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Blood Module - 3rd year > week 4 extra Q's > Flashcards

week 4 extra Q's Flashcards

1
Q

What occurs to hematiopoiesis when the liver and spleen go through regression?

a. decreased production
b. increased production
c. unchanged production

A

b. increased production

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2
Q

How do you diffrentiate between a blood smear and a BM aspirate smear?

a. blood smear is larger
b. blood smear has megakaryocytes
c. BM aspirate smear has BM particles

A

b. BM aspirate smear has BM particles

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3
Q

Which of the following is the first morphologically recognizable cell in the granulopoiesis linage?

a. HSC
b. blast cell
c. progenitor cell
d. myelocyte
e. metamyelocyte

A

b. blast cell

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4
Q

Which of the following describes when the stem cells of the BM go the circulation?

a. trafficking
b. homing
c. mobilization
d. teleportation

A

c. mobilization

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5
Q

How much time do cells exist in the mitotic pool?

a. 6-10 hours
b. 24-36 hours
c. 7.5 days
d. 10.8 days

A

c. 7.5 days

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6
Q

Which of the following cells most likely have ligands?

a. mature cells
b. immature cells

A

b. immature cells

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7
Q

Which of the following describes the change of location of hematopoiesis?

a. trafficking
b. homing
c. mobilization
d. teleportation

A

a. trafficking

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8
Q

Which of the following do we induce for the sake of bone marrow transplantation?

a. trafficking
b. homing
c. mobilization
d. teleportation

A

c. mobilization

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9
Q

Which theory focuses on the quantity of cells produced?

a. stochastic theory
b. determinism theory of granulopoiesis

A

a. stochastic theory

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10
Q

Which of the following are mainly produced by stromal cells?

a. interlukins
b. CSF

A

b. CSF

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11
Q

How long do neutrophils stay in tissues?

a. 1 day
b. 4 days
c. 7.5 days
d. 10.8 days

A

a. 1 day

1-2 days

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12
Q

How long do neutrophils stay in the blood pool?

a. 6-10 hours
b. 24-36 hours
c. 7.5 days
d. 10.8 days

A

a. 6-10 hours

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13
Q

What type of regulatory factor is interlukin?

a. inhibitory
b. stimulatory
c. both

A

c. both

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14
Q

What type of regulatory factor is CSF?

a. inhibitory
b. stimulatory
c. both

A

b. stimulatory

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15
Q

Which of theses dyes does an eosinophils stain with?

a. acidic
b. basic
c. both

A

a. acidic

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16
Q

Which of theses dyes does a neutrophil stain with?

a. acidic
b. basic
c. both

A

c. both

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17
Q

Which of the following is non-phagocytic?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. neutrophils

A

a. basophils

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18
Q

Which of the following can perform phagocytosis and release granules?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells

A

b. eosinophils

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19
Q

Whats the primary mechanism of action of eosinophils?

a. phagocytosis
b. releasing granules

A

b. releasing granules

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20
Q

Which of the following is only found in tissues?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells
d. neutrophils

A

c. mast cells

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21
Q

Which of the following is the first to migrate to the site of action?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells
d. neutrophils

A

d. neutrophils

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22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary granule?

a. Myeloperoxidase
b. Lactoferrin
c. Lysozyme
d. Defensins

A

b. Lactoferrin

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23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a secondary granule?

a. Myeloperoxidase
b. Lactoferrin
c. Lysozyme
d. Defensins

A

a. Myeloperoxidase

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24
Q

Which of the following kills microbes via respiratory burst?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells
d. neutrophils

A

d. neutrophils

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25
Q

Which of the following drills holes in parasites?

a. Hypochlorous acid
b. Cationic protein
c. Major basic protein
d. Peroxidase

A

b. Cationic protein

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26
Q

Which of the following cause neutrophils to have a sunglass apperance?

a. MDS
b. AML

A

a. MDS

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27
Q

In which of the following do the BM cells not mature?

a. MDS
b. AML

A

b. AML

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28
Q

Which of the following is most likely in a patient with down syndorome?

a. MDS
b. AML

A

b. AML

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29
Q

Which of the following can be identifiied due to ring sideroblasts?

a. MDS
b. AML

30
Q

Which of the following blocks diffrentiation?

a. gain of function of transcription factors
b. loss of function of transcription factors
c. gain of function of tyrosin kinase
d. loss of function of tyrosin kinase

A

b. loss of function of transcription factors

31
Q

Auer rods are a characteristic of which of the following?

a. MDS
b. AML

32
Q

Which of these antigens does flow cytomettry detect?

a. surface antigens
b. intracellular antigens
c. both

33
Q

Which antigen is found in megakaryoblastic cells?

a. CD33
b. Gylcophorin A
c. CD13
d. CD61

34
Q

Which antigen is found in erythroid cells?

a. CD33
b. Gylcophorin A
c. CD13
d. CD61

A

b. Gylcophorin A

35
Q

Which antigen is found in myeloid cells?

a. CD33
b. Gylcophorin A
c. CD41
d. CD61

36
Q

Which of the following is most common in a 16 year old?

a. AML
c. ALL

37
Q

Which of the following is most common in a 12 year old?

a. AML
c. ALL

38
Q

Which of the following chromosome rearrangement points towards AML?

a. (9;22)
b. (4;18)
c. (8;21)
d. (9;22)

39
Q

Which of the following chromosome rearrangement points towards CML?

a. (9;22)
b. (4;18)
c. (8;21)
d. (7;13)

40
Q

A patient comes in with burning sensation in fingertips, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
b. Primary Myelofibrosis (PMF)
c. Essential Thrombocythemia (ET)
d. Polycythemia Vera (PV)

A

c. Essential Thrombocythemia (ET)

41
Q

Which of the following is characterized by increased hematocrit?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

42
Q

Which of the following is characterized by tear drop shaped RBC’s?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

43
Q

Which of the following is mostly caused by JAK2 mutation?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

44
Q

Which of the following is characterized by myelocytes in peripheral blood?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

45
Q

Which of the following is characterized by increased basophils?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

46
Q

Which TWO of the following is characterized by increased megakarocytes?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

A

b. PMF
&
c. ET

47
Q

Which is FALSE about alkylating agenst?

a. they work against proliferating and nonproliferating cells
b. they pair G-A
c. they cause DNA mispairing
d. they can lead to another cancer

A

b. they pair G-A

they pair G-T

48
Q

Which two of the following are pro drugs?

a. mechloroathamine
b. cyclophosphamide
c. busulfan
d. procarbazine
e. methotrexate

A

b. cyclophosphamide
&
d. procarbazine

49
Q 
Which inhibits the topiomerase 2 enzyme?
a. 6-mercaptopurine
b. leucovorin
c vincristine
d. doxorubicin
A

d. doxorubicin

50
Q

Which of the following is structurally related to folic acid?

a. methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. cyclophosphamide

A

a. methotrexate

51
Q

Which of the following drugs has lower hypersensitivity reactions when combined with 6-mercaptopurine?

a. leucovorin
b. vincristine
c. doxorubicin
d. asparaginase

A

d. asparaginase

52
Q

Which can be given orally?

a. busulfan
b. procarbazine
c. leucovorin
d. vincristine

A

c. busulfan

53
Q

What type of drugs have toxicities that can be prevented when given leucovorin?

a. prodrugs
b. antimetabolites
c. alkylating agents

A

b. antimetabolites

54
Q

Which of the following can cause haemorragic cystits?

a. cyclophosphamide
b. busulfan
c. leucovorin
d. vincristine
e. doxorubicin

A

a. cyclophosphamide

55
Q

Which of the following can cause interstitual pulmonary fibrosis?

a. cyclophosphamide
b. doxorubicin
c. leucovorin
d. vincristine
e. busulfan

A

e. busulfan

interstitial pulmonary fibrosis AKA busulfan lung

56
Q

Which of the following does 6-mercaptopurine incorporate into?

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. both

57
Q

Uromitexan (Mesna) is used to treat the side effects of which

a. busulfan
b. leucovorin
c. cyclophosphamide
d. doxorubicin

A

c. cyclophosphamide

58
Q

Which of the following inhibits ribonucleotide reductase?

a. leucovorin
b. hydroxyurea
c. doxorubicin
d. asparaginase
e. vincristine

A

b. hydroxyurea

59
Q

Which of the following shouldn’t be taken by a patient who has gout disease?

a. 5-fluorouracil
b. 6-mercaptopurine
c. leucovorin
d. vincristine
e. doxorubicin

A

b. 6-mercaptopurine

gout treatment is allopurinol, that inhibits xanthine oxidase (XO) which metabolizes the drug

60
Q

Which of the following is preferred for the treatment of CML?

a. doxorubicin
b. hydroxyurea
c. asparaginase
d. imatinib

A

d. imatinib

preferred over hydroxyurea

61
Q

What is given to reat CML?

a. 5-fluorouracil
b. 6-mercaptopurine
c. busulfan
d. leucovorin

A

c. busulfan

62
Q

Which cell phase do antimetabolites inhibit?

a. G1 phase
b. G2 phase
c. S phase
d. metaphase

A

c. S phase

63
Q

Which of the following is tetrogenic?

a. leucovorin
b. vincristine
c. doxorubicin
d. methotrexate
e. cyclophosphamide

A

d. methotrexate

64
Q

Which has a side effect of foot drop?

a. leucovorin
b. vincristine
c. doxorubicin
d. 6-mercaptopurine
e. cyclophosphamide

A

b. vincristine

65
Q

Which of the following is given to MM patients above the age of 65?

a. lenalidomide
b. dexamethasone
c. prednisone

A

c. prednisone

66
Q

Which has an adverse effect of paresthesia and phlebitis?

a. leucovorin
b. doxorubicin
c. cyclophosphamide
d. vincristine
e. 6-mercaptopurine

A

d. vincristine

67
Q

Which of the following drugs targets the philadelphia chromosome?

a. doxorubicin
b. hydroxyurea
c. asparaginase
d. imatinib
e. cyclophosphamide

A

d. imatinib

68
Q

Which of the following drugs has a side effect of cardiotoxicity thats exaspertated by trastuzumab?

a. leucovorin
b. vincristine
c. cyclophosphamide
d. doxorubicin

A

d. doxorubicin

69
Q

Which has short half life?

a. mechloroathamine
b. cyclophosphamide
c. busulfan
d. procarbazine

A

a. mechloroathamine

70
Q

Which drug combination is used to treat non-hodgkins lymphoma?

a. MOPP
b. R-CHOP
c. CVAD
d. ABVD

71
Q

Which of the following has a side effect of fluid retetion?

a. prednisone
b. asparaginase
c. hydroxyurea
d. imatinib
e. doxorubicin

A

a. prednisone

Blood Module - 3rd year (16 decks)

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