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A > Vis Nav Assignment + FIHA/GPA > Flashcards

Vis Nav Assignment + FIHA/GPA Flashcards

1
Q

Min Height over towns

A

Not less than 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 300m radius (helicopter)

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2
Q

Min height over obstacles or water

A

500ft

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3
Q

Departing from a CTAF runway with a standard left hand circuit,
When can you turn right for your departure track?

A

Well outside the circuit area and no traffic conflict exists.
Normally 3nm from departure of runway but may be less

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4
Q

Which flights by military acft require a flight plan?

A
  • in close proximity or in controlled airspace (except those remaining with military airspace)
  • outside the confines of local training areas
  • all army flights, except those remaining in local training area or an exercise area and alternative flight following arrangements have been made
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5
Q

Visual fix requirements?

A
  • must navigate by visual reference to ground or water
  • must positively fix the aircraft’s position to features shown on a topographical chart at intervals not less than 30 mins
  • must notify ATC if track diverges by more than 1NM
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6
Q

Recommended radio calls at a non-controlled Aerodrome for VFR aircraft?

A
  • intends to take off
  • inbound to an Aerodrome (10NM)
  • intends to fly in vicinity of, but not land
  • intends to enter a runway
  • ready to join the circuit
  • intends to make a straight-in approach (not less then 3NM away)
  • intends to join on base leg
  • aircraft is well clear of active runway
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7
Q

CTAF Broadcast format

A

(Location) traffic
(Aircraft type)
(Call sign)
(Position/level/intention)
(Location)

Nowra traffic, military aircraft, Taipan 41, overhead Nowra university, intending to land runway 21 Nowra Aerodrome, estimating 45, Nowra

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8
Q

Dimensions of a broadcast area?

A
  • SFC to 5000ft AMSL
  • SFC to base of CTA if 8500ft or less
  • SFC to nominated level
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9
Q

When must a pilot request airways clearance entry to a controlled airspace?

A

Must obtain an ATC clearance before operating in controlled airspace. In Class E, ATC clearance is not required for IFR flights operating in accordance with the IFR pickup procedure and VFR flights

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10
Q

“Taipan 42 track direct to the field, not above 3500, QNH 1013, expect runway 21, report right base”

A

Track direct to the field, not above 3500, 1013, wilco, Taipan 42

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11
Q

You are lining up, what does a flashing red light mean?

A

Taxi clear of landing area in use

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12
Q

Can you fly above cloud while transiting VFR?

A

VFR on top of more than SCAT is available providing;
- VMC can be maintained the entire flight
- visual position fix requirements can be met
- prior to VFR on top, aircraft captain must ensure forecasts indicate the planned descent below cloud can be done VMC
- the position which descent below cloud is planned is such to enable the continuation of flight to destination/alternate is VMC

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13
Q

What does a white cross next to a wind sock mean?

A

An area marked by a cross with the limit delineated by markers is unfit for use by aircraft

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14
Q

When making a helicopter departure from a CTAF, what requirements must you comply with?

A
  • T/O from any area assessed as suitable HLS
  • if T/O is not from airstrip, T/O path outside flight strip
  • position to appropriate side of runway
  • turn onto departure track when considered safe or remain at 500ft until well clear of circuit
  • broadcast intentions
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15
Q

Circuit heights at an OCTA airfield?

A

High performance = 1500ft AGL
Medium performance = 1000ft AGL
Low performance = 500ft AGL

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16
Q

What is CAVOK?

A

Vis > 10km
No cloud below 5000ft (no cloud greater than SCAT)
No CU/CB at any height

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17
Q

You are maintaining 5500 and are cleared ton track to Nowra at 3500, do you need to report leaving 5500?

A

Yes
Must report when the aircraft has left a level at which level flight has been conducted in the course of climb, cruise or descent

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18
Q

When does a 723 SQN aircraft life raft not need to be carried?

A
  • over enclosed waters
  • overwater within 5nm of the coastline
  • overwater within 5-10nm of coastline and above VTOSS
  • overwater where FST is greater than RT
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19
Q

When must you notify ATC if you are off track?

A

In CTA and greater than 1NM off track

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20
Q

When can ATC authorise you to make a visual approach?

A

Within 30NM of the aerodrome

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21
Q

What are the tracking requirements during a visual approach by day and night?

A

By day: within 5nm of the aerodrome
By night: within 3nm of the aerodrome reference point and aerodrome in sight

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22
Q

What is your minimum height during a visual approach by day and night?

A

By day: 500ft LL CTA and prescribed MAO
By night: 500ft LL CTA and route segment LSALT/MSA, appropriate step of DME/GNSS or last assigned altitude

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23
Q

What area does a TAF cover?

A

5nm of the ARP

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24
Q

Class C VMC below 10000ft

A

5km vis
1000ft vertical separation cloud
1500m lateral separation cloud

25
Q

Class D VMC below 10000ft

A

5km vis
500ft below cloud
1000ft above cloud
600m lateral from cloud

26
Q

SVFR criteria

A
  • Military CTR/CTA/RA when VMC does not exist, SVFR on pilot request
  • Clear of cloud
  • 800m vis
  • speed that allows pilot to see and avoid
  • by day/NVIS
  • if within 10nm of AD w/ IAP, 500ft vertical separation from aircraft
27
Q

Helicopter VMC in Class G

A

1000ft AGL or 3000ft AMSL (whichever is higher):
- 5km vis
- clear of cloud
- in sight of ground/water

Below 700ft over land/water with track guidance:
- 800m vis
- clear of cloud

Below 700ft over land/water without track guidance:
- 5km vis
- 600m lateral
- 500ft vertical

CAVEATS:
- by day/NVIS
- speed that allows pilot to see and avoid
- if <10nm from aerodrome with IAP, 500ft separation from aircraft

28
Q

When must you be established on your departure track?

A

Unless tracking via SID or ATC instruction,
Aircraft must remain within 5nm of the departure aerodrome to establish flight on the departure track as soon as practicable after take off

29
Q

What is the lowest height that can be flown on a low level navigation sortie outside the Nowra training area?

A

If an area is unsurveyed - 500ft AO
Requirements; mission planning, carry appropriate maps, observe authorised min height, cognisant of aircraft capability

30
Q

What pubs should be carried during flight?

A

TERMA
DAPs
ERSA
FIHA
GPA
VTC, VNC, TAC & ERC LOW

31
Q

Does EFB meet requirements for carrying pubs in flight?

A

Yes, if at least 2 are up to date and charged.
If not, hard copies must be carried

32
Q

What is a CTA?

A

Control Area
Controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth
Normally operate continuously

33
Q

What is a CTR?

A

Control Zone
Controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit
- surround controlled aerodromes
- active during control tower hours of operation

34
Q

In class g, what transponder code should military aircraft squawk?

A

6000

35
Q

When can SVFR be requested when operating in Nowra?

A

All locally based helicopters may be cleared SVFR for operations in NWA training areas

“By day when VMC does not exist, the ATC unit responsible for the CTA/CTR may issue, at pilot request, and providing an IFR flight will not be unduly delayed, a special VFR clearance for flight;
- in the CTR
- in a CTA next to the CTR for the purpose of entering or leaving the CTR”

36
Q

Continuous SVFR ops in R421 can only be due …

A

Cloud, not visibility

37
Q

Alternate minima

A

A) Day/night; SCAT below 1500ft, vis 8km
B) Helicopter VMC; SCAT below 1000ft, vis 3km

38
Q

Mean conditions below alternate minima but forecasted to improve
What time period is holding fuel is needed?

A

Holding fuel for cessation of weather + 30min

39
Q

Alternate operational requirement

A

Operational requirements for providing an alternate or holding fuel WEF 30min pre and post forecasted weather

40
Q

TAF3 service - alternate planning

A

During the first 3hrs of validity, the following does not apply:
Operational requirement 30min prior to forecasted weather to provide sufficient holding fuel or provide an alternate

41
Q

Low level flight,
Terrain
Contour
NOE

A

Below 500ft AO
200ft A0
Constant speed at varying altitudes to follow contours
Varying speeds and altitudes close to terrain

42
Q

Military terrain clearance

A
  • state aircraft may be cleared to operate below LSALT in IMC and VMC at night
  • aircraft captain accepts responsibility for terrain clearance
  • must be initiated by the pilot
  1. IMC/Night unaided = “request [altitude], military terrain clearance”
  2. NVD/NVG = “request [altitude], NVD/NVG”
43
Q

Planning to operate below LSALT at night

A

Some flights NVIS/at night may be authorised to operate below LSALT

Pilots must notify ATC:
“____ NVIS, own terrain clearance”

44
Q

VFR altimeter limits

A

Within 100ft of site elevation (110ft for test sites above 3300ft)

An aircraft fitted with two VFR altimeters can continue flight with one that is serviceable

45
Q

VFR approaches to non-controlled aerodromes

A

Helicopter Arrival
- By day/VMC
- Helicopters may join the CIRA at 500ft AGL from any direction subject to normal restrictions over populous areas
- Broadcast intentions as required
- Must avoid other circuit traffic and land at a location assessed as a suitable HLS

A) intended landing point is located outside the flight strip of the runway in use
B) final approach is clear of the extended centreline runway in use
C) post-landing position of the helicopter is by air transit/taxi

46
Q

VFR Approaches to Controlled Aerodrome

A
  1. Straight in approach
    - not recommended
    - only when it does not disrupt/conflict with the flow of circuit traffic
    - ADF - the pilot must determine the wind direction and speed of the runway in use before conducting a straight in approach
    - ADF - aircraft must be established on final not less than 3nm from the landing runways threshold
  2. Joining base
    - not recommended
    - determine wind direction + speed, runway in use
    - give way to other circuit traffic
    - join at the standard height
    - broadcast intentions
47
Q

In class g, you intercept comms from another aircraft in potential conflict to yourself

A

Acknowledge by transmitting;
A) callsign
B) aircraft type
C) position, level, intentions

126.7 or broadcast area CTAF

48
Q

Class g standard broadcast format

A
  1. {Location} traffic
  2. Aircraft type
  3. Callsign
  4. Position, level, intentions
  5. {Location}
49
Q

On first contact with ATS at a non-controlled aerodromes, ADF aircraft must …

A

Provide POB

50
Q

Separation minima - take off

A

Preceding aircraft using the same runway has:
A) crossed upwind end of runway
B) commenced a turn
C) at least 1800m ahead on runway

Preceding aircraft landing has taxied clear of the runway

Preceding aircraft landing on another runway has crossed or stopped short of your runway

51
Q

Separation minima - landing

A

Preceding aircraft using the same runway is airborne and;
A) has commenced a turn
B) is at a sufficient distance for landing aircraft to stop

Preceding aircraft using the same runway has taxied clear of the runway

Preceding aircraft using another runway has crossed or stopped short of your runway

52
Q

Minimum height - night VFR

A

Must not fly VFR at night below one of the following:
A) published LSALT for the route/route segment
B) MSA
C) calculated LSALT for the route
D) 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 10nm

Flying below this is permitted when:
A) taking off/landing
B) within 3nm of aerodrome
C) flying IAW ATC instruction

53
Q

Your navigation is inaccurate or navaid fails, what area must you consider for LSALT

A

Circle centred on the DR position with a radius of 5nm
+
20% of the air distance flown since last positive fix

54
Q

How much clearance do 10 and 25nm safe’s provide?

A

1000ft

55
Q

Circling areas for aircraft categories

A

A - 1.68nm
B - 2.66nm
C - 4.20nm
D - 5.28nm
E - 6.94nm

We use cat B

56
Q

When can an aircraft change performance categories

A

Must increase category when actual handling speeds are in excess of those determined by Vat

ADF - if able to operate at a lower category IAW speed restrictions, may decrease their category

57
Q

Take off minima VFR

A

3km vis
1000ft cloud base

58
Q

How far can an aerodrome QNH be used along a route?

A

100nm

A (16 decks)

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