Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Blood Module - 3rd year > week 4 extra Q's > Flashcards

week 4 extra Q's Flashcards

1
Q

What occurs to hematiopoiesis when the liver and spleen go through regression?

a. decreased production
b. increased production
c. unchanged production

A

b. increased production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do you diffrentiate between a blood smear and a BM aspirate smear?

a. blood smear is larger
b. blood smear has megakaryocytes
c. BM aspirate smear has BM particles

A

b. BM aspirate smear has BM particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is the first morphologically recognizable cell in the granulopoiesis linage?

a. HSC
b. blast cell
c. progenitor cell
d. myelocyte
e. metamyelocyte

A

b. blast cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following describes when the stem cells of the BM go the circulation?

a. trafficking
b. homing
c. mobilization
d. teleportation

A

c. mobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How much time do cells exist in the mitotic pool?

a. 6-10 hours
b. 24-36 hours
c. 7.5 days
d. 10.8 days

A

c. 7.5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following cells most likely have ligands?

a. mature cells
b. immature cells

A

b. immature cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following describes the change of location of hematopoiesis?

a. trafficking
b. homing
c. mobilization
d. teleportation

A

a. trafficking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following do we induce for the sake of bone marrow transplantation?

a. trafficking
b. homing
c. mobilization
d. teleportation

A

c. mobilization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which theory focuses on the quantity of cells produced?

a. stochastic theory
b. determinism theory of granulopoiesis

A

a. stochastic theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following are mainly produced by stromal cells?

a. interlukins
b. CSF

A

b. CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How long do neutrophils stay in tissues?

a. 1 day
b. 4 days
c. 7.5 days
d. 10.8 days

A

a. 1 day

1-2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How long do neutrophils stay in the blood pool?

a. 6-10 hours
b. 24-36 hours
c. 7.5 days
d. 10.8 days

A

a. 6-10 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What type of regulatory factor is interlukin?

a. inhibitory
b. stimulatory
c. both

A

c. both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of regulatory factor is CSF?

a. inhibitory
b. stimulatory
c. both

A

b. stimulatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of theses dyes does an eosinophils stain with?

a. acidic
b. basic
c. both

A

a. acidic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of theses dyes does a neutrophil stain with?

a. acidic
b. basic
c. both

A

c. both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following is non-phagocytic?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. neutrophils

A

a. basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following can perform phagocytosis and release granules?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells

A

b. eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Whats the primary mechanism of action of eosinophils?

a. phagocytosis
b. releasing granules

A

b. releasing granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following is only found in tissues?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells
d. neutrophils

A

c. mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following is the first to migrate to the site of action?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells
d. neutrophils

A

d. neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is NOT a primary granule?

a. Myeloperoxidase
b. Lactoferrin
c. Lysozyme
d. Defensins

A

b. Lactoferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is NOT a secondary granule?

a. Myeloperoxidase
b. Lactoferrin
c. Lysozyme
d. Defensins

A

a. Myeloperoxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following kills microbes via respiratory burst?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. mast cells
d. neutrophils

A

d. neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which of the following drills holes in parasites?

a. Hypochlorous acid
b. Cationic protein
c. Major basic protein
d. Peroxidase

A

b. Cationic protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which of the following cause neutrophils to have a sunglass apperance?

a. MDS
b. AML

A

a. MDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In which of the following do the BM cells not mature?

a. MDS
b. AML

A

b. AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which of the following is most likely in a patient with down syndorome?

a. MDS
b. AML

A

b. AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following can be identifiied due to ring sideroblasts?

a. MDS
b. AML

A

a. MDS

30
Q

Which of the following blocks diffrentiation?

a. gain of function of transcription factors
b. loss of function of transcription factors
c. gain of function of tyrosin kinase
d. loss of function of tyrosin kinase

A

b. loss of function of transcription factors

31
Q

Auer rods are a characteristic of which of the following?

a. MDS
b. AML

A

b. AML

32
Q

Which of these antigens does flow cytomettry detect?

a. surface antigens
b. intracellular antigens
c. both

A

c. both

33
Q

Which antigen is found in megakaryoblastic cells?

a. CD33
b. Gylcophorin A
c. CD13
d. CD61

A

d. CD61

34
Q

Which antigen is found in erythroid cells?

a. CD33
b. Gylcophorin A
c. CD13
d. CD61

A

b. Gylcophorin A

35
Q

Which antigen is found in myeloid cells?

a. CD33
b. Gylcophorin A
c. CD41
d. CD61

A

a. CD33

36
Q

Which of the following is most common in a 16 year old?

a. AML
c. ALL

A

a. AML

37
Q

Which of the following is most common in a 12 year old?

a. AML
c. ALL

A

c. ALL

38
Q

Which of the following chromosome rearrangement points towards AML?

a. (9;22)
b. (4;18)
c. (8;21)
d. (9;22)

A

c. (8;21)

39
Q

Which of the following chromosome rearrangement points towards CML?

a. (9;22)
b. (4;18)
c. (8;21)
d. (7;13)

A

a. (9;22)

40
Q

A patient comes in with burning sensation in fingertips, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)
b. Primary Myelofibrosis (PMF)
c. Essential Thrombocythemia (ET)
d. Polycythemia Vera (PV)

A

c. Essential Thrombocythemia (ET)

41
Q

Which of the following is characterized by increased hematocrit?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

A

d. PV

42
Q

Which of the following is characterized by tear drop shaped RBC’s?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

A

b. PMF

43
Q

Which of the following is mostly caused by JAK2 mutation?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

A

d. PV

44
Q

Which of the following is characterized by myelocytes in peripheral blood?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

A

b. PMF

45
Q

Which of the following is characterized by increased basophils?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

A

a. CML

46
Q

Which TWO of the following is characterized by increased megakarocytes?

a. CML
b. PMF
c. ET
d. PV

A

b. PMF
&
c. ET

47
Q

Which is FALSE about alkylating agenst?

a. they work against proliferating and nonproliferating cells
b. they pair G-A
c. they cause DNA mispairing
d. they can lead to another cancer

A

b. they pair G-A

they pair G-T

48
Q

Which two of the following are pro drugs?

a. mechloroathamine
b. cyclophosphamide
c. busulfan
d. procarbazine
e. methotrexate

A

b. cyclophosphamide
&
d. procarbazine

49
Q 
Which inhibits the topiomerase 2 enzyme?
a. 6-mercaptopurine
b. leucovorin
c vincristine
d. doxorubicin
A

d. doxorubicin

50
Q

Which of the following is structurally related to folic acid?

a. methotrexate
b. 5-fluorouracil
c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. cyclophosphamide

A

a. methotrexate

51
Q

Which of the following drugs has lower hypersensitivity reactions when combined with 6-mercaptopurine?

a. leucovorin
b. vincristine
c. doxorubicin
d. asparaginase

A

d. asparaginase

52
Q

Which can be given orally?

a. busulfan
b. procarbazine
c. leucovorin
d. vincristine

A

c. busulfan

53
Q

What type of drugs have toxicities that can be prevented when given leucovorin?

a. prodrugs
b. antimetabolites
c. alkylating agents

A

b. antimetabolites

54
Q

Which of the following can cause haemorragic cystits?

a. cyclophosphamide
b. busulfan
c. leucovorin
d. vincristine
e. doxorubicin

A

a. cyclophosphamide

55
Q

Which of the following can cause interstitual pulmonary fibrosis?

a. cyclophosphamide
b. doxorubicin
c. leucovorin
d. vincristine
e. busulfan

A

e. busulfan

interstitial pulmonary fibrosis AKA busulfan lung

56
Q

Which of the following does 6-mercaptopurine incorporate into?

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. both

A

c. both

57
Q

Uromitexan (Mesna) is used to treat the side effects of which

a. busulfan
b. leucovorin
c. cyclophosphamide
d. doxorubicin

A

c. cyclophosphamide

58
Q

Which of the following inhibits ribonucleotide reductase?

a. leucovorin
b. hydroxyurea
c. doxorubicin
d. asparaginase
e. vincristine

A

b. hydroxyurea

59
Q

Which of the following shouldn’t be taken by a patient who has gout disease?

a. 5-fluorouracil
b. 6-mercaptopurine
c. leucovorin
d. vincristine
e. doxorubicin

A

b. 6-mercaptopurine

gout treatment is allopurinol, that inhibits xanthine oxidase (XO) which metabolizes the drug

60
Q

Which of the following is preferred for the treatment of CML?

a. doxorubicin
b. hydroxyurea
c. asparaginase
d. imatinib

A

d. imatinib

preferred over hydroxyurea

61
Q

What is given to reat CML?

a. 5-fluorouracil
b. 6-mercaptopurine
c. busulfan
d. leucovorin

A

c. busulfan

62
Q

Which cell phase do antimetabolites inhibit?

a. G1 phase
b. G2 phase
c. S phase
d. metaphase

A

c. S phase

63
Q

Which of the following is tetrogenic?

a. leucovorin
b. vincristine
c. doxorubicin
d. methotrexate
e. cyclophosphamide

A

d. methotrexate

64
Q

Which has a side effect of foot drop?

a. leucovorin
b. vincristine
c. doxorubicin
d. 6-mercaptopurine
e. cyclophosphamide

A

b. vincristine

65
Q

Which of the following is given to MM patients above the age of 65?

a. lenalidomide
b. dexamethasone
c. prednisone

A

c. prednisone

66
Q

Which has an adverse effect of paresthesia and phlebitis?

a. leucovorin
b. doxorubicin
c. cyclophosphamide
d. vincristine
e. 6-mercaptopurine

A

d. vincristine

67
Q

Which of the following drugs targets the philadelphia chromosome?

a. doxorubicin
b. hydroxyurea
c. asparaginase
d. imatinib
e. cyclophosphamide

A

d. imatinib

68
Q

Which of the following drugs has a side effect of cardiotoxicity thats exaspertated by trastuzumab?

a. leucovorin
b. vincristine
c. cyclophosphamide
d. doxorubicin

A

d. doxorubicin

69
Q

Which has short half life?

a. mechloroathamine
b. cyclophosphamide
c. busulfan
d. procarbazine

A

a. mechloroathamine

70
Q

Which drug combination is used to treat non-hodgkins lymphoma?

a. MOPP
b. R-CHOP
c. CVAD
d. ABVD

A

b. R-CHOP

71
Q

Which of the following has a side effect of fluid retetion?

a. prednisone
b. asparaginase
c. hydroxyurea
d. imatinib
e. doxorubicin

A

a. prednisone

Blood Module - 3rd year (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions