Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A > Wings Powerpoint > Flashcards

Wings Powerpoint Flashcards

1
Q

When can you operate SVFR?
What are the restrictions?

A
  • By day
  • authorised by ATC
  • clear of cloud
  • 800m vis
  • speed that allows pilot to see and avoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Light signals to aircraft

A

Steady green - clear to land/take off if no risk of collision exists
Steady red - give way & continue circling/stop
Flashing green - return for landing/clear to taxi if no risk of collision exists
Flashing red - unsafe dont land/taxi clear of landing area
White flashes - return to starting point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

VMC criteria class c below 10000ft

A

5km vis
1000ft vertical
1500m lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Class d VMC

A

5km vis
500ft below
1000ft above
600m lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Class g VMC below 1000ft AGL/3000ft AMSL

A

5km vis
Clear of cloud
In sight of ground or water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Class g VMC below 700ft with track guidance

A

800m vis
Clear of cloud
- by day/NVIS
- speed that allows pilot to see and avoid
- if less than 10nm from an aerodrome with IAP, maintain 500ft vertical separation from any aircraft within 10nm or aerodrome or conducting IFR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Class g VMC below 700ft without track guidance

A

5km vis
500ft vertical
600m lateral

  • by day/NVIS
  • speed that allows pilot to see and avoid
  • if less than 10nm from an aerodrome with IAP, maintain 500ft vertical separation from any aircraft within 10nm or aerodrome or conducting IFR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cruising levels

A

West = even
East = odd

VFR + 500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

INTER and TEMPO times + holding fuels

A

INTER = 30min, 85kg
TEMPO = 60min, 170kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Alternate minima - night VFR

A

Cloud base 1500ft
8km vis

Lighting
- qualified person at aerodrome for the landing (30min prior) to manually switch of lighting in event of failure
- in case of PAL as ADF ACFT, no qualified person required if dual VHF equipped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Sources of accurate QNH

A

AAIS
ATC
ATIS
AWIS
CA/GRS
WATIR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Radio Comms become inoperative
VFR class g or e

A
  • squawk 7600
  • remain outside controlled airspace
  • continue broadcasting position and intentions on appropriate frequency
  • as soon as practicable, descend below 5000ft to continue flight under VFR
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Radio Comms become inoperative
VFR in class a,b,c,d or IFR

A
  • squawk 7600
  • continue broadcasting position and intentions
  • if certain of remaining VMC, remain VMC and land at most suitable aerodrome
  • if IMC or uncertain or remaining VMC:
  • maintain last assigned altitude/LSALT (if higher) for 3mins
  • after the above, proceed IAW last atc route clearance acknowledged
  • commence descent IAW last atc route clearance
  • conduct most suitable IAP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Separation from populous areas and public gatherings

A

1000ft above highest obstacle within 300m radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

VFR, how often must PIC fix ACFT

A

Must positively fix the ACFTs position by visual reference to features marked on topographical charts at intervals not exceeding 30mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How long is QNH accurate for after receiving it?

A

15min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Emergency transponder codes

A

7500 = interference
7600 = loss of comms
7700 = in flight emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The risk of an adverse event as a result of NVIS failure below 500ft AGL is controlled by?

A
  • the ACFT ability to revert immediately to a non-filtered search or landing light
  • the presence of 2 pilots, each of whom is NVIS qualified and equipped and has access to dual flight controls
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Icing conditions for EC135

A
  • Not below 2deg OAT in visible moisture
  • When ice detector indicates icing conditions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What level of FORECASTED turbulence is permitted for flying operations

A

Flight is permitted in FORECASTED mod/sev turbulence

CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Can flight continue if severe turbulence is experienced?

A

No

CRP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For inspecting the rotor head what safety limits/procedures are there?

A
  • WAH and pre flight training
  • helmet, flying clothing, lighting
  • 3 points of contact
  • wind/rain assessed suitable
  • 110kg
  • sentry
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

To prevent tail strike, what should you back up in landings?

A

10deg NU at <10ft

Watch MMI on deck

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An ACMN is required for CA’s where ….. rotor diameter clearance from obstructions is not available

A

2 rotor diameter clearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Min height for overwater ops at night?

A

400ft, other than embarked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Min descent altitude for autorotation training

A

15ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When can you operate overwater without aircrew life rafts?

A
  • overwater within 5nm of coastline
  • overwater within 5-10nm above VTOSS
  • enclosed waters
  • overwater where FST is greater than ERT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When should HI NR be on during flight

A

All the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the fixed fuel reserve and can it be used for training

A

70kg
Can be used for taxiing provided the ACFT remains over a suitable landing surface at all times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Unless in emergency/with QFI what is the min altitude an AvWO can manipulate controls

A

500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If only one set of NVDs is serviceable during flight, what is your minimum altitude

A

500ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When hovering/taxiing around stationary ACFT vehicles or structures, what is the minimum lateral clearance

A

15ft
10ft for marshallers or taxi guidlines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Clearance required below the ACFT and rotor disk during IGE hover, taxi, lifting off, touching down

A

IGE hover = 5ft above obstacles
Taxi, touching down, lifting off = 3ft AO
On the ground = 5ft between blades and obstacles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

OEL for low level flight

A

ELT/CVR/UMS/visio camera
RADALT
GTN650 or 750
Sat phone (for remote areas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

OEL for night

A

ELT/CVR/UMS/camera
RADALT
Current GTN database
GTN 650 or 750
Search/landing light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

OEL for general handling

A

ELT/CVR/UMS/camera
GTN 650 or 750

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Max flight hours in a daily period

A

8 unless extended by an operation order

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When air temp forecast to be greater than 30deg aircrew must carry

A

Min of 1litre of water per 1.5hr sortie, per person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

NFP and FP scan arcs of responsibility

A

NFP: 8 to 1
FP: 11 to 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Announcing hazards

A

Caution - obstacle/traffic
Left/right clock code
Distance - close/middle/far
Level - low/middle/high
Direction of movement
Conflict/no conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

“Handing over”

A

“Taking over”
“I have control”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Mandatory ICS items

A

ENG main switches
ENG mode select switches
ENG EMERG OFF switch
Twist grips
XFER pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

EC135 cruise power and speed

A

8 FLI
120KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Rate of closure for normal, steep and shallow profile approaches

A

Normal - walking pace
Steep - slow walking pace
Shallow - fast walking pace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Audible warnings NR

A

Steady tone - NR equal to or above 112%
Broken tone - NR equal to or below 97%
Gong - NR equal to or above 106%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

During a standard climb, what is the altitude to time ratio use for planning?

A

+1min/2000ft
2000FPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does DIAFARE stand for

A

Divert point
Info
Altitude
Fuel
AVRM
RT
Execution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

You are 20 seconds early at a base speed of 90KIAS

A

Decelerate to 70KIAS for 90 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

OEI fuel flow and effect on total fuel

A

Fuel flow 140kg
Total fuel: minus 50kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What sea state are the EFS rated to?

A

<2200kg - up to sea state 4
>2200kg - sea state 4 to 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Max flight crew

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Max gross mass

A

2950

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Max gross mass during hoist and external load ops

A

2910

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Max floor loading

A

600kg/m2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Tie down ring limits

A

100kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

OEI VNE

A

110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Autorotation VNE

A

90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

VNE for HI NR failure to decrease above 55kts

A

VNE minus 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Max speed for wiper use

A

80kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

VTOSS

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

VY

A

65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Vmin IFR

A

60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Max wind for starting and stopping rotor

A

50kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Max rearward wind for IBF operation

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Max angle or bank for slope operations

A

14 left/right skid
12 nu
8 nd
6 MMI inoperative

> 3 deg = A TRIM off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Min LOC interception distance

A

4nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Max LOC interception angle

A

90deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Max RoD IFR

A

1500FPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Max hoist load above 0 deg

A

249kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

VNE for hoist operations with extended boom

A

60KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Max AOB with load on hoist

A

20 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Max AoB with no load on hoist

A

30 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Max number of people on hoist

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Max external load mass

A

1300kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Max airspeed and AoB for loaded cargo hook operations

A

100KIAS
30 deg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Max airspeed floats inflating/inflated

A

80KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Max RoC with inflated floats and max altitude

A

1500FPM
5000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Weather radar safety distances

A

25ft (7.5m) pers
50ft ACFT/vehicles
100ft refuelling and large metallic structures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Departure report for class c/d CTR on first contact with approach

A

1) direction of turn and assigned heading
2) altitude passing, to nearest 100ft
3) last assigned level

80
Q

When must you be established on track departing from an aerodrome?

A

Established on track within 5nm of the aerodrome

81
Q

When can ATC authorise a visual approach

A

IFR
- within 30nm of aerodrome
- can continue with visual reference to ground or water
- visibility along flight path is 800m (for helo) or aerodrome is constantly in sight

VFR
- within 30nm of aerodrome

82
Q

Navigation requirements for VFR

A
  • visual reference can be maintained with the ground or water
  • positively fix the ACFT position at intervals not exceeding 30min
  • must notify atc if track diverges more than 1nm if operating in controlled airspace
83
Q

VFR on top of more than SCT cloud

A
  • VMC can be maintained during the entire flight including climb, cruise, descent
  • visual position fixing can be met
  • current forecasts and observations indicate conditions in the area in period of planned descent below the cloud layer will permit decent in VMC
  • position at which descent below cloud is planned to occur will ensure VMC flight to be maintained to the destination aerodrome or alternate aerodrome
84
Q

When is an aircraft considered within the vicinity of an aerodrome

A

10nm and at a height above the aerodrome that could result in a conflict

85
Q

Departure info reporting requirements
Non-surveillance

A

Departure time
Outbound TRK in degrees magnetic
Intended cruising level
Est. For the first en route reporting point

86
Q

Departure info requirements
Surveillance

A

Current position
Present level
Intended cruising level
Est for the first en route reporting point

87
Q

Alternate aerodrome planning considerations

A
  • weather
  • radio navaids and GPS requirements
  • nominated flight rules
  • RWY lighting
88
Q

Military VFR alternate requirements

A

Alternate not required for Army/Navy rotary aircraft operating by day under VFR

89
Q

VFR ACFT alternate

A
  • cloud more than SCT below alternate minima
  • vis less than alternate minimum
  • vis greater than alternate but prob30 or more of reduced vis below alternate min
  • PROB30 or forecasted thunderstorm or severe turbulence
  • wind that will exceed aircraft limits
90
Q

Helicopter VMC alternate minima requirements

A

Cloud more than SCT below 1000ft
Vis < 3000m

91
Q

If mean conditions are forecast to be suitable but there are INTER/TEMPO deteriorations below alternate criteria what must you do?

A

Hold the fuel for the forecast deterioration
IE 30 or 60min

92
Q

What buffer periods apply for FM and BCMG weather forecasts

A

Create an operational requirement - 30 min before
Remove an operational requirement - 30 min after

93
Q

When an aerodrome is receiving a TAF3 service, what requirements can you waive?

A

During the first 3 hours of validity:
- 30 min buffer period for FM and BCMG
- alternate holding fuel required by: PROB30/40 reduction in vis or PROB30/40 of TS or SEV TURB

94
Q

VFR alternate minima class c

A

Cloud base 1500ft
Vis 8km

95
Q

VFR by night alternate minima when considering navaids

A
  • destination is served by a ground based navaid and the aircraft is fitted with a system capable of using the aid
  • ADF - ACFT is fitted with GNSS receiver appropriate for the aircraft to be operated at night under VFR
  • Navy - alternate not required for NVD OPS if ACFT is fitted with a suitable navigation system with less than 1nm position error
96
Q

Alternate requirements for runway lighting

A
  • portable: responsible person required to ensure lights are AVBL
  • standby power: responsible person required to display portable lights
  • PAL: responsible person required to manually turn on lighting
  • ADF: PAL don’t need alternate if fitted with dual VHF

Responsible person
- departure: 10 min prior, 30min after
- arrival: 20 min before ETA, after taxi complete

97
Q

Can you waive alternate requirements for runway lighting

A

Yes
If you hold fuel for first light plus 10 min at the destination

98
Q

Do ADF require to hold alternates due to runway lighting if using NVD/NVG

99
Q

What conditions must you maintain whilst operating under SVFR

A

Clear or cloud
Vis 800m
Speed which allows pilot to see and avoid traffic/obstacles

100
Q

What does established mean?

A
  • within half full scale deflection of the ILS, VOR and GNSS
  • within 5 deg of required NDB bearing
  • within 2nm of the DME arc
101
Q

What obstacle clearance does MSA provide?

102
Q

IFR altimeter limits

A

Within 60ft
60-75ft can fly to first point of landing and reassess
>75ft U/S

103
Q

VFR altimeter limits

A

Within 100ft
(110ft at test sites above 3300ft)

104
Q

Circling Areas for aircraft categories

A

A - 1.68nm
B - 2.66nm
C - 4.20nm
D - 5.28nm
E - 6.94nm

105
Q

When can an aircraft change performance categories?

A

Must increase category when actual handling speeds are in excess of those determined by Vat

ADF - if able to operate at a lower category IAW speed restrictions, may decrease their category

106
Q

IFR Cruising levels?

A

East: odd 1000’s
West: even 1000’s

107
Q

When must you report loss of RAIM or GNSS integrity?

A
  • During an en route phase of flight - loss for more than 5 min
  • During a terminal phase of flight - loss of integrity
  • ATS requests the provision of GNSS derived info - RAIM or GNSS integrity is not available
  • ATC grants clearance or imposes a requirement based on GNSS derived info - RAIM/GNSS integrity not available
  • The GNSS receiver is in dead-reckoning mode, or experiences a loss of its nav function, for more than 1 minute
108
Q

For an IAP, using the forecasted area QNH you must do what to the minima?

A

Add 50ft to the minima

109
Q

For a GNSS/DME approach, you must discontinue the approach if the disparity between the VOR/NDB and the GNSS track indication is larger than ____ degrees?

A

NDB: divergence of more than 6.9 degrees
VOR: divergence of more than 5.2 degrees

110
Q

IAP speeds for CAT H aircraft?
- initial and intermediate approach
- final approach
- max speed for visual manoeuvring
- max speed for missed approach

A
  • initial and intermediate approach = 70-120kts
  • final approach = 60-90kts
  • max speed for visual manoeuvring = none
  • max speed for missed approach = 90kts
111
Q

IAP speeds for CAT A aircraft?
- initial and intermediate approach
- final approach
- max speed for visual manoeuvring
- max speed for missed approach

A
  • initial and intermediate approach = 90-150kts
  • final approach = 70-100kts
  • max speed for visual manoeuvring = 100kts
  • max speed for missed approach = 110kts
112
Q

IFR take off minima MOS

A

For a rotorcraft that is a qualifying multi-engine rotorcraft, the take off minima are:

A. Cloud ceiling not lower than the height at which the greater of Vy or Vmin IMC can be achieved

B. Visibility of 800m, or 500m if;
- the RWY or final approach and take off area has both illuminated edge lighting at intervals not exceeding 60m, and centreline lighting, that are both supported by a secondary power supply with a switchover capability 1 second or less, and
- where the aerodrome is non-controlled, or is controlled but ATC us not in operation, where radio carriage is mandatory, the take off must be conducted by day

113
Q

What must you do on radio when IFR in class g airspace and cannot contact ATS on the ground?

A
  • Broadcast in place of required reports
  • Contact with the ATS is established as soon as practicable after take-off
114
Q

OEL for IMC

A
  • RADALT
  • ELT
  • WX radar
  • Current GTN database
  • GTN 650/750
115
Q

DH setting for instrument flight

A
  • Right side = 200ft
  • Left side = 999ft
116
Q

Rate 1 turn calculation

A

(IAS/10) + 7

E.g. 120IAS:
(120/10) + 7 = 19 degrees

117
Q

Instrument Line-up checks

A
  1. HDG: confirm RWY heading on HSI
  2. ALT.A: confirm desired altitude is set
  3. TAC Radios selected off if using ground based navaids
  4. Procedural SID: once in take off position, activate departure or direct to first point in procedure, verify TERM or DPRT is displayed on GTN
  5. SID (RADAR) - note assigned heading from ATC (consider setting on HDG bug)
118
Q

Can you plan to fly IMC with freezing levels below LSALT?

119
Q

Top of descent calculation

Cruise level - 8000ft
G/S - 120kts
IAF - 3000ft

A

120 GS x 5 = 600fpm
5000ft/600fpm = approx. 8.5

7.5 x 2nm/min = 17

TOD is 17nm from IAF

120
Q

What does ENALD stand for?

A

Emergency no aid let down

121
Q

When do you have to match BARALT/RADALT over water?

A

Day = once established overwater at chosen altitude

Night = prior to descent overwater, or aircraft can be levelled at 1000ft overwater and then BARALT matched to RADALT before any further descent

122
Q

When overwater do you have to set both DH’s to the same value?

123
Q

Rates of descent for IMC letdown

A

1000fpm until 1000ft,
Then 500fpm or less

124
Q

Vmin IFR

125
Q

Min LOC interception distance

126
Q

Max LOC interception angle

A

90 degrees
Recommended 45 degrees

127
Q

Max ROD IFR

128
Q

What must an IFR aircraft consider if conducting a visual departure?

A
  • Climb to MSA/LSALT must be conducted in VMC
  • If intended cruising level is lower than route LSALT, cloud base must permit VMC at that level
  • Visually maintain obstacle clearance
129
Q

Can an IFR flight climb/descend VFR?

A

Yes
In VMC Class D or E pilot may “request climb/descend VFR”

Pilot must:
- comply with VMC criteria
- comply with IFR procedures: eg position reporting, radio Comms, cleared route
- visually maintain obstacle clearance

130
Q

When may an aircraft be instructed to track via an IAP with a ceiling level restriction?

A

Military aircraft:
- if conducting non precision approach
- conducting precision approach provided that clearance is issued in sufficient time to allow for aircraft to maintain required descent rate IAW the published procedure

131
Q

What criteria must be met for ATC authorisation for an IFR visual approach?

A
  • Within 30nm of the aerodrome
  • Can continue flight to aerodrome with continuous visual reference to the ground or water
  • Visibility along the flight path not less than 5000m (800m for helo’s) or the aerodrome is constantly in sight

By night:
- As above + if being vectored the flight has been assigned the MVA and given a HDG/TRK to intercept final or to position within circling area

132
Q

Navigation requirements for IFR flights

A
  • An approved area navigation system that meets performance requirements of the intended airspace or route
  • Use of a radio navigation system that allows for possible tracking errors of +/-9 degrees from the last positive fix, the aircraft comes within the rated coverage of the aid and can be used to fix position
  • Positive fixes must not exceed 2 hours
  • Visual reference to the ground or water by day provided weather conditions permit VMC flight and fixing IAW the above can be maintained
133
Q

Advise ATC on aircraft deviations in controlled airspace

A
  • VOR/TACAN – half scale deflection
  • NDB - +/- 5 degrees
  • DME - +/- 2NM of the required arc
  • Area navigation system – can’t comply with specified RNP value
  • Visual reference to ground or water – more than 1NM from the cleared route
134
Q

When must you notify ATC of a RAIM outage?

A
  • Enroute – RAIM loss for more than 5 minutes
  • Terminal – any RAIM loss
  • The GNSS receiver is in DR mode or experiences loss of navigation function for more than 1 min
135
Q

How long can you lose RAIM before it is considered unreliable?

A

5 minutes

Aircraft must use another means of navigation until RAIM can be re-established however the ATS unit should be advised of the restoration before returning to the use of GNSS

136
Q

When non-controlled, what must you include in a taxi report to ATS?

A
  • Aircraft type
  • POB
  • IFR
  • Location
  • Destination
  • Runway to be used
137
Q

When non-controlled, you try to contact ATS for a taxi report but cannot establish Comms.
Can you still take off?

A

Yes. FIHA ENR 1.1-37 9.1.1

The pilot of an IFR aircraft in class g airspace must attempt to contact ATS on VHF or HF when taxiing. If the pilot is unable to make contact with the air traffic service during taxi, the flight may taxi and take off provided contact is established as soon as possible after take off, and SARTIME for departure, that is a maximum of 30 minutes after commencing to taxi has been established with air traffic services.

138
Q

Departure info reporting requirements - Non-surveillance (not identified)

A
  • Departure time
  • Outbound track in degrees
  • Intended cruising level
  • Estimation for the first en route reporting point
139
Q

Departure info reporting requirements - surveillance (identified)

A
  • Current position
  • Present level
  • Intended cruising level
  • Estimation for the first en route reporting point
140
Q

ADF IFR alternate minima

A

FIHA ENR 1.1-52 10.7.2.10

Cloud - more than SCT below HAA/HAT +500ft for the approach procedure where only one aid is required. Where 2 aids are required, more than SCT below HAA/HAT +500ft for the approach procedure with the second lowest MDA/DH

Visibility - less than the visibility for the approach +2000m

By day only, for aerodromes without IAP:
LSALT of final route segment +500ft, visibility 8km

141
Q

IFR alternate minima - NAVAIDs
FIHA ENR 1.1-53 10.7.3.1

A

A) The destination is served by a radio navaid for which IAP procedure has been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with two independent and separate radio nav systems, each of which are capable of using the system
OR
B) The destination is served by 2 radio navaids for which independent and separate IAP procedures have been prescribed and the aircraft is fitted with independent and separate radio nav systems capable of using these aids

142
Q

VFR by night alternate minima when considering NAVAIDs

A
  • destination is served by a ground based navaid and the aircraft is fitted with a system capable of using the aid
  • ADF – the aircraft is fitted with a GNSS receiver appropriate for aircraft to be operated at night under VFR
  • NAVY – alternate not req. for NVD Ops if aircraft is fitted with a suitable navigation system with less than 1NM position error
143
Q

Speeds for aircraft performance categories

A
  • A – up to 90KIAS
  • B – 91KIAS to 120KIAS
  • C – 121KIAS to 140KIAS
  • D – 140KIAS to 165KIAS
  • E – 166KIAS to 210KIAS
  • H – helicopters
144
Q

Obstacle clearance for aircraft categories
FIHA ENR 1.5-3 1.6.6

A
  • A/B - 300ft
  • C/D - 400ft
  • E - 500ft
145
Q

Circling areas for aircraft categories

A

A – 1.68NM
B – 2.66NM
C – 4.20NM
D – 5.28NM
E – 6.94NM

146
Q

When can an aircraft change performance categories?

A

An aircraft must fit into and be operated IAW only one category. An aircraft;
A) may not reduce category because of reduce operating weight
B) must increase category when actual handling speeds are in excess of those for the category

ADF - provided the aircraft can operate within the limits of the handling speeds, and subject to MAO approval, ADF aircraft may reduce to a lower category

147
Q

What criteria apply to helicopter specific IAP?

A

Where helicopters are operated similarly to fixed wing they may be classified as CAT A

Procedures specific to helicopters are:
•Designated CAT H
•Promulgated on separate charts

148
Q

When may you deviate from using a minimum route altitude during IAP?

A

May not descend below LSALT or MSA until the IAF unless:
•Conducting a visual approach
•Conforming to a published DME/GNSS arrival
•Or when assigned an altitude by ATC

149
Q

How much clearance does RTCC (radar terrain clearance charts) provide from obstacles?

150
Q

Can you circle in no circling areas?

A

Yes, only in day VMC conditions

151
Q

During visual circling, when can you descend below the MDA?

A

A) maintains the aircraft within the circling area

B) maintains a visibility, along the intended flight path, not less than the minimum specified on the chart for the procedure; and

C) maintains visual contact with the landing runway environment (i.e. the runway threshold or approach lighting or other markings identifiable with the runway); and either

D) by night or day, while complying with a., b. and c. and from a position within the circling area on the downwind, base or final leg of the landing traffic pattern at an altitude not less than the MDA, can complete a continuous descent to the landing threshold using rates of descent and flight manoeuvres which are normal for the aircraft type and, during this descent, maintains an obstacle clearance along the flight path not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway; or

E) in daylight only, while complying with a,b,c maintains visual contact with obstacles along the intended flight path and an obstacle clearance not less than the minimum for the aircraft performance category until the aircraft is aligned with the landing runway

152
Q

When can you descend below the straight-in MDA?

A
  • visual reference can be maintained;
  • all elements of the meteorological minima are equal to or greater than those published for the aircraft performance category and
  • the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal flight manoeuvres that will allow touchdown to occur within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing.
153
Q

How far offset can a NPA be to a RWY centreline?

A

CAT A & B - up to 30 degrees offset
CAT C & D - up to 15 degrees offset

154
Q

When can you manoeuvre to align with the RWY centreline

A
  • within the circling area;
  • visual reference can be maintained; and
  • continuously in sight of ground or water
155
Q

What does ‘visual reference’ refer to?

A

The runway threshold, or approach lights or other markings identifiable with the landing runway clearly visible to the pilot and a flight visibility not less than that specified for the procedure

156
Q

When must you execute a missed approach?

A

A) during the final segment of an instrument approach, the aircraft is not maintained within the applicable navigation tolerance for the aid in use; or

B) during an instrument approach and below MSA (as specified on the IAL chart) the performance of the radio aid becomes suspect, or the radio aid fails; or

C) visual reference is not established at or before reaching the MAPT or DA/RA Height from which the missed approach procedure commences; or

D) landing cannot be effected from a runway approach, unless a circling approach can be conducted in weather conditions equal to or better than those specified for circling;

E) visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach.

157
Q

What minimum obstacle clearance is provided on a missed approach procedure?

A

100ft

2.5% gradient (152ft/nm)
4.2% gradient (255ft/nm) (helicopter IAP only)

158
Q

The MAPT in a procedure may be:

A
  • the point of intersection of an electronic glide path with the applicable DA; or
  • a navigation facility; or
  • a fix; or
  • a specified distance from the Final Approach Fix (FAF).
159
Q

What must you do if executing a MAPT from within the circling area?

A

Track for the MAPT and follow the MAP

This involves an initial climbing turn towards the landing RWY and overhead the aerodrome, establishing the aircraft at the MAPT and climbing along the published MAP

160
Q

MAP requirements for GNSS procedures:

A
  • If a loss of RAIM or RAIM warning is indicated at any time after passing the Initial Approach Fix,
  • Provided the RAIM warning ceases when the missed approach is selected on the GNSS equipment, it may be used for missed approach guidance.
  • Should the RAIM warning remain when the missed approach is selected, or should there be any doubt about the accuracy of the GNSS, then an alternative means of guidance or dead reckoning must be used to fly the missed approach
161
Q

When may you discontinue an IAP by day?

A

By Day (ADF - or by night using NVD/NVG).
Within 30NM of that aerodrome at an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established;

1) clear of cloud;

2) in sight of ground or water;

3) with a flight visibility not less than 5,000M or, in the case of a helicopter, is able to proceed under helicopter VMC, or the aerodrome is in sight; and

4) subsequently can maintain (1), (2) and (3) at an altitude not less than:
I.if in controlled airspace – 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA unless clearance is received from ATC to depart and re-enter controlled airspace during the descent; and
II. The minimum height prescribed by MAO OIP as relevant to the location of the aircraft

162
Q

When may you discontinue an IAP by night?

A

At an altitude not below the LSALT/MSA for the route segment, the appropriate step of the DME or GNSS Arrival Procedure, or the MDA for the procedure being flown, the aircraft is established:
1) clear of cloud;
2) in sight of ground or water;
3) with a flight visibility not less than 5,000M; and

4) subsequently can maintain (1), (2) and (3) at an altitude not less than:
i in controlled airspace – 500FT above the lower limit of the CTA unless a clearance is received from ATC to depart and re-enter controlled airspace during descent; and
ii one of the following:
- route segment LSALT/MDA
- the appropriate step of the DME/GNSS arrival procedure
- if being vectored - the last assigned altitude

163
Q

Visibility amendment reqired for a partial RWY lighting failure?

A

Multiply by factor of 1.5

Only in conditions less than VMC

164
Q

Standard descent gradients

A

Initial:
Normal - 4%
Max - 8%

Intermediate:
Normal - Level
Max - 5%

Final (non precision):
Normal - 5.2%
Max - 6.5%

Final (precision):
Normal - 3 degrees
Max - N/A

165
Q

When can you commence an IAP without entering the hold?

A
  • In controlled airspace, ATC has cleared the aircraft for the approach;
  • In any airspace, for procedures using radio navaids:
    1) the reversal procedure entry requirements are satisfied; or
    2) the DME arc entry requirements are satisfied; or
    3) the en route track to the procedure’s commencement fix or facility is within 30° either side of the first track of the procedure.
  • For procedures using GNSS:
    1) in any airspace, the aircraft is tracking to an initial approach waypoint from within the capture region for that waypoint; or
    2) in controlled airspace, the aircraft is being vectored to intercept the initial approach segment or is tracking direct to the intermediate fix.
    Note: “direct to” clearances may be requested to the intermediate fix (IF) provided that the resultant track change at the IF does not exceed 45 degrees
166
Q

Reversal procedures - types and geometry

A

Draw them up

FIHA ENR 1.5-15 2.8.2

167
Q

Direct entry limitation for entering a reversal procedure?

A

Within +/- 30 degrees of the outbound track

168
Q

Limitations in holding patterns?
Outbound timing commencement

A
  • Outbound timing begins abeam the fix or on attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later.
  • Time/Distance outbound. The outbound leg must be no longer than:
    1) up to and including FL140 - 1MIN or the time or distance limit specified on the chart;
  • Turns. All turns in nil wind should be at a bank angle of 25° or Rate One, whichever requires the lesser bank.
169
Q

Rated coverage of VORs below 5000ft and 5000-10 000ft?

A

Below 5000ft - 60nm
5000ft-10000ft - 90nm

170
Q

Rated coverage or LOC at 2000ft within 10 deg of course line?

171
Q

Rated coverage of LOC above and below 5000ft?

A

Below 5000ft - 30nm
Above 5000ft - 50nm

172
Q

You receive the QNH from the ATIS, what can you do to the MDA/DA on the plate?

A

Reduce by 100ft for 15mins

173
Q

NPID options

A
  • Splay departure
  • Circling departure
  • Visual climb to conduct missed approach for departure
  • Visual departure
174
Q

When IF, when can you land at an aerodrome without an IAP?

A

Where there is no IAP, an approach can be made;
- by day
- vis > 8km
- cloud above final route segment + 500ft

175
Q

NDB errors

A

Mountain effect - reflection of mountains
Interference - other NDBs nearby on similar frequency
Night effect - interference from sky waves
Thunderstorm interference - cumulonimbus clouds generate a lot of radio energy that can cause the ADF to fluctuate towards it
Quadrantal error - reflections off the aircraft before reaching the receiver based on the angle
Coastal effects - coastal refraction; the different conductivities of land and water cause the signal to bend

176
Q

What area does RNP2 nav consider?

A

5nm surrounding and including the departure point, destination, and left/right of the nominal track

177
Q

IFR Standard Take-off Minima SI(NA)?

A
  1. Clear of cloud until achieving the greater of Vy, Vtoss, Vmin IFR
  2. RVR/Visability;
    A. 550m with runway edge light at not more than 60m intervals and either centreline lighting or markings
    B. 800m
178
Q

What emergency training is not permitted IMC?

A
  • UA
  • Emergency landing (practice forced landing)
  • Flight control malfunctions
  • Composite mode
  • Partial panel (sole reference to standby AI)
179
Q

‘Appropriate period of time’ - sector 2 entry

A

Flown outbound for the appropriate period of time from the holding fix, where timing is specified, up to a maximum of 1min 30sec,
Or if earlier;
The appropriate limiting DME distance

180
Q

What is the standard holding pattern direction?

A

Right turns

181
Q

How much hPa can area QNH be from accurate QNH?

182
Q

What is an accurate QNH, and what is it used for?

A

Obtained from ATS, ATIS, AWIS
Used for assessing altimeter tolerances

183
Q

What is an actual QNH?

A

QNH received from ATC, ATIS, AWIS or BoM
Valid for 15mins

184
Q

What counts as a positive fix IFR?

A
  • Passage of aircraft over an NDB, VOR, TACAN, marker beacon or DME site
  • Intersection of 2 or more position lines which intersect at angles not less than 45 degrees; obtained from a combination of NDBs, VORs, TACANs, localisers within their rated coverages
  • For only NDBs, must be within 30nm
185
Q

What can be waived during first 3hrs of TAF3?

A
  1. 30min buffers for FM and BCMG periods (holding fuel for deteriorations)
  2. Alternate/holding fuel required for PROB30 or PROB40 for;
    A. Reduction in vis due fog, mist, dust
    B. TS or SEV TURB
186
Q

RNP approach tolerances?

A

1nm at initial & intermediate
0.3nm in final approach
1nm in missed approach

187
Q

How far from an aerodrome can you use its QNH?

188
Q

SI(NA) Normal, Limited & Poor Conditions

A

Normal: 1000ft cloud base and 3km vis

Limited: Clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water, 800m vis, speed sufficient to avoid
- weather must allow visual recovery (‘limited conditions’) at the approach minima for a published instrument approach

Poor: Less than limited conditions

189
Q

Minimum heights overwater?

A

Not below 50ft by day.

Not below 400ft in IMC (both day & night) or VMC night unaided. Unless:

A) conducting IMC recovery
B) reference to SGSI

190
Q

Coast-out point VMC?

A

On the coastline

191
Q

Coast out point IMC?

A
  • 2nm off the coast by GPS
  • 1nm off the coast with specified RADAR (must be painted)
192
Q

Minimum STODA (Supplementary Take off Distance Available)?

193
Q

Minimum height at end of runway for NPID?

194
Q

RA 1

A

Can flight plan through the RA, and expect a clearance from ATC

195
Q

RA 2

A

Must not plan to fly through, unless on a route specified in ERSA OR under agreement from the controlling authority.

Clearance from ATC is not assured.

196
Q

RA 3

A

Do not plan to fly through, and clearance will not be available.

197
Q

Can you fly through danger area?

A

Approval for flight within an active danger area outside of controlled airspace is not required.

It is the pilots responsibility to be aware of the dangerous activity and take appropriate precautions.

A (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions