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SBI172 > Weeks 5, 6, & 7 - Kidney and fluid balance > Flashcards

Weeks 5, 6, & 7 - Kidney and fluid balance Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What shape are the kidneys?
    A) Square
    B) Round
    C) Bean-shaped
    D) Flat
A

C) Bean-shaped

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2
Q
  1. Where are the kidneys located?
    A) In the abdominal cavity
    B) Retroperitoneal
    C) In the thoracic cavity
    D) In the pelvic cavity
A

B) Retroperitoneal

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3
Q
  1. How many nephrons are in each kidney?
    A) 500,000
    B) 1 million
    C) 2 million
    D) 5 million
A

B) 1 million

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4
Q
  1. Which kidney sits higher in the body?
    A) Right kidney
    B) Left kidney
    C) Both are at the same height
    D) Neither
A

B) Left kidney

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5
Q
  1. What is the main function of the ureters?
    A) Store urine
    B) Filter blood
    C) Carry urine to the bladder
    D) Excrete urine
A

C) Carry urine to the bladder

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6
Q
  1. What is the capacity of the bladder?
    A) 1 cup
    B) 2 cups
    C) 3 cups
    D) 4 cups
A

A) 1 cup

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7
Q
  1. How long is the female urethra?
    A) 1 inch
    B) 1.5 inches
    C) 2 inches
    D) 3 inches
A

B) 1.5 inches

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8
Q
  1. What is the role of the renal fascia?
    A) Protects kidney from infection
    B) Anchors the kidney to surrounding structures
    C) Cushions the kidney
    D) Filters blood
A

B) Anchors the kidney to surrounding structures

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9
Q
  1. What is the main purpose of the renal corpuscle?
    A) Reabsorb nutrients
    B) Filter blood plasma
    C) Collect urine
    D) Regulate blood pressure
A

B) Filter blood plasma

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10
Q
  1. What do the glomeruli do?
    A) Transport urine
    B) Store urine
    C) Filter blood
    D) Produce hormones
A

C) Filter blood

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11
Q
  1. What is the primary function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?
    A) Water reabsorption
    B) Sodium secretion
    C) Nutrient reabsorption
    D) Filtration
A

C) Nutrient reabsorption

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12
Q
  1. What is reabsorbed in the descending loop of Henle?
    A) Sodium
    B) Water
    C) Urea
    D) Glucose
A

B) Water

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13
Q
  1. What type of cells line the collecting duct?
    A) Squamous cells
    B) Principal and intercalated cells
    C) Cuboidal cells
    D) Columnar cells
A

B) Principal and intercalated cells

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14
Q
  1. What percentage of total blood volume do the kidneys hold?
    A) 10%
    B) 20%
    C) 30%
    D) 50%
A

B) 20%

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15
Q
  1. What does GFR stand for?
    A) Glomerular filtration rate
    B) Glomerular function rate
    C) Glomerular flow rate
    D) Glomerular filtration range
A

A) Glomerular filtration rate

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16
Q
  1. How much filtrate is produced by the kidneys daily?
    A) 50L
    B) 120L
    C) 180L
    D) 240L
A

C) 180L

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17
Q
  1. What do macula densa cells monitor?
    A) Blood pressure
    B) NaCl content
    C) Filtrate volume
    D) Hormone levels
A

B) NaCl content

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18
Q
  1. Which cells in the juxtaglomerular apparatus gauge pressure?
    A) Macula densa
    B) Granular cells
    C) Extraglomerular mesangial cells
    D) Podocytes
A

B) Granular cells

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19
Q
  1. What is the primary function of tubular secretion?
    A) Reabsorb nutrients
    B) Excrete waste
    C) Filter blood
    D) Regulate pH
A

B) Excrete waste

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20
Q
  1. What is the main purpose of the kidneys according to “A WET BED”?
    A) Blood sugar regulation
    B) Hormone production
    C) Waste removal
    D) Temperature control
A

C) Waste removal

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21
Q
  1. Which process occurs in the renal corpuscle?
    A) Tubular secretion
    B) Glomerular filtration
    C) Tubular reabsorption
    D) Water balance
A

B) Glomerular filtration

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22
Q
  1. What is the primary component of urine?
    A) Urea
    B) Creatinine
    C) Water
    D) Glucose
A

C) Water

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23
Q
  1. What type of nephron accounts for 85% of nephrons?
    A) Juxtamedullary nephrons
    B) Cortical nephrons
    C) Medullary nephrons
    D) Subcortical nephrons
A

B) Cortical nephrons

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24
Q
  1. What is the structure surrounding the glomerulus called?
    A) Renal capsule
    B) Bowman’s capsule
    C) Glomerular membrane
    D) Renal tubule
A

B) Bowman’s capsule

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25
Q
  1. What does the renal pelvis do?
    A) Filters blood
    B) Collects urine
    C) Reabsorbs nutrients
    D) Regulates blood pressure
A

B) Collects urine

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26
Q
  1. What is the net filtration pressure (NFP) formula?
    A) Outward pressure + Inward pressure
    B) Outward pressure - Inward pressure
    C) Total pressure + Filtration pressure
    D) Total pressure - Outward pressure
A

B) Outward pressure - Inward pressure

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27
Q
  1. What does the hydrostatic pressure in the glomerulus promote?
    A) Reabsorption
    B) Filtration
    C) Secretion
    D) Blood flow
A

B) Filtration

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28
Q
  1. What pressure is considered negligible in the renal corpuscle?
    A) Hydrostatic pressure
    B) Osmotic pressure
    C) Oncotic pressure
    D) Blood pressure
A

B) Osmotic pressure

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29
Q
  1. Which structure creates a salt concentration gradient in the medulla?
    A) Proximal convoluted tubule
    B) Nephron loop
    C) Collecting duct
    D) Glomerulus
A

B) Nephron loop

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30
Q
  1. What is the role of the renal cortex?
    A) Urine concentration
    B) Blood filtration
    C) Hormone production
    D) Nutrient reabsorption
A

B) Blood filtration

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31
Q
  1. Which layer of the kidney provides cushioning?
    A) Renal fascia
    B) Perirenal adipose capsule
    C) Renal capsule
    D) Renal cortex
A

B) Perirenal adipose capsule

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32
Q
  1. Which region of the nephron primarily reabsorbs water and solutes?
    A) Distal convoluted tubule
    B) Proximal convoluted tubule
    C) Collecting duct
    D) Loop of Henle
A

B) Proximal convoluted tubule

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33
Q
  1. What does tubular reabsorption primarily reclaim?
    A) Water
    B) Blood cells
    C) Toxins
    D) Urea
A

A) Water

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34
Q
  1. What type of nephron is important for producing concentrated urine?
    A) Cortical nephron
    B) Juxtamedullary nephron
    C) Subcortical nephron
    D) Medullary nephron
A

B) Juxtamedullary nephron

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35
Q
  1. Which type of cells are involved in acid-base balance in the collecting duct?
    A) Principal cells
    B) Intercalated cells
    C) Epithelial cells
    D) Squamous cells
A

B) Intercalated cells

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36
Q
  1. How do the kidneys regulate blood volume?
    A) By secreting hormones
    B) By adjusting urine output
    C) By filtering blood
    D) By absorbing nutrients
A

B) By adjusting urine output

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37
Q
  1. What is the consequence of increased GFR?
    A) Decreased urine output
    B) Increased urine output
    C) No change in urine output
    D) Variable urine output
A

B) Increased urine output

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38
Q
  1. What do renal columns contain?
    A) Blood vessels
    B) Nephrons
    C) Renal pyramids
    D) Ureters
A

A) Blood vessels

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39
Q
  1. What is the primary hormone regulating water balance in the kidneys?
    A) Aldosterone
    B) ADH
    C) Renin
    D) EPO
A

B) ADH

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40
Q
  1. Which process is crucial for urine formation?
    A) Filtration
    B) Absorption
    C) Secretion
    D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

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41
Q
  1. What is the primary mechanism for sodium reabsorption in the renal tubules?
    A) Passive diffusion
    B) Active transport
    C) Secondary active transport
    D) Osmosis
A

B) Active transport

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42
Q
  1. Which process utilizes the sodium gradient to reabsorb other solutes?
    A) Passive diffusion
    B) Active transport
    C) Secondary active transport
    D) Filtration
A

C) Secondary active transport

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43
Q
  1. What is the role of aquaporins in the kidney?
    A) Secretion of ions
    B) Active transport of sodium
    C) Water reabsorption
    D) Filtration of blood
A

C) Water reabsorption

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44
Q
  1. What percentage of water is reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)?
    A) 15%
    B) 50%
    C) 65%
    D) 90%
A

C) 65%

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45
Q
  1. What hormone primarily regulates facultative water reabsorption in the collecting duct?
    A) Aldosterone
    B) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
    C) Angiotensin II
    D) Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
A

B) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

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46
Q
  1. What happens to GFR (glomerular filtration rate) when angiotensin II is present?
    A) Increases
    B) Decreases
    C) No effect
    D) Fluctuates
A

B) Decreases

47
Q
  1. What is the primary site of obligatory water reabsorption?
    A) Distal convoluted tubule
    B) Collecting duct
    C) Proximal convoluted tubule
    D) Ascending limb of the loop of Henle
A

C) Proximal convoluted tubule

48
Q
  1. Which cells are responsible for reabsorbing calcium in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT)?
    A) Principal cells
    B) Intercalated cells
    C) Epithelial cells
    D) None of the above
A

D) None of the above

49
Q
  1. What does the transport maximum (Tm) refer to?
    A) The maximum blood pressure in the glomeruli
    B) The maximum amount of a substance a transporter can move across the membrane
    C) The maximum volume of urine produced
    D) The maximum concentration of urine
A

B) The maximum amount of a substance a transporter can move across the membrane

50
Q
  1. Which hormone inhibits sodium and water reabsorption in the collecting duct?
    A) Aldosterone
    B) Angiotensin II
    C) Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)
    D) Renin
A

C) Atrial Natriuretic Peptide (ANP)

51
Q
  1. What is the primary component of urine?
    A) Uric acid
    B) Creatinine
    C) Water
    D) Urea
A

C) Water

52
Q
  1. What is the average volume of urine produced daily?
    A) 500 mL
    B) 1–2 litres
    C) 3–4 litres
    D) 10 litres
A

B) 1–2 litres

53
Q
  1. What causes the yellow colour of urine?
    A) Urobilin
    B) Bile pigments
    C) Proteins
    D) Urea
A

A) Urobilin

54
Q
  1. What layer of the bladder allows for expansion?
    A) Mucosa
    B) Adventitia
    C) Detrusor muscle
    D) Muscularis
A

A) Mucosa

55
Q
  1. How is urine transported from the kidneys to the bladder?
    A) Filtration
    B) Osmosis
    C) Peristalsis
    D) Diffusion
A

C) Peristalsis

56
Q
  1. What is the pH range of urine?
    A) 2.0 to 4.0
    B) 4.6 to 8.0
    C) 6.0 to 8.0
    D) 5.0 to 7.5
A

B) 4.6 to 8.0

57
Q
  1. Which factor increases the specific gravity of urine?
    A) Increased water content
    B) High solute concentration
    C) Low protein levels
    D) Dehydration
A

B) High solute concentration

58
Q
  1. What is the role of the detrusor muscle in urination?
    A) Controls blood flow
    B) Allows for bladder expansion
    C) Contracts to expel urine
    D) Reabsorbs nutrients
A

C) Contracts to expel urine

59
Q
  1. What triggers the micturition reflex?
    A) Contraction of the detrusor muscle
    B) Stretching of the bladder
    C) Inhibition of the sympathetic nervous system
    D) A and B
A

D) A and B

60
Q
  1. What type of diuretic inhibits sodium-potassium-chloride cotransporter?
    A) Thiazide diuretics
    B) Loop diuretics
    C) Potassium-sparing diuretics
    D) Osmotic diuretics
A

B) Loop diuretics

61
Q
  1. Which hormone is released in response to low blood volume?
    A) ADH
    B) Aldosterone
    C) Renin
    D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

62
Q
  1. What effect does ADH have on urine concentration?
    A) Dilutes urine
    B) Concentrates urine
    C) No effect
    D) Fluctuates urine concentration
A

B) Concentrates urine

63
Q
  1. What does aldosterone primarily regulate?
    A) Calcium reabsorption
    B) Sodium reabsorption
    C) Water reabsorption
    D) Potassium secretion
A

B) Sodium reabsorption

64
Q
  1. Which hormone increases thirst and regulates overall body water content?
    A) ANP
    B) ADH
    C) Renin
    D) EPO
A

B) ADH

65
Q
  1. What is the role of the renal pelvis?
    A) Site of urine production
    B) Storage of urine
    C) Collects urine from the renal calyces
    D) Filtration of blood
A

C) Collects urine from the renal calyces

66
Q
  1. What type of substance would likely cause cloudy urine?
    A) Increased urea
    B) Presence of bacteria
    C) High water content
    D) Increased creatinine
A

B) Presence of bacteria

67
Q
  1. What happens to urine volume with the intake of caffeine?
    A) Increases
    B) Decreases
    C) No change
    D) Fluctuates
A

A) Increases

68
Q
  1. What could indicate the presence of diabetes mellitus through urinalysis?
    A) Presence of bacteria
    B) Glucose in urine
    C) High protein levels
    D) Abnormal colour
A

B) Glucose in urine

69
Q
  1. What condition might cause elevated protein levels in urine?
    A) Dehydration
    B) Urinary tract infection
    C) Kidney disease
    D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

70
Q
  1. What does specific gravity measure in urine?
    A) Volume of urine
    B) Concentration of solutes
    C) pH level
    D) Odour
A

B) Concentration of solutes

71
Q
  1. When does the development of the urinary system begin in the embryo?
    A) 2nd week
    B) 4th week
    C) 8th week
    D) 10th week
A

B) 4th week

72
Q
  1. Which embryonic structure gives rise to the kidneys?
    A) Endoderm
    B) Mesoderm
    C) Ectoderm
    D) Neural crest
A

B) Mesoderm

73
Q
  1. What is the term for the first urine produced by the fetus?
    A) Oligohydramnios
    B) Meconium
    C) Amniotic fluid
    D) Fetal urine
A

B) Meconium

74
Q
  1. At what age does bladder control typically develop in children?
    A) 12 months
    B) 2 years
    C) 4 years
    D) 6 years
A

B) 2 years

75
Q
  1. What is the primary cause of nocturnal enuresis (bedwetting) in children?
    A) Psychological factors
    B) Hormonal changes
    C) Bladder capacity
    D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

76
Q
  1. Which condition is characterized by a malformation of the urinary tract in children?
    A) Hypospadias
    B) Cryptorchidism
    C) Nephrotic syndrome
    D) Wilms’ tumour
A

A) Hypospadias

77
Q
  1. At what stage does the nephron develop fully?
    A) Prenatal
    B) Infancy
    C) Childhood
    D) Adolescence
A

A) Prenatal

78
Q
  1. What is the most common congenital kidney disorder?
    A) Polycystic kidney disease
    B) Horseshoe kidney
    C) Renal agenesis
    D) Wilms’ tumour
A

A) Polycystic kidney disease

79
Q
  1. What anatomical change occurs to the bladder as a child grows?
    A) Increased capacity
    B) Decreased muscle tone
    C) Increased vascularity
    D) Decreased elasticity
A

A) Increased capacity

80
Q
  1. What is the significance of urine in fetal development?
    A) Waste removal
    B) Amniotic fluid production
    C) Development of kidneys
    D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

81
Q
  1. What is the most common symptom of urinary tract infection (UTI)?
    A) Back pain
    B) Hematuria
    C) Frequent urination
    D) Nausea
A

C) Frequent urination

82
Q
  1. Which condition is associated with an increased risk of kidney stones?
    A) Diabetes
    B) Hypertension
    C) Dehydration
    D) Osteoporosis
A

C) Dehydration

83
Q
  1. What is the medical term for blood in the urine?
    A) Anuria
    B) Hematuria
    C) Oliguria
    D) Polyuria
A

B) Hematuria

84
Q
  1. What is the typical first-line treatment for uncomplicated UTIs?
    A) Antibiotics
    B) Increased fluid intake
    C) Antipyretics
    D) Surgery
A

A) Antibiotics

85
Q
  1. What does the term oliguria refer to?
    A) Increased urine output
    B) Decreased urine output
    C) Normal urine output
    D) No urine output
A

B) Decreased urine output

86
Q
  1. Which diagnostic test is primarily used to evaluate kidney function?
    A) Ultrasound
    B) CT scan
    C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
    D) X-ray
A

C) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

87
Q
  1. What is the primary function of dialysis?
    A) To filter waste from the blood
    B) To increase urine output
    C) To enhance kidney function
    D) To regulate electrolytes
A

A) To filter waste from the blood

88
Q
  1. Which age group is most commonly affected by Wilms’ tumour?
    A) Infants
    B) Toddlers
    C) Adolescents
    D) Adults
A

B) Toddlers

89
Q
  1. What is the typical treatment for renal failure?
    A) Increased hydration
    B) Dietary changes
    C) Dialysis or kidney transplant
    D) Antibiotics
A

C) Dialysis or kidney transplant

90
Q
  1. What can cause acute kidney injury (AKI)?
    A) Dehydration
    B) Sepsis
    C) Nephrotoxic drugs
    D) All of the above
A

D) All of the above

91
Q

What is the definition of a solution?
A) A solid mixture
B) When one substance dissolves into another
C) A gaseous mixture
D) A compound with a fixed composition

A

B

92
Q

What is the term for the substance being dissolved in a solution?
A) Solvent
B) Solute
C) Mixture
D) Solution

A

B

93
Q

Which of the following is the dissolving medium in a solution?
A) Solute
B) Solvent
C) Electrolyte
D) Nonelectrolyte

A

B

94
Q

How does age affect body water content?
A) Older adults have more water content
B) Infants have higher water content
C) Water content is the same regardless of age
D) Age has no effect on body water

A

B

95
Q

What is the water content percentage in infants compared to the elderly?
A) 90% to 50%
B) 80% to 60%
C) 73% to 45%
D) 65% to 40%

A

C

96
Q

How does body mass/composition influence body water content?
A) Higher fat mass leads to more water
B) Muscle mass has a higher water content
C) Body mass does not influence water content
D) Only males have higher water content

A

B

97
Q

Which factor generally leads to a higher body water content?
A) Higher fat mass
B) Older age
C) Increased muscle mass
D) Female sex

A

C

98
Q

How much of total body water is found in intracellular fluid (ICF)?
A) 1/2
B) 1/3
C) 2/3
D) 1/4

A

C

99
Q

What is the primary electrolyte found in extracellular fluid (ECF)?
A) Potassium (K⁺)
B) Sodium (Na⁺)
C) Calcium (Ca²⁺)
D) Magnesium (Mg²⁺)

A

B

100
Q

What is the mechanism driving water movement in the body?
A) Hydrostatic pressure
B) Oncotic pressure
C) Osmolarity
D) All of the above

A

D

101
Q

What causes fluid shifts between compartments in the body?
A) Temperature
B) Osmotic gradients
C) Age
D) Diet

A

B

102
Q

Which of the following is considered insensible water loss?
A) Urination
B) Sweat
C) Faeces
D) Drinking water

A

B

103
Q

What is the primary cause of dehydration?
A) Excess water intake
B) Loss of water exceeding intake
C) Increase in body fat
D) Increased muscle mass

A

B

104
Q

What condition results from excessive water intake leading to cellular swelling?
A) Dehydration
B) Oedema
C) Hypotonic hydration
D) Electrolyte imbalance

A

C

105
Q

What initiates the thirst response in the body?
A) Decreased osmolarity
B) Osmoreceptors sensing increased osmolarity
C) Baroreceptors
D) Dry mucus membranes

A

B

106
Q

Which hormone promotes water retention by the kidneys?
A) Aldosterone
B) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
C) Angiotensin II
D) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

A

B

107
Q

What does aldosterone do in relation to electrolytes?
A) Decreases sodium reabsorption
B) Promotes urinary reabsorption of sodium and chloride
C) Increases water loss in urine
D) Decreases blood volume

A

B

108
Q

What is the primary role of the bicarbonate buffer system?
A) Regulate pH in ECF
B) Buffer strong acids only
C) Slowest acting buffer system
D) Regulate glucose levels

A

A

109
Q

Which chemical buffer system primarily operates in the intracellular fluid?
A) Bicarbonate buffer system
B) Phosphate buffer system
C) Protein buffer system
D) All of the above

A

B

110
Q

How does the respiratory system influence acid-base balance?
A) By regulating glucose levels
B) By controlling carbon dioxide levels
C) By absorbing water
D) By increasing muscle mass

A

B

111
Q

What is the condition characterized by blood pH less than 7.35?
A) Alkalosis
B) Acidosis
C) Neutral pH
D) Homeostasis

A

B

112
Q

What happens during metabolic acidosis?
A) Increase in blood pH
B) Decrease in blood pH due to excessive acid accumulation
C) Increase in bicarbonate levels
D) Decrease in carbon dioxide levels

A

B

113
Q

What is the role of the kidneys in acid-base balance?
A) Excrete excess H+ ions when pH is too low
B) Retain all acids
C) Increase breathing rate
D) Eliminate water only

A

A

114
Q

Which electrolyte is key for normal neuromuscular function?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium
D) Phosphate

A

B

SBI172 (11 decks)

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