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Blood Module - 3rd year > week 3 extra Q's > Flashcards

week 3 extra Q's Flashcards

1
Q

The life span of platelets is

a. 9 days
b. 10 days
c. 15 days
d. 120 days

A

b. 10 days

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2
Q

Which of the following attaches to the Ashwell-Morell receptor?

a. galactose
b. sialic acid
c. glycogen

A

a. galactose

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3
Q

Which of the following does NOT produce thrombopoietin?

a. liver
b. kidney
c. spleen

A

c. spleen

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4
Q

Which of the following does a 1-day old platelet most likely have on its surface?

a. galactose
b. sialic acid
c. glycogen

A

b. sialic acid

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5
Q

When you get a cut, which of the following will vasoconstrict?

a. the injured blood vessel
b. the rest of the body’s blood vessels

A

a. the injured blood vessel

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6
Q

Weibel palade bodies release which of the following?

a. prostacyclin
b. thromboxane A1
c. thromboxane A2
d. von willebrand factor

A

d. von willebrand factor

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7
Q

Which of the following coagulation factors is made by endothelial cells and the liver?

a. CF VII
b. CF VIII
c. CF IX
d. CD X

A

b. CF VIII

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8
Q

Which hemostasis model is closer to reality?

a. cell-based model
b. waterfall model
c. skyline model
d. victorian model

A

a. cell-based model

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9
Q

Which of the following is the central event of the cell-based model of hemostasis?

a. fibrin formation
b. thrombin formation
c. platelet activation
d. protein S activation

A

b. thrombin formation

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10
Q

Which of the following is the initiator of the extrinsic pathway of hemostasis?

a. coagulation factor IX
b. exposed collagen
c. tissue factor
d. platelet-derived growth factor

A

c. tissue factor

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11
Q

Which of the following crosslinks fibrin monomers?

a. plasmin
b. coagulation factor VII
c. coagulation factor XIII
d. platelet-derived growth factor

A

c. coagulation factor XIII

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12
Q

What’s the function of activated protein C?

a. inhibits coagulation factors Va & VIIIa
b. slows down coagulation process
c. A & B
d. none of the above

A

c. A & B

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13
Q

Which of the following breaks crosslinked fibrin?

a. plasmin
b. coagulation factor VII
c. coagulation factor XIII
d. platelet-derived growth factor

A

a. plasmin

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14
Q

Which of the following is only made by endothelial cells?

a. NO
b. prostacyclin
c. antihaemophilic factor A

A

b. prostacyclin

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15
Q

Which of the following is a fibrinolysis inhibitor?

a. plasmin
b. antiplasmin

A

b. antiplasmin

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16
Q

Which of the following is a vessel wall abnormality?

a. DIC
b. Vitamin K deficiency
c. EDS
d. VWD

A

c. EDS

Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

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17
Q

menorrhagia is a defect in

a. primary hemostasis
b. secondary hemostasis

A

a. primary hemostasis

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18
Q

senile purpura occurs because of a defect in

a. platelets
b. vascularity
c. von willebrand factor
d. coagulation factor 3

A

b. vascularity

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19
Q

BM disease qualifies as which type of platelet defect?

a. qualitative
b. quantitative

A

b. quantitative

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20
Q

describe the platelets in a blood smear of a patient with Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

a. microcytic
b. macrocytic
c. normocytic

A

b. macrocytic

larger because the BM is trying to compensate

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21
Q

Which of the following is the most common bleeding disorder?

a. hemophilia A
b. hemophilia B
c. VWD
d. DIC

A

c. VWD

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22
Q

Which type of VWF has no von Willebrand proteins at all?

a. VWF type 1
b. VWF type 2
c. VWF type 3

A

c. VWF type 3

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23
Q

VWF antigen level is normal while its activity is low, which type of VWF is the most likely diagnosis?

a. VWF type 1
b. VWF type 2
c. VWF type 3

A

b. VWF type 2

functionality problem

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24
Q

Which of the coagulation factors is available in the extrinsic pathway?

a. VII
b. VIII
c. IX
d. X

A

a. VII

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25
Q

In which of these diseases is intramuscular bleeding more common?

a. VWD
b. ITP
c. Hemophilia B
d. Senile purpura

A

c. Hemophilia B

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26
Q

Which of the following occurs when alpha 2-antiplasmin levels decrease?

a. decreased plasmin levels
b. more fibrinolysis
c. less fibrinolysis

A

b. more fibrinolysis

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27
Q

What occurs to activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) & prothrombin time (PT) during a coagulation factor deficiency?

a. APTT increase & PT increase
b. APTT increase & PT decrease
c. APTT decrease & PT increase
d. APTT decrease & PT decrease

A

a. APTT increase & PT increase

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28
Q

Which of the following is the most likely cause of DIC?

a. malignancy
b. sepsis
c. autoimmune disorders

A

b. sepsis

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29
Q

Which of the following do platelets use to bind to each other?

a. glycoprotein 1b
b. glycoprotein 2b

A

b. glycoprotein 2b

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30
Q

Which of the following do platelets use to bind to von willebrand factor?

a. glycoprotein 1b
b. glycoprotein 2b

A

a. glycoprotein 1b

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31
Q

Which of these coagulation factors is prothrombin?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

b. 2

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32
Q

Which of these coagulation factors is fibrinogen?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 9
d. 10

A

a. 1

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33
Q

Which of these coagulation factors is the fibrin-stabilizing factor?

a. 5
b. 7
c. 11
d. 13

A

d. 13

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34
Q

antiphospholipid syndrome may cause thrombus formation in which of the following?

a. venous circulation
b. arterial circulation
c. both

A

c. both

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35
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of inherited thrombophilia?

a. antithrombin deficiency
b. protein S
c. protein C
d. factor V leiden mutation

A

d. factor V leiden mutation

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36
Q

Which of the following diseases results from a glycoprotein 1b defect?

a. von willebrand disease
b. hemophilia b
c. bernard soulier syndrome
d. glanzmann’s disease

A

c. bernard soulier syndrome

37
Q

Which of the following is the most common bleeding disorder?

a. von willebrand disease
b. glanzmann’s disease
c. bernard soulier syndrome
d. hemophilia b

A

a. von willebrand disease

38
Q

Which of the following diseases results from a glycoprotein 2b defect?

a. bernard soulier syndrome
b. glanzmann’s disease
c. von willebrand disease
d. hemophilia b

A

b. glanzmann’s disease

39
Q

Which type of von willebrand disease is a qualitative defect?

a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3

40
Q

Which type of von willebrand disease is autosomal recessive?

a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3

41
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by a defect in platelet aggregation?

a. bernard soulier syndrome
b. von willebrand disease
c. hemophilia b
d. thrombasthenia

A

d. thrombasthenia (aka glanzmann’s disease)

42
Q

Which of the following diseases is caused by a defect in platelet adhesion?

a. hemophilia a
b. thrombasthenia
c. bernard soulier syndrome
d. von willebrand disease

A

c. bernard soulier syndrome

43
Q

Which of the following transports and stabilizes coagulation factor VIII?

a. fibrinogen
b. thrombin
c. tissue factor
d. VW factor

A

d. VW factor

44
Q

Which of the following releases coagulation factor VIII from VWF?

a. fibrinogen
b. thrombin
c. tissue factor

A

b. thrombin

45
Q

Which of the following mutations on the FVIII gene causes a more severe result?

a. addition
b. substitution
c. rearrangement
d. deletion

A

c. rearrangement

results in a complete deficiency

46
Q

Which one is more common among the Jewish population?

a. hemophilia a
b. hemophilia b
c. hemophilia c

A

c. hemophilia c

47
Q

Which of the following inactivate coagulation factors V&VIII?

a. NO
b. prostacyclin
c. protein C
d. plasmin

A

c. protein C

48
Q

An increase in which of the following may cause thrombotic disorders?

a. protein C
b. protein S
c. prothrombin
d. antithrombin

A

c. prothrombin

49
Q

During a coagulation factor 8 deficiency, which of the following times increases?

a. partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
b. prothrombin time (PT)
c. thrombin time (TT)

A

a. partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

50
Q

A patient has a slow APTT time so the doctor ordered a mixing study. The APTT became normal in the test; which of the following does the patient have?

a. factor deficiencies
b. factor inhibitors

A

a. factor deficiencies

51
Q

Which of the following does heparin prolong more?

a. partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
b. prothrombin time (PT)
c. thrombin time (TT)

A

a. partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

52
Q

Which of the following does hemophilia b prolong?

a. partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
b. prothrombin time (PT)
c. thrombin time (TT)

A

a. partial thromboplastin time (APTT)

53
Q

Which of the following drugs should be given to a patient with transient ischaemic attacks?

a. cyclooxygenase inhibitors
b. ticlopidine & clopidogrel
c. abciximab

A

b. ticlopidine & clopidogrel

54
Q

Which of the following drugs is given to a patient for percutaneous coronary intervention?

a. cyclooxygenase inhibitors
b. ticlopidine & clopidogrel
c. abciximab

A

c. abciximab

55
Q

Which of the following drugs inhibits the ADP dependent pathway?

a. cyclooxygenase inhibitors
b. ticlopidine & clopidogrel
c. abciximab

A

b. ticlopidine & clopidogrel

56
Q

Which of the following drugs inhibits thromboxane synthesis?

a. cyclooxygenase inhibitors
b. ticlopidine & clopidogrel
c. abciximab

A

a. cyclooxygenase inhibitors

57
Q

Which of the following drugs has a side effect of bronchospasms?

a. cyclooxygenase inhibitors
b. ticlopidine & clopidogrel
c. abciximab

A

a. cyclooxygenase inhibitors

58
Q

Which of the following drugs inhibits blocks glycoprotein 2b &3a?

a. cyclooxygenase inhibitors
b. ticlopidine & clopidogrel
c. abciximab

A

c. abciximab

59
Q

Which of the following drugs should be given to a patient with myocardial infraction?

a. cyclooxygenase inhibitors
b. ticlopidine & clopidogrel
c. abciximab

A

a. cyclooxygenase inhibitors

60
Q

Which of the following drugs has a side effect of thrombocytopenia?

a. cyclooxygenase inhibitors
b. ticlopidine & clopidogrel
c. abciximab

A

c. abciximab

61
Q

Which of the following is used to prevent clotting in extracorporeal circulation devices?

a. warfarin
b. heparin
c. low molecular weight heparin
d. dabigatran

A

b. heparin

62
Q

Which of the following is contraindicated during pregnancy?

a. warfarin
b. heparin
c. low molecular weight heparin
d. dabigatran

A

a. warfarin

63
Q

The absorption of which of the following is delayed by food?

a. dabigatran
b. fondaparinux
c. rivaroxaban
d. otamixaban

A

a. dabigatran

64
Q

The absorption of which of the following is increased by food?

a. otamixaban
b. dabigatran
c. rivaroxaban
d. fondaparinux

A

c. rivaroxaban

65
Q

Which of the following causes osteoporosis with long term treatment?

a. warfarin
b. heparin
c. low molecular weight heparin
d. dabigatran

A

b. heparin

66
Q

Which of the following leads to better inhibition of coagulation factor X?

a. heparin
b. low molecular weight heparin

A

b. low molecular weight heparin

67
Q

Which of the following is a better drug to give a patient with massive pulmonary embolism?

a. heparin
b. low molecular weight heparin

A

b. low molecular weight heparin

68
Q

Which of the following is antithrombin III dependent?

a. dabigatran
b. otamixaban
c. fondaparinux
d. rivaroxaban

A

c. fondaparinux

69
Q

Which of the following is a prodrug?

a. dabigatran
b. fondaparinux
c. rivaroxaban
d. otamixaban

A

a. dabigatran

70
Q

Which of the following only acts on fibrin bound plasminogen?

a. streptokinase
b. urokinase
c. alteplase

A

c. alteplase

no systemic fibrinolysis

71
Q

Which of the following is a coagulation factor 2 inhibitor?

a. rivaroxaban
b. otamixaban
c. dabigatran
d. fondaparinux

A

c. dabigatran

72
Q

Which of the following is an endogenous protease?

a. streptokinase
b. urokinase
c. alteplase

A

c. alteplase

73
Q

Which of the following does the schilling test measure?

a. iron
b. hematocrit
c. vitamin b12
d. hemoglobin

A

c. vitamin b12

74
Q

Which of the following is concluded when the schilling test with IF results in a corrected reading?

a. pernicious anemia
b. patient not eating
c. bacterial overgrowth

A

a. pernicious anemia

75
Q

Which of the following diseases cause RBC destruction only in the spleen?

a. sickle cell anemia
b. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
c. spherocytosis
d. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)

A

c. spherocytosis

76
Q

A thrombus in the venous system is most likely caused by

a. stasis
b. endothelial injury

A

a. stasis

arterial thrombus formation= endothelial injury

77
Q

Which of the following leads to forward propagation?

a. arterial thrombus
b. venous thrombus

A

b. venous thrombus

arterial thrombus= backward propagation

78
Q

where is VWF stored?

a. endothelial cells
b. megakaryocytes
c. dense granule
d. alpha granule

A

d. alpha granule

79
Q

Which of the coagulation factors is vitamin K independent?

a. CF1
b. CF2
c. CF9
d. CF10

80
Q

Which of the following cleaves VWF multimers?

a. ADAMTS11
b. ADAMTS12
c. ADAMTS13
d. ADAMTS14

A

c. ADAMTS13

81
Q

Which of the following hemostatic pathways can occur outside of the body?

a. extrinsic
b. intrinsic
c. common

A

b. intrinsic

Blood is clotted in a plain tube due to factor 12 activation

82
Q

Which of the following is a fibrinolysis inhibitor?

a. protein C
b. protein S
c. TFPI
d. TAFI

A

d. TAFI (Thrombin-Activatable Fibrinolysis Inhibitor)

TFPI= Tissue Factor Pathway Inhibitor

83
Q

Which of the following is used to diagnose a coagulation factor deficiency?

a. factor assay
b. isolated APTT prolongation
c. isolated PT prolongation
d. isolated TT prolongation

A

a. factor assay

84
Q

Antithrombin is a major inhibitor of which TWO of these coagulation factors?

a. CF8
b. CF9
c. CF10
d. CF11

A

b. CF9
&
c. CF10

85
Q

Which of the following is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion?

a. protein C deficiency
b. protein S deficiency

A

b. protein S deficiency

86
Q

Which of the following deficiencies may lead to the development of warfarin-induced skin necrosis?

a. protein C deficiency
b. protein S deficiency
c. antithrombin deficiency
d. prothrombin gene mutation

A

a. protein C deficiency

87
Q

Which of the following results from a mutation of 3’UTR?

a. increase activity of factor V leiden
b. protein C becomes inactive
c. prothrombin mRNA becomes stable
d. DNA of antithrombin becomes more active

A

c. prothrombin mRNA becomes stable

88
Q

Which of the following mutations causes a stabilization on the mRNA of prothrombin?

a. 3’UTR
b. 5’UTR
c. CAAT mutation
d. BCR-ABL

A

a. 3’UTR

Blood Module - 3rd year (16 decks)

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