates to the liver, gets into biliary ducts and can cause biliary obstruction

95
Q

diagnosis of fasciola

A

eggs in stool exam or serology

96
Q

treatment of fasciola

A

triclabendazole

97
Q

clonorchis sinensis and opisthorchis viverrini acquired from

A

eating freshwater fish

98
Q

clonorchis sinensis aan opisthorchis viverrini can cause - 3

A

biliary obstruction
cholelithiasis
cholangiocarcinoma

99
Q

how to acquire paragonimus westermani

A

eating undercooked freshwater crabs and crayfish

100
Q

clinical features of paragonimus westermani

A

fever, cough, diarrhea during acute migration then go the lungs and can have chronic chest pain or pulmonary symptoms

101
Q

how to diagnose paragonimus westermani

A

sputum and/or stool exam for eggs

102
Q

how to acquire Taenia solium

A

eating larvae in pork

103
Q

how to acquire Taenia saginatum

A

larvae in undercooked beef

104
Q

how to acquire diphyllobothrium latum

A

ingesting fish with larvae

105
Q

lab feature seen in diphyllobothrium latum infection

A

B12 deficiency

106
Q

how humans acquire echinococcus

A

ingesting dog feces

107
Q

clinical presentation of echinococcus

A

rupture into biliary tree
rupture into lung
rupture into peritoneum- peritonitis

108
Q

radiologic feature of ascaris Loeffler syndrome

A

infiltrates are changing in location on different days

109
Q

two hookworm species

A

ancylostoma duodenale and nectar Americanus

110
Q

lab finding in hookworm infection

A

anemia

111
Q

trichuris trichuria

A

whipworm

112
Q

describe clinical features of trichuris

A

loose and frequent stool with tenesmus, rectal prolapse, bloody stool

113
Q

strongyloides hyper infection clinical syndrome

A

GI symptoms, wheezing, cough, fever, hypotension, Gram negative sepsis

114
Q

is eosinophilia commonly seen in strongyloides hyper infection

A

no

115
Q

treatment of choice for strongyloides

A

ivermectin

116
Q

severe nocturnal asthma in person who has lived and returned to endemic area

A

tropical pulmonary eosinophilia

117
Q

treatment of trichinella

A

albendazole and steroids

118
Q

most common cause of eosinophilic meningitis worldwide

A

angiostrongylus (rat lungworm)

119
Q

how to get angiostrongylus

A

eating parasites in snails or slugs (can be on vegetables) or prawns, shrimp, crabs

120
Q

acute abdominal pain after eating fresh or undercooked seafood (has not been frozen)

A

anisakis

121
Q
A

IDBR (23 decks)

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