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Blood Module - 3rd year > week 2 extra Q's > Flashcards

week 2 extra Q's Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is hypersensitivity reactions take days to weeks to develop?

a. type I
b. type II
c. type III
d. type IV

A

d. type IV

cell-mediated

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2
Q

Hypersensitivity mediated cytotoxic reactions to RBC’s are usually which type of reaction?

a. type I
b. type II
c. type III
d. type IV

A

b. type II

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3
Q

Which of the following structures causes transfusion reaction of RBC’s?

a. glycocalyx
b. glycoproteins
c. lipids

A

b. glycoproteins

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4
Q

Which of the following results in intravascular hemolysis?

a. immediate transfusion reaction
b. delayed transfusion reaction

A

a. immediate transfusion reaction

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5
Q

Which of the following is caused by ABO compatible blood?

a. immediate transfusion reaction
b. delayed transfusion reaction

A

b. delayed transfusion reaction

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6
Q

Which of the following results in shock?

a. immediate transfusion reaction
b. delayed transfusion reaction

A

a. immediate transfusion reaction

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7
Q

Which of the following results in extravascular hemolysis?

a. immediate transfusion reaction
b. delayed transfusion reaction

A

b. delayed transfusion reaction

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8
Q

Which of the following is mediated by complement proteins?

a. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
b. drug-induced hemolytic anemia
c. hemolytic disease of the newborn

A

b. drug-induced hemolytic anemia

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9
Q

Which of the following is administered to the mother to prevent hemolytic anemia?

a. Rh antibodies
b. anti-Rh antibodies
c. anti-anti-Rh antibodies
d. anti-anti-anti-anti-anti-Rh antibodies

A

b. anti-Rh antibodies

aka Rhogam

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10
Q

In which of the following tests do we test the fetal blood?

a. direct coomb’s test
b. indirect coomb’s test
c. both

A

a. direct coomb’s test

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11
Q

In which of the following tests do we test antibody titer?

a. direct coomb’s test
b. indirect coomb’s test
c. both

A

b. indirect coomb’s test

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12
Q

Which of the following results in free hemoglobin in the blood?

a. intravascular hemolysis
b. extravascular hemolysis
c. both

A

a. intravascular hemolysis

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13
Q

Which of the following usually increases levels of urinary hemosiderin?

a. intravascular hemolysis
b. extravascular hemolysis
c. both

A

a. intravascular hemolysis

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14
Q

Which of the following is commonly characterized by pigmented gall stones?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis

A

a. hereditary spherocytosis

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15
Q

Which of the following is commonly characterized by pencil-like RBC’s?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency

A

b. hereditary elliptocytosis

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16
Q

Which of the following is recessive?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency

A

c. G6PD deficiency

X linked

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17
Q

Which of the following is commonly characterized by helmet cells?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency

A

c. G6PD deficiency

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18
Q

alpha-globin genes are found in which chromosome?

a. chromosome 9
b. chromosome 11
c. chromosome 16
d. chromosome 18

A

c. chromosome 16

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19
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by qualitative defects in globin chain production?

a. thalassemia
b. sickle cell anemia

A

b. sickle cell anemia

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20
Q

Which of the following is commonly characterized by RBC’s with no pallor?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. thalassemia

A

a. hereditary spherocytosis

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21
Q

Which of the following is commonly characterized by RBC’s with a bigger pallor?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. G6PD deficiency
c. thalassemia trait
d. thalassemia major

A

c. thalassemia trait

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22
Q

Which of the following is commonly characterized by microcytic hypochromic anemia, nucleated, and destroyed RBC’s?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. G6PD deficiency
c. thalassemia trait
d. thalassemia major

A

d. thalassemia major

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23
Q

Which of the following does a child with dental mal-occlusion and “hair on end” appearance most likely have?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. G6PD deficiency
c. thalassemia trait
d. thalassemia major

A

d. thalassemia major

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24
Q

beta-globin genes are found in which chromosome?

a. chromosome 9
b. chromosome 11
c. chromosome 16
d. chromosome 18

A

b. chromosome 11

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25
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by quantitative defects in globin chain production?

a. thalassemia
b. sickle cell anemia
c. G6PD deficiency

A

a. thalassemia

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26
Q

Which of the following globins are affected by a mutation in sickle cell disease?

a. alpha
b. beta
c. gamma
d. delta

A

b. beta

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27
Q

Which of the following describes the RBC size of sickle cell disease?

a. macrocytic
b. microcytic
c. normocytic

A

c. normocytic

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28
Q

free plasma hemoglobin S inactivates nitric oxide, which if the following does this lead to?

a. jaundice
b. gallstones
c. thrombosis
d. nephropathy

A

c. thrombosis

(nitric oxide inhibits adhesion molecules, without this, adhesion molecules accumulate & blood clots may occur; this was said in class)

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29
Q

Why is hydroxyurea used to treat sickle cell?

a. causes fewer mutations on the sickle cell gene
b. prevents folate deficiency
c. reduces hemoglobin S synthesis
d. increases hemoglobin F synthesis

A

d. increases hemoglobin F synthesis

hemoglobin F in RBC’s reduces polymerization

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30
Q

Sickle cell trait comes with an increased risk of

a. renal medullary carcinoma
b. renal cortical carcinoma
c. renal cell carcinoma
d. invasive ductal carcinoma

A

a. renal medullary carcinoma

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31
Q

Which of the following has an increase in alpha chains?

a. alpha thalassemia
b. beta thalassemia

A

b. beta thalassemia

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32
Q

Which of the following can lead to death in thalassemia major?

a. high blood viscosity
b. blood clots
c. iron overload

A

c. iron overload

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33
Q

What best describes thalassemia intermedia?

a. one beta-globin gene affected
b. both beta-globin genes affected

A

b. both beta-globin genes affected

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34
Q

Which of the following occurs when two alpha genes are defective?

a. silent carrier
b. alpha thalassemia minor
c. hemoglobin H disease
d. hydrops fetalis

A

b. alpha thalassemia minor

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35
Q

T/F: thalassemia intermedia is transfusion independent

A

true

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36
Q

Which of the following occurs when all alpha genes are defective?

a. silent carrier
b. alpha thalassemia minor
c. hemoglobin H disease
d. hydrops fetalis

A

d. hydrops fetalis (HB Barts)

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37
Q

Which of the following causes RBC’s to have a golf ball appearance?

a. silent carrier
b. alpha thalassemia minor
c. hemoglobin H disease
d. hydrops fetalis (HB Barts)

A

c. hemoglobin H disease

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38
Q

Which TWO of the following makeup HbF?

a. 2α
b. 2β
c. 2γ
d. 2δ
e. 2ε
f. 2ζ

A

a. 2α
&
c. 2γ

39
Q

Which TWO of the following makeup HbA2?

a. 2α
b. 2β
c. 2γ
d. 2δ
e. 2ε
f. 2ζ

A

a. 2α
&
d. 2δ

40
Q

Which TWO of the following makeup Hb portland?

a. 2α
b. 2β
c. 2γ
d. 2δ
e. 2ε
f. 2ζ

A

c. 2γ
&
f. 2ζ

41
Q

Which TWO of the following makeup Hb Gower-1?

a. 2α
b. 2β
c. 2γ
d. 2δ
e. 2ε
f. 2ζ

A

e.2ε
&
f. 2ζ

42
Q

Which TWO of the following makeup Hb Gower-2?

a. 2α
b. 2β
c. 2γ
d. 2δ
e. 2ε
f. 2ζ

A

a. 2α
&
e.2ε

43
Q

Which of the following has a higher percent of Hb Barts hemoglobin?

a. HbH disease
b. Hydrops fetalis

A

b. Hydrops fetalis

Bart’s disease

44
Q

Which of the following makeup HbH?

a. 4α chains
b. 4β chains
c. 4γ chains
d. 4δ chains

45
Q

Which of the following makeup Hb Bart’s?

a. 4α chains
b. 4β chains
c. 4γ chains
d. 4δ chains

46
Q

What occurs when HbE interacts with α-globin?

a. nothing
b. mild anemia
c. severe anemia
d. Hb Bart’s disease

A

b. mild anemia

47
Q

Which of the following is more sensitive in detecting abnormal hemoglobins?

a. High-Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)
b. Isoelectric focusing (IEF)
c. Electrophoresis

A

b. Isoelectric focusing (IEF)

48
Q

Which of the following disease can lead to iron overload due to blood infusions?

a. sickle cell anemia
b. thalassemia minor
c. thalassemia intermedia

A

a. sickle cell anemia

49
Q

Which of the following is caused by a deletion mutation?

a. α thalassemia
b. β thalassemia

A

a. α thalassemia

50
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes serum?

a. plasma + buffy coat
b. plasma - WBC
c. plasma - clotting proteins
d. serum = plasma

A

c. plasma - clotting proteins

51
Q

Which TWO of the following has anti-A antibodies?

a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O

52
Q

Which of the following has no naturally occurring antibodies?

a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O

53
Q

Which of the following has both anti-A & anti-B antibodies?

a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O

54
Q

T/F: a person with Rh- naturally expresses anti-Rh antibodies

A

false, they need to be exposed to Rh+ for them to develop antibodies against them

55
Q

When should Rhogam be given?

a. to a Rh+ mother
b. during week 28 of pregnancy
c. during week 24 of pregnancy
d. before the mother plans to have kids

A

b. during week 28 of pregnancy

also given after delivery

56
Q

T/F: you can accurately prove the paternity of the baby by using blood group inheritance

A

false! you can only disprove

57
Q

What best describes Coombs reagent?

a. antiB globin
b. antiRh globin
c. antiC3d globin
d. antihuman globulin

A

d. antihuman globulin

58
Q

What best describes reverse typing?

a. test unknown cells with known antibodies
b. test unknown serum with known RBS’s

A

b. test unknown serum with known RBS’s

59
Q

A patient’s blood coagulates when anti-A, anti-B, and anti-D is added. What’s their blood type?

a. O+
b. O-
c. AB+
d. AB-

60
Q

What best describes forward typing?

a. test unknown cells with known antibodies
b. test unknown serum with known RBS’s

A

a. test unknown cells with known antibodies

61
Q

During crossmatching, what does it mean if the blood agglutinates?

a. the blood is compatible
b. the blood is not compatible

A

b. the blood is not compatible

62
Q

What does the immediate spin crossmatch verify?

a. ABO compatibility
b. alloantibody compatibility
c. Rh compatibility

A

a. ABO compatibility

63
Q

A patient comes in with a hemoglobin level of 5.3g/dl, what is the next course of action?

a. give blood transfusion
b. don’t give blood transfusion

A

a. give blood transfusion

64
Q

A transfusion of which of the following can be stored for a year?

a. plasma
b. platelet
c. blood

65
Q

A transfusion of which of the following is stored at room temperature?

a. plasma
b. platelet
c. blood

A

b. platelet

66
Q

Why do platelets need continuous agitation when stored?

a. to keep them warm
b. to stop the separation
c. to infuse oxygen
d. to kill any cells that found their way in

A

c. to infuse oxygen

67
Q

What are platelet’s shelf life?

a. 2 days
b. 5 days
c. 7 days
d. 30 days

68
Q

In which of the following will you find a higher concentration of von Willebrand factor?

a. fresh frozen plasma
b. platelet
c. cryoprecipitate
d. buffy layer

A

c. cryoprecipitate

69
Q

Which of the following should NOT be labeled on the blood sample and request form?

a. patients first and last name
b. patients age
c. hospital number

A

b. patients age

date of birth, not age

70
Q

Whats the rate of transfusion of FFP?

a. 20 min
b. 30 min
c. 1 hour
d. 4 hours

71
Q

Whats the rate of transfusion of packed RBC’s?

a. 20 min
b. 30 min
c. 1 hour
d. 4 hours

A

d. 4 hours

72
Q

Which of the following is reduced by leucodepletion?

a. allergic reactions
b. febrile nonhemolytic reaction
c. acute hemolytic reaction

A

b. febrile nonhemolytic reaction

73
Q

Donating which of the following most commonly causes pulmonary leukocytosis?

a. FFP
b. platelets
c. PRBC

A

a. FFP (fresh frozen plasma)

74
Q

Which of the following transfusions most commonly cause bacterial infections?

a. FFP
b. platelets
c. PRBC

A

b. platelets

75
Q

Which of the following organisms are implicated with RBC transfusions?

a. staphylococci
b. streptococci
c. enterobacter
d. listeria monocytogenes

A

c. enterobacter (and yersina)

76
Q

Donor lymphocytes were given to an immunocompromised patient, Which of the following is the treatment?

a. controlling fluid balance
b. irradiation of blood products
c. leucodepletion
d. no treatment

A

d. no treatment (usually fatal)

77
Q

Which of the following organisms are implicated with platelet transfusions?

a. listeria monocytogenes
b. enterobacter
c. yersina

A

a. listeria monocytogenes (gram + organisms)

78
Q

The spread of the following virus through blood transfusions is diminished due to leukoreduction

a. hep B
b. hep C
c. HIV
d. CMV
e. HTLV
f. parvo B19

79
Q

Which of the following indicate hemolysis?

a. increase in direct bilirubin
b. increase in indirect bilirubin

A

b. increase in indirect bilirubin

80
Q

Which of the following tests is used to test for spherocytosis?

a. HPLC
b. osmotic fragility test
c. sickling test
d. coomb’s test

A

b. osmotic fragility test

81
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic finding of a splenectomy/hyposplenism?

a. howell jolly body
b. target cells
c. heinz body

A

a. howell jolly body

82
Q

Which of the following HPLC results indicate thalassemia major?

a. higher HbA1
b. higher HbS
c. higher HbF

A

c. higher (than normal) HbF

83
Q

Which of the following describes RBC’s in thalassemia?

a. microcytic
b. macrocytic
c. normocytic

A

a. microcytic

84
Q

What does poikilocytosis refer to?

a. variation in cell shape
b. variation in cell size
c. no variation in cell shape
d. no variation in cell size

A

a. variation in cell shape

85
Q

What does anisocytosis refer to?

a. variation in cell shape
b. variation in cell size
c. no variation in cell shape
d. no variation in cell size

A

b. variation in cell size

86
Q

Which of the following terms describe sickle cell anemia?

a. poikilocytosis
b. anisocytosis

A

a. poikilocytosis

87
Q

Which of the following tests is used to test for autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

a. HPLC
b. osmotic fragility test
c. sickling test
d. coomb’s test

A

d. coomb’s test

88
Q

Which of the following HPLC results indicate sickle cell trait?

a. high HbA1 and HbA2
b. high HbA1 and HbF
c. high HbA1 and HbS
d. high HbS only

A

c. high HbA1 and HbS

89
Q

Which of the following HPLC results indicate sickle cell disease?

a. high HbA1 and HbA2
b. high HbA1 and HbF
c. high HbA1 and HbS
d. high HbS

A

d. high HbS

90
Q

A patient has larger cheekbones, a rodent or “squirrel-like” face, a depressed nasal bridge, and a protruding maxilla. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. alpha thalassemia
b. beta thalassemia

A

b. beta thalassemia

91
Q 
What point mutation leads to becomes HbE? 

A) Glu6Val

B) Glu26Val

C) Glu26lys

D) Glu6lys
A

C) Glu26lys


92
Q

Which of the following hemoglobins leads to more severe anemia?

a. HbS
b. HbSC

93
Q

Which of these hemoglobin mutations leads to more severe anemia?
A) Glu6Val

B) Glu6lys

A

A) Glu6Val


causes HbS

94
Q

Which of the following is caused by a Glu6lys
 mutation?

a. HbS
b. HbC
c. HbE
d. HbF

Blood Module - 3rd year (16 decks)

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