Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Blood Module - 3rd year > 2013 module exam > Flashcards

2013 module exam Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the first stage of hematopoiesis in the embryo?

a) Yolk sac
b) Bone marrow
c) Liver
d) spleen

A

a) Yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what causes attraction of platelets in primary hemostasis?

a) Tissue Factor
b) VWF
c) ADP and TXA2
d) Serotonin and PGI2

A

c) ADP and TXA2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which Gla-clotting factor will be dissociated from pro-coagulated membrane after activation?

a. Fibrinogen
b. Thrombin

A

b. Thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What reaction is induced by bradykinin in the dissociation of a clot?

a) Release of PAI
b) Endothelial release of tissue plasminogen activator
c) Degradation of fibrin and fibrinogen

A

b) Endothelial release of tissue plasminogen activator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the size of the t (9:22) chromosome in CML?

a) P190
b) P210
c) P200

A

b) P210

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the reason behind the difference in binding affinities for O2 in myoglobin and hemoglobin?

a) Myoglobin has Fe3+, hemoglobin has Fe2+
b) Myoglobin is a monomer, hemoglobin is tetramer
c) Myoglobin carries co2, HB does not
d) Myoglobin takes glucose, HB does not

A

b) Myoglobin is a monomer, hemoglobin is tetramer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

HIV affects which cell type?

a) T-helper cells
b) T-cytotoxic cells
c) Plasma cells
d) B cells

A

a) T-helper cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the actual function of Vwf?

a) carry factor 8
b) activate factor 8 in the intrinsic pathway
c) helps in adhesion of platelets

A

a) carry factor 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following is responsible for hemolysis of RBCs in auto immune haemolytic anemia?

a) T cytotoxic cells
b) Neutrophils
c) TNF
d) Perforins

A

b) Neutrophils

via ADCC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

By which process are the T cells that bind to self-MHC eliminated?

a) Positive selection
b) Negative selection
c) T cell differentiation
d) T cell suppression
e) T cell activation

A

b) Negative selection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 45 years old female with splenomegaly. CBC shows: high platelets, low HB, low WBC Blood film: basophilia, granulocytosis, different stages of maturation. What is the mechanism of the cause?

a) Inactive tyrosine kinase
b) Abnormal activation of tyrosine kinase

A

b) Abnormal activation of tyrosine kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What coagulation factor is required to harden fibrin polymers?

a) XIa
b) XIIIa
c) XIIa

A

b) XIIIa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following is most likely associated with intravascular hemolysis?

a) Immune-mediated hemolysis
b) Hereditary spherocytosis
c) Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
d) Hereditary elliptocytosis

A

c) Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are lipid rafts?

a) Indication of cell death
b) Areas of low lipid fluidity
c) lipid interactions with membrane proteins
d) Lipid clusters with covalent bonds

A

b) Areas of low lipid fluidity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following conditions is indicative for the use of Deferasirox in a patient on regular blood transfusion?

a) Kidney tests are abnormal
b) Serum ferritin is more than 1000µ/L
c) Development of diabetes

A

b) Serum ferritin is more than 1000µ/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A patient came to your clinic complaining of cervical lymphadenopathy, upon biopsy of the lymph node you found nodular pattern, what organism most likely caused this disorder?

a) HIV
b) Hepatitis C
c) EBV
d) HTLV-1

A

c) EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What cell expresses CD34+ on their surfaces?

a) Pluripotent stem cells
b) T lymphocytes
c) Multipotent stem cells

A

a) Pluripotent stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A patient was taking heparin and then started taking warfarin for the treatment of DVT. What is the most appropriate test required for the status of the patient?

a) APTT
b) PT
c) Factor VIII
d) Factors II, VII, IX, X
e) Platelet level

A

b) PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A cell with abundant azurophillic granules and involved in allergies?

a) Eosinophils
b) Basophils

A

a) Eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A female had gastric sleeve surgery experienced fatigue and weight loss. What is the cause?

a) BM suppression
b) Disturbed iron cycle
c) Auto-antibodies against intrinsic factors

A

b) Disturbed iron cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How to assess long term treatment with warfarin?

a) Measure vitamin K level
b) Measure PT
c) Measure platelet level

A

b) Measure PT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What causes Type II hypersensitivity?

a) Drugs absorbed into RBC membrane
b) Allergen

A

a) Drugs absorbed into RBC membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What can cause acute hemolysis after transfusion to a patient with “O” blood group?

a) B type RBCs
b) AB plasma
c) O+ve plasma

A

a) B type RBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which disorder involves the impairment in conversion/switch of γ-globin to β-globin?

a) β-thalassemia
b) HbE/β thalassemia
c) α-thalassemia
d) HPFH

A

d) HPFH (hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What determines the blood types?

a) Glycolipid and glycoprotein on the RBC membrane
b) The antibodies in the plasma
c) Electrical charges on the RBC membrane
d) The different hemoglobin composition of the RBC

A

a) Glycolipid and glycoprotein on the RBC membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Antibodies against which cytokine could be most likely helpful in anemia of chronic disease?

a) IL-1
b) IL-6
c) IL-10
d) Interferon

A

b) IL-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Polymerization of gamma globin to form homo-tetramer?

a) Hb Bart’s
b) HbE
c) HbA
d) HbS
e) HbA2
f) HbH

A

a) Hb Bart’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What abnormal Hemoglobin is responsible for half major cases of β-thalassemia worldwide?

a) Hb Bart’s
b) HbA
c) HbA2
d) HbS
e) HbE
f) HbH

A

e) HbE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Howell-Jolley bodies in peripheral blood smear in chronic anemia is indicative of

a) Thalassemia trait
b) Thalassemia major
c) Sickle cell anemia
d) G6PD deficiency
e) Immune mediated anemia

A

c) Sickle cell anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Microcytic anemia and splenomegaly in 18-year old boy?

a) Thalassemia trait
b) Thalassemia major
c) Sickle cell anemia
d) G6PD deficiency
e) Immune mediated anemia

A

b) Thalassemia major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Mutation in VW factor decreases which factor?

a) Factor 2
b) Factor 5
c) Factor 7
d) Factor 8

A

d) Factor 8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mutation of this factor is the most common cause of deep vein thrombosis (thrombophilia)?

a) Factor 2
b) Factor 5
c) Factor 7
d) Factor 8

A

b) Factor 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What protects vitamin B12 from denaturation in the stomach?

a) Cubulin
b) Gastric intrinsic factor
c) Amnionless
d) Corrin
e) Transcobalamin II
f) Haptocorrin

A

f) Haptocorrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What binds to B12 in the duodenum?

a) Cubulin
b) Gastric intrinsic factor
c) Amnionless
d) Corrin
e) Transcobalamin II
f) Haptocorrin

A

b) Gastric intrinsic factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the cells that are abundant in cytoplasm and dense chromatin?

a) B lymphocytes
b) T lymphocytes
c) Plasma cell
d) Kuppfer cells

A

c) Plasma cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

65 years old male presented with dizziness and fatigability, with past history of frequent hospitalization due to recurrent chest infections. CBC: high WBC, low platelets, low Hb. The peripheral blood smear showed mature lymphocytes and spherocytes RBC. What is the cause of the recurrent infections?

A

a. Hypogammaglobinemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What shifts the hemoglobin curve to the right?

a. low H+ and 2, 5-BPG
b. High H+ and 2, 3-BPG
c. low H+ and 2, 3-BPG
d. High H+ and 2, 5-BPG

A

b. High H+ and 2, 3-BPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

which drug is a specific, direct inhibitor of factor 10, has a rapid onset of action but has a short half-life?

a. dabigatran
b. otamixaban
c. fondaparinux
d. rivaroxaban

A

b. otamixaban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

A cell with abundant rough ER and active cytoplasm?

a. RBC
b. WBC
c. Plasma cell

A

c. Plasma cell

40
Q

What is the hemoglobin associated with sickle cell anemia and beta thalassemia?

a. HbS/Beta Hb
b. HbF
c. HbC

A

a. HbS/Beta Hb

41
Q

A case was given of a 2 year old patient with features of beta thalassemia major. What is the predominant Hb in this child?

a. HbS
b. HbF
c. HbC

A

b. HbF

42
Q

A 25 year old female admitted to hospital with joint pain and swollen leg, rash, prolonged APTT. What is most likely?

a) vWF deficiency
b) DIC
c) vitamin k deficiency
d) antiphoshphilipid syndrome

A

a) vWF deficiency

43
Q

A 20 year old male sustained a motorbike accident & was brought to the emergency department. He lost a lot of blood & blood transfusion was needed. His blood group was “O “. Which of the following would cause acute hemolytic reaction if given to the patient?

a) Rh + blood group O
b) Blood group B RBC
c) Blood group AB plasma
d) Blood group O serum
e) Blood group B plasma

A

b) Blood group B RBC

44
Q

What’s the appropriate Initial test in a case suspected with hemolytic anemia?

a. Iron
b. Reticulocyte Count
c. Hematocrit

A

b. Reticulocyte Count

45
Q

A 12 years old boy in the intensive care unit suffering from an ear infection that lead to meningitis, what do you test for?

A

a. D-Dimer and fibrinogen

he has DIC

46
Q

A mediastinal lymph node biopsy of a 25 years old female showing binucleated large cells, immunophenotyping showed positive CD15 and CD30, What is this condition?

a) Follicular lymphoma
b) Hodgkin’s lymphoma
c) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
d) Acute lymphocytic leukemia

A

b) Hodgkin’s lymphoma

47
Q

What type of mutation is expressed when a gene is removed from one chromasome to another?

a) Deletion
b) Inversion
c) Translocation
d) Duplication

A

c) Translocation

48
Q

Tyrosine kinase inhibitor?

a. Imatinib
b. fondaparinux
c. rivaroxaban

A

a. Imatinib

49
Q

A 30 year old nurse came to your clinic experiencing excessive menstrual bleeding and gum bleeding after tooth brushing, upon physical examination you found purpuric rashes, what is the pathophysiology of this condition?

a) Inhibition of fibrin synthesis
b) Inhibition of primary hemostasis
c) Activation of tissue plasminogen activator

A

b) Inhibition of primary hemostasis

50
Q

A 2-years old child brought to the hospital by his Mediterranean parents. He was not eating well and he was pale. He showed microcytic hypochromic cells and splenomegaly. Which hemoglobin would you find the most?

a. HbA
b. HbA2
c. HbC
d. HbS

A

b. HbA2

51
Q

A 16 years old girl went to the clinic with bleeding and the doctor noticed hyper-translocating joint and skin. What might be responsible for her condition?

a) Blood vessel disorder
b) Coagulation factor disorders
c) Platelets disorder

A

a) Blood vessel disorder

52
Q

What is the most common abnormality found in MDS?

a) Hypocelluler bone marrow
b) Hypercelluler bone marrow
c) Fibrotic bone marrow

A

b) Hypercelluler bone marrow

53
Q

Which of the following confirms the diagnosis of multiple myeloma?

a) Reduced bone density
b) Low calcium levels
c) Bence-Jones protein in urine

A

c) Bence-Jones protein in urine

54
Q

What’s the site of maturation of T-cells?

a) thymus
b) spleen
c) lymph nodes
d) bone marrow

A

a) thymus

55
Q

Which of the following anti-neoplastic drugs is an anti-folate agent?

a) amatinib
b) 6-MP
c) Methotrexate
d) 5-flurouracil

A

c) Methotrexate

56
Q

How does Heparin work?

a) By accelerating the action of Antithrombin III
b) Direct IIa inhibitor
c) Inhibits ADP dependent pathway

A

a) By accelerating the action of Antithrombin III

57
Q

Which malfunctioned protein is involved in x-linked sideroblastic anemia?

a. Porphobilinogen Deaminase
b. Uroporphyrinogen III Synthase
c. Ala synthase
d. Protoporphyrinogen Oxidase

A

c. Ala synthase

58
Q

What is the hemoglobin beta with a point mutation?

a) Hb Bart’s
b) HbE
c) HbA
d) HbS

A

b) HbE

59
Q

Young female presented with rash on the face (butterfly rash), glomerulonephritis, and arthralgia. What is the diagnosis?

a) vWF deficiency
b) DIC
c) vitamin k deficiency
d) antiphoshphilipid syndrome

A

d) Antiphospholipid syndrome

these are symptoms of SLE

60
Q

What would be the consequence of a mutation in the 3’UTR of the prothrombin gene?

a. increase activity of factor V leiden
b. Stabilization of Prothrombin mRNA
c. Protein C becomes inactive
d. DNA of antithrombin becomes more active

A

b. Stabilization of Prothrombin mRNA

61
Q

What would be increased in a patient who developed megaloblastic anemia after gastrectomy?

A

Methylmalonic acid

62
Q

A 20-year old male was in a car accident. He has a lacerated liver and multiple fractures. He lost a lot of blood and his Hb was 50g/L. He was given 20 units of packed cells. What complication would most commonly occur in this patient?

a) Hyperkalemia
b) Hypokalemia
c) Incompatible transfusion reaction

A

a) Hyperkalemia

63
Q

What’s the chromosomal translocation associated with Acute Myeloid Leukemia?

a. t(9;22)
b. t(4;18)
c. t(15;17)
d. t(7;13)

A

c. t(15;17)

64
Q 
What is used by granulocytes to opsonize bacteria?
A) Complement fragments
B) Immunoglobulins
D) Fc receptors
E) Defensins
A

D) Fc receptors

65
Q

Which of the following is true regarding primary amyloidosis?

a. The deposition of proteins extracellularly in an abnormal fibrilliar form
b. The deposition of proteins intracellularly in a fibrilliar form

A

a. The deposition of proteins extracellularly in an abnormal fibrilliar form

66
Q

A 23 year old male presented with sore throat, fever, and atypical lymphocytes (mononucleosis). What’s the organism causing this condition?

a) HIV
b) Hepatitis C
c) EBV
d) HTLV-1

A

c) EBV

67
Q

A patient presented with thrombosis in the deep veins of his right leg following a long flight. His CBC reveals grossly elevated platelets (1350) with normal Hb and WBC count. What would you expect to find in the bone marrow of this patient?

a. Megakaryotic hyperplasia
b. Bone marrow hypoplasia

A

a. Megakaryotic hyperplasia

68
Q

A patient with prostate cancer suffers from anemia and epistaxis. His CBC shows pancytopenia. What is the cause of his condition?

a. Bone marrow hypoplasia
b. Megakaryotic hyperplasia

A

a. Bone marrow hypoplasia

69
Q

What is the mechanism of eosinophils in killing pathogens?

a. Cytotoxicity
b. Phagocytosis

A

a. Cytotoxicity

70
Q

A 35 year old woman developed pulmonary thromboembolism. She has a history of still birth at 6 months. Her PT and APTT are normal and she’s positive for lupus anticoagulant. Whats the most likely diagnosis?

a) vWF deficiency
b) antiphoshphilipid syndrome
c) vitamin k deficiency
d) DIC

A

b) antiphoshphilipid syndrome

71
Q

what moves phosphatidylserine from outside to inside face of membrane?

a. floppase
b. flippase
c. scramblase

A

b. flippase

72
Q

Which drug removes the mucositis and myelosuppression associated with antineoplastic antimetabolites toxicities?

a) Otamixaban
b) Aspirin
c) Streptokinase
d) Leuvocorin

A

d) Leuvocorin

73
Q

What is the drug that prevents the secretion of thromboxanses?

a) Otamixaban
b) Aspirin
c) Streptokinase
d) Leuvocorin

A

b) Aspirin

74
Q

What initiates secondary hemostasis?

a. Collagen
b. Tissue factor
c. Coagulation factor 8
d. Coagulation factor 13

A

b. Tissue factor

75
Q

What is important in fibrin polymerization?

a. Coagulation factor 6
b. Coagulation factor 4
c. Coagulation factor 8
d. Coagulation factor 13

A

d. Coagulation factor 13

76
Q

A patient presented with unexplained weight loss and lymphadenopathy. He was found to have the t (14, 18) translocation. What’s the diagnosis?

a. AML
b. Follicular lymphoma

A

b. Follicular lymphoma

77
Q

A girl passing dark urine diagnosed w/ occult blood in stool blood smear shows pencil cells and target cells, what are the expected results?

a) Serum iron ⬇, Serum ferritin ⬇, TIBC ⬆
b) Serum iron⬇, Serum ferritin⬇, TIBC ⬇

A

a) Serum iron ⬇, Serum ferritin ⬇, TIBC ⬆

78
Q

A Man in the ICU with bleeding from multiple locations and meningococcal infection, what may help in diagnosing his problem?

a) D-dimer level
b) vWF level

A

a) D-dimer level

79
Q

What is the composition of HbH?

a. a homotetramer of 4 gammas
b. a homotetramer of 4 betas
c. a homotetramer of 4 alphas

A

b. a homotetramer of 4 betas

80
Q

What is the mode of inheritance of HbE/beta thalassemia? a) recessive beta

b) dominant beta
c) alpha/beta dominant

A

c) alpha/beta dominant

(in the lecture she said that it is co-dominant! HbE/beta thalassemia has nothing to do with alpha chain, both mutations occur in beta globin)

81
Q

Which cofactor will be affected if there is deficiency in lactase dehydrogenase?

a) NAP+
b) NAD+

A

b) NAD+

82
Q

What is the general characteristics of alkylating agents?

a. Disrupt protein folding
b. Act on proliferating and non-proliferating cells
c. Act on proliferating cells only

A

b. Act on proliferating and non-proliferating cells

83
Q

Why t-PA causes less systemic fibrinolysis?

a) It perfectly activates fibrin-bound plasminogen
b) It has a short half life

A

a) It perfectly activates fibrin-bound plasminogen

84
Q

A 45-year old female who has been on chemotherapy for 2 days developed nose bleeds. What would you give her?

a. VWF
b. Platelets
c. CF VI

A

b. Platelets

85
Q

What is the most important thing for the RBC to withstand the mechanical sheer force of moving through small blood vessels?
a- G6PD enzyme present in RBC
b- Integral membrane protein noncovalent attachment to cytoskeleton
c- hemoglobin distributed evenly across the cell

A

b- Integral membrane protein noncovalent attachment to cytoskeleton

86
Q

What is the most suitable characteristic of MGUS?

a) marrow plasmocytosis more than 10%
b) not associated w/ clinical symptoms
a. It is not associated with clinical symptoms
c) It is a benign condition
d) 50% progress to plasma cell myeloma

A

b) not associated w/ clinical symptoms

87
Q

What enzyme is used to synthesize heme? (rate-limiting enzyme) and what happens if this step is bypassed?

a) ALA synthase; inhibits heme synthesis
b) ALA synthase; sideroblastic anemia
c) Ala dehydrogenase

A

a) ALA synthase; inhibits heme synthesis

88
Q

What’s forms the meshwork under the cytoplasmic face of the plasma membrane of the RBC?

A

Spectrin

89
Q

It stabilizes factor 8 from degradation?

a. factor 9
b. vWF
c. plasmin
d. protein S

A

b. vWF

90
Q

What is the key regulator enzyme in heme synthesis?

a. Porphobilinogen Deaminase
b. Uroporphyrinogen III Synthase
c. Ala synthase
d. Protoporphyrinogen Oxidase

A

c. Ala synthase

91
Q

What stimulates globin synthesis?

a. protein C
b. Heme
c. ADP
d. serotonin

A

b. Heme

92
Q

What is the exchange of material between 2 non-homologous chromosomes?

a. Inversion
b. Translocation
c. deletion
d. initiation

A

b. Translocation

93
Q

Which test is used on chromosomes to detect abnormality?

A

Karyotype

94
Q

Tropical spastic paraparesis is caused by?

a) HIV
b) Hepatitis C
c) EBV
d) HTLV-1

A

d) HTLV-1

95
Q

The product of vitamin K dependent protein synthesis?

A

Gla

96
Q 
A 70 year old woman who receives frequent transfusions presented with pancytopenia, macrocytes, and hypolobated neutrophils
a. AML
b. myelodysplastic syndrome
c-megaloblastic anemia 
d-liver disease
A

b. myelodysplastic syndrome

97
Q

Which of the following is orthochromatic?

a. Erythrocyte
b. Normoblast

A

b. Normoblast

Blood Module - 3rd year (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions