worksheet (exam 1) Flashcards

1
Q

what are some important patient education topics for antibiotics?

A

-finish them
-Discard any antibiotics that are discontinued
Allergies are common: what are the signs and symptoms: can happen after first dose
Unable to breathe
Rash
Confusion (especially in elderly)
GI distress is common: know which ones to take with food

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2
Q

what are examples of aminoglycosides?

A

GENTAMYCIN, TOBRAMYCIN, neomycin, amikacin, streptomycin

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3
Q

black box warnings for aminoglycosides (gentamycin and tobramycin)?

A

Black Box: nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity
Damage to CN 8 → dizziness, tinnitus, dec. hearing, can block Ach at receptor site and end muscular blockade
Edema

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4
Q

examples of carbapenems?

A

MEROPENEM, ertapenem, imipenem and cilstatin

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5
Q

notable adverse effects of carbapenems (meropenem)?

A

-c-diff
-pseudomembranous ulcerative colitis

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6
Q

what is important to know about carbapenem injections

A

include lidocaine, they hurt

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7
Q

examples of cephalosporins

A

Cefazolin
Cephalexin
Cefuroxime
Ceftriaxone
Cefepime
Ceftaroline

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8
Q

what are notable adverse effects of cephalosporins

A

superinfections - yeast infections, c-diff

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9
Q

what is an important nursing consideration for Ceftriaxone?

A

IM administration is painful

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10
Q

examples of fluoroquinolones?

A

ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin

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11
Q

what are some notable adverse effects of fluoroquinolones?

A

QT prolongation (life-threatening dysrhythmias) hypo/hyperglycemia, photosensitivity
-BBW: tendonitis, tendon rupture.

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12
Q

what are contraindications of fluoroquinolones?

A

myasthenia gravis

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13
Q

what meds have notable interactions with fluoroquinolones?

A

meds that prolong QT interval

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14
Q

examples of macrolides?

A

Erythromycin
Azithromycin
Clarithromycin
Fidaxomicin

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15
Q

notable adverse effects of macrolides?

A

-cardiac dysrhythmias and liver toxicity

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16
Q

notable drug interactions with macrolides?

A

be careful with drugs that can prolong QT interval

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17
Q

important nursing considerations for macrolides?

A

Antacids reduce the absorption of macrolides so tell patients to take an hour before our two hours after

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18
Q

examples of penicillins

A

Penicillin G (IM injection)
Amoxicillin
Ampicillin
Piperacillin

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19
Q

notable adverse effects for penicillins?

A

-Hypersensitivity: highest rates of hypersensitivity reactions

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20
Q

important nursing considerations for penicillins?

A

Ampicillin: rapid infusion may cause seizures

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21
Q

examples of sulfonamides

A

-Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim)
-Sulfasalazine

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22
Q

notable adverse effects of sulfonamides

A

Sulfasalazine: turns secretions orange

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23
Q

what is the mechanism of action for sulfonamides

A

-Mechanism of Action: Folate antagonist (contraindicated in pregnancy)

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24
Q

nursing considerations for sulfonamides?

A

-Sulfasalazine should be taken after meals and can stain skin (and contact lenses = orange)
-silver sulfadiazine you need sterile gloves

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25
Q

examples of tetracyclines?

A

1) Tetracycline (Oral)
2) Doxycycline (Oral – preferred)

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26
Q

what are GI effects of tetracyclines?

A

espohagitis

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27
Q

what are derm effects of tetracyclines

A

photosensitivity

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28
Q

what are nursing considerations of tetracyclines?

A

-Doxycycline: administer on empty stomach WITH a lot of water!
-Remain upright for min of 30 min
-Outdated meds can damage kidneys so throw any outdated meds away

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29
Q

examples of urinary antiseptics?

A

Phenazopyridine (AZO)

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30
Q

notable adverse effects of urinary antiseptics (AZO)?

A

orange/red urine

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31
Q

important nursing considerations of phenazopyridine?

A

can not conduct a urinalysis while on it because of red/orange urine

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32
Q

what is vancomycin used to treat?

A

c-diff (first line)

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33
Q

what is the rate of infusion for vancomycin IV

A

30 mins fir every 500 mg

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34
Q

notable adverse effects for vancomycin?

A

IV is vesicant/irritant
Hyaluronidase subdermal for extravasation

Nephrotoxic
Trough - 10 - 15 mcg/mL

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35
Q

what are contraindications of vancomycin?

A

Nephrotoxic (caution in renal dysfunction)

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36
Q

what is recommended for a vancomycin infusion?

A

central line

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37
Q

what med is used topically for staph infections?

A

clindamycin

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38
Q

what is a black box warning of clindamycin?

A

diarrhea and pseudomembranous colitis

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39
Q

what med is used systemically for very serious infections?

A

clindamycin

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40
Q

________, ______, and _____ increase the risk of serotonin syndrome

A

linezolid, SSRIs, SNIRs

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41
Q

what med is very effective at treating E. coli, travelers diarrhea, and HEPATIC ENCEPHALOPATHY?

A

rifaximin

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42
Q

what med is a broad spectrum IV antibiotic for meningitis, plaque, and CHF

A

chloramphenicol

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43
Q

black box warning for chloramphenicol?

A

aplastic anemia (bone marrow damage)

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44
Q

what is isoniazid used to treat?

A

TB

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45
Q

what is an adverse effect of isoniazid (INH)

A

peripheral neuropathy

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46
Q

black box warning for INH?

A

liver toxicity

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47
Q

what are important nursing considerations of INH?

A

-Administer Vitamin B6 to help with peripheral neuropathy (combination therapy does exist)
- direct observation to ensure compliance

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48
Q

what is rifampin used to treat?

A

TB

49
Q

what is an important consideration of rifampin?

A

red/orange secretions

50
Q

what is ethambutol used to treat?

A

TB

51
Q

what is a side effect of ethambutol?

A

optic neuritis

52
Q

what is Pyrazinamide (PZA) used to treat?

A

TB

53
Q

what is a contraindication of Pyrazinamide (PZA)?

A

wait for gout to pass before giving med

54
Q

what are nursing considerations for Pyrazinamide (PZA)?

A

Pancreatitis labs = amylase + lipase, back pain
Hepatotoxicity - ast/alt. RUQ pain

55
Q

what is ribavirin used to treat?

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

56
Q

what is oseltamivir used for?

A

influenza

57
Q

what is a contraindication for RSV / flu drugs?

A

pregnant people can not be in the room with administration

58
Q

what is a nursing consideration for oseltamivir?

A

administer within 48 hours of onset of symptoms

59
Q

what is Nirmatrelvir-ritonavir used to treat?

A

COVID-19

60
Q

what is important to know about Nirmatrelvir-ritonavir?

A

there are many drug interactions

61
Q

when should you start taking Nirmatrelvir-ritonavir?

A

within 5 days of symptom onset

62
Q

what is remdesivir used to treat?

A

COVID-19

63
Q

what is an important consideration for remdesivir?

A

Hard for outpatient to take because they have to come in 3 days in a row
Day 1: 200 mg IV
Day 2&3: 100 mg IV

64
Q

what is acyclovir used to treat?

A

herpes

65
Q

what is a notable adverse effect of acyclovir?

A

teratogenic

66
Q

what is ganiciclovir used to treat?

A

cytomegalovirus

67
Q

what is zidovudine used for?

A

given oral throughout pregnancy if mom has HIV and is sued during L&D if viral load of mom is high

68
Q

what is important to know about HIV/AIDS drugs?

A

they all work together to lower viral load

69
Q

what are lamivudine, adefovir, entecavir, and tenofovir used for?

A

hepatitis

70
Q

what are notable adverse effects of hepatitis drugs?

A

pancreatitis

71
Q

examples of azole antifungals

A

fluconazole
ketoconazole

72
Q

what are azoles used for?

A

fungal infections

73
Q

what are notable adverse effects of azoles?

A

liver toxicity

74
Q

what are nursing considerations of azoles?

A

administer with food. (helps with GI distress - smaller, more frequent meals)

75
Q

adverse effects of echinocandins?

A

bone marrow suppression

76
Q

what are echinocandins used for?

A

anti-fungal

77
Q

what are important considerations for echinocandins?

A

monitor CBC

78
Q

what are polyenes used for?

A

anti fungal, disrupt cell membrane

79
Q

what are adverse effects of polyenes?

A

multiple organ failure

80
Q

what is terbinafine used for?

A

broad-spectrum anti-fungal

81
Q

what are notable drug interactions of terbinafine?

A

All of the CYP2D6 drugs (fluconazole, digoxin, there are many)

82
Q

what are nursing considerations for terbinafine?

A

How long will the client take this?
-for the hand, it’s 6 weeks and for the foot it’s 12 weeks
Will the infection be completely resolved?
-symptoms will not have completely resolved by the time treatment is complete

83
Q

what is chloroquine phosphate used for?

A

anti-malarial

84
Q

what is hydroxychloroquine used for?

A

anti-malarial

85
Q

what are notable adverse effects of anti-malarials

A

EKG changes and retinal toxicity

86
Q

what is metronidazole used for?

A

anti-parasitic

87
Q

what are contraindications for anti-parasitics?

A

avoid alcohol

88
Q

how long should alcohol be avoided on anti-parasitic drugs and why?

A

-during and 48 hours afterward
-can develop flushing, headaches, N/V

89
Q

how often should you get eye exams on anti-malarials?

A

routinely and 1-2 weeks prior to exposure and 4 weeks after exposure

90
Q

what is permethirin used for?

A

scabicide / pediculicide

91
Q

notable adverse effects of scabicides / pediculicides

A

burn, itch, tingle

92
Q

notable nursing cinsiderations of scabicides / pediculicides

A

-needs to be on for 8-14 hours before washing off (permethrin)

93
Q

contraindications for anthelmintics?

A

avoid alcohol

94
Q

example of antineoplastic / alkylating drugs

A

cisplatin, cyclophosphamide

95
Q

what is used for advanced treatment of bladder, ovarian, and testicular cancer

A

cisplatin

96
Q

what is the antidote for cisplatin?

A

sodium thiosulfate

97
Q

what is important to know about cyclophosphamide (cancer drug)

A

drink 2L of fluids for 1-2 days after dose

98
Q

what is hydroxyurea used to treat?

A

sickle cell

99
Q

what are 2 important things to know about hydroxyurea?

A

-do not crush / break
-wear chemo drugs

100
Q

what med treats and lowers risk of breast cancer?

A

tamoxifen

101
Q

what is important about antineoplastic hormone inhibitors?

A

periodic bone density testing

102
Q

what are complications from antineoplastic drugs?

A

-n/v
-anorexia
-fatigue
-alopecia
-mucositis
-infection
-bleeding
-hyperuricemia
-hand-foot syndrome!

103
Q

how to treat n/v related to anti-cancer (antineoplastic) drugs?

A

-with serotonin reuptake antagonist and corticosteroid
-palonosetron
-benzodiazepines

104
Q

how to treat anorexia related to antineoplastics?

A

use supplements

105
Q

what to educate patient about alopecia related to anti-cancer drugs?

A

its temporary

106
Q

what is a complication of antineoplastics that are ulcers on mucosal cavities and even thru GI

A

mucositis

107
Q

how long does mucositis last?

A

7-10 days

108
Q

how to help the effect of mucositis on antineoplastics?

A

chew ice before chemo

109
Q

why does infection happen on antineoplastics?

A

it trashes bone marrow

110
Q

how to help infection due to antineoplastics?

A

-handwashing, no swimming in freshwater
-filgrastim or sargramostim administration
-redo vaccinations

111
Q

how to help hyperuricemia related to antineoplastics?

A

-encourage fluid intake
-saline IV
-allopurinol administration

112
Q

how to help hand-foot syndrome related to antineoplastics?

A

-reduce heat and friction
-ice and acetaminophen

113
Q

what are cytoprotectants used for?

A

cancer

114
Q

what cytoprotectant stimulates RBC production?

A

Epoetin alfa

115
Q

what cytoprotectant stimulates WBC production

A

filgrastim

116
Q

what cytoprotectant acts like folic acid

A

Leucovorin

117
Q

what is the rescue drug if given too much methotrexate?

A

Leucovorin

118
Q

what is seen in the treatment of bone cancer that proliferates bulky tumors

A

tumor lysis syndrome

119
Q

safe handling of chemo drugs?

A

-double chemo gloves, gown
-eye/face protection if risk for emesis or splash, ALWAYS for irrigation or aerosol