learning topic extra Q's Flashcards
Which of the following causes sideroblastic anemia?
a. high lead levels
b. hematopoietic cell destruction on the bone marrow
c. heme biosynthesis defect
c. heme biosynthesis defect (in erythroid precursors)
Which of the following is the treatment for acquired sideroblastic anemia?
a. vitamin B6
b. growth factors
c. chelation therapy
d. transfusion
b. growth factors
Schwachman-Diamond syndrome may cause which of the following?
a. aplastic anemia
b. sideroblastic anemia
c. lead poisoning
d. pernicious anemia
a. aplastic anemia
Which of the following is the treatment for X-linked Sideroblastic anemia?
a. vitamin B6
b. growth factors
c. immunosuppression
d. chelation therapy
a. vitamin B6
Which of the following is the treatment for aplastic anemia?
a. vitamin B6
b. growth factors
c. immunosuppression
d. chelation therapy
c. immunosuppression
Which of the following doesn’t depend on plasma volume?
a. Hb
b. HCT
c. MCV
d. RBC count
c. MCV
plasma volume effects red cell mass-RCM; RBC count, Hb, & HCT depend on RCM
X-ray of patient shows black-blue lines on epiphyses of long bone, which of the following is most likely?
a. aplastic anemia
b. lead poisoning
c. MDS
d. sideoblastic anemia
b. lead poisoning
Which of the following is a subtype of Myelodysplastic syndrome?
a. sideroblastic anemia
b. aplastic anemia
c. iron-deficiency anemia
d. pernicious anemia
a. sideroblastic anemia
Which of the following cells does cytomegalovirus replicate in?
a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. erythrocyte precursor
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes
a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte (PMNL)
Which of the following is true about parvovirus B19?
a. double-stranded DNA
b. enters cells via K blood antigen receptor
c. they attack rapidly dividing erythrocyte precursors
c. they attack rapidly dividing erythrocyte precursors
Which of the following cause fifth disease?
a. epstein-Barr virus
b. varicella-zoster virus
c. cytomegalovirus
d. parvovirus B19
d. parvovirus B19
Other than Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following viruses causes mononucleosis?
a. parainfluenza virus
b. varicella-zoster virus
c. cytomegalovirus
d. only Epstein-Barr virus causes mono
c. cytomegalovirus
Which of the following has NO association with malignancies?
a. HTLV-1
b. HTLV-2
c. EBV
b. HTLV-2
Which of the following cells does Epstein-Barr virus replicate in?
a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. erythrocyte precursor
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes
Which of the following cells does Parvovirus B19 replicate in?
a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. erythrocyte precursor
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes
b. erythrocyte precursor
Patient comes in with IM and has a negative heterophile antibody result. Which virus is the cause of his illness?
a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2
e. Parvovirus B19
b. CMV
negative heterophile= CMV
positive heterophile= EBV
Which of the viruses enter the cells via P blood antigen receptor?
a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2
e. Parvovirus B19
e. Parvovirus B19
Patient comes in with IM and sore throat. Which virus is the cause of his illness?
a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2
e. Parvovirus B19
a. EBV
sore throat=EBV
Which of the following indivisuals are assumed to be infectious?
a. ALT positive
b. TSP positive
c. HTLV antibody positive
d. T cell hairy leukemia positive
c. HTLV antibody positive
Indivisuals with which of the following viruses shouldn’t consume salted fish?
a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2
a. EBV
Indivisuals with which of the following viruses have immuno-complexes in their circulation?
a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HAV
d. HBV
d. HBV
Which of the following is the most sensitive test for intravascular anemia?
a. hemoglobinuria
b. hemosiderinuria
c. methemalbuminemia
d. direct coombs tests
e. indirect coombs tests
b. hemosiderinuria
Which of the following has leg ulcers as one of the symptoms?
a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. thalassemia
e. sickle cell disease
e. sickle cell disease
Which of the following diseases has mostly asymptomatic cases?
a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. thalassemia
e. sickle cell disease
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
Which TWO of the following can be treated with splenecomy in severe cases?
a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. sickle cell disease
a. hereditary spherocytosis
&
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
Which of the folllowing can be treated with folic acid?
a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. thalassemia
e. sickle cell disease
c. G6PD deficiency
Patient comes in with thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, and organ damage. Which is the most likely diagnosis?
a. hemolytic disease of new born
b. hereditary spherocytosis
c. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
d. thrombotic microangiopathy
d. thrombotic microangiopathy
organ damage due to microscopic blood clots in capillaries
Which of the following causes intravascular hemolysis?
a. liver disease
b. infections
c. snake bites
d. membrane defects
c. snake bites
Which of the following causes jaundice?
a. conjugated bilirubin
b. unconjugated bilirubin
b. unconjugated bilirubin
T/F: coagulation inhibitors are suppressed in DIC
false, they’re consumed
Which of the following has lower levels in DIC?
a. platelets
b. fibrin degradation products
c. schistocytes
d. D-dimers
a. platelets
Which of the following causes shock in DIC?
a. activation of fibrogen via thrombin
b. activation of complement and kinin systems
c. entrapment and consumption of platelets
b. activation of complement and kinin systems
Which coagulation factor is the mediator of DIC?
a. CF 3
b. CF 8
c. CF 12
d. CF 13
a. CF 3 (tissue factor)
Which of the following is given to patients with DIC?
a. cryoprecipitate
b. FFP
c. PRBC
b. FFP
Which of the following describes a left shift?
a. premature release of lymphocytes
b. premature release of eosinophils
c. premature release of t cells
d. premature release of neutrophils
d. premature release of neutrophils
Which of the following may cause neutropenia?
a. felty’s syndrome
b. loeffler’s syndrome
c. hypereosinophilic syndrome
a. felty’s syndrome
Which is most abundant in a 3-year-old healthy child?
a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils
c. lymphocytes
Which of the following is the mediator of histamine?
a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils
a. basophils
Which of the following usually accompanies whooping cough?
a. basophilia
b. monocytosis
c. lymphocytosis
d. neutrophilia
c. lymphocytosis
Which of the following may cause eosinophilia?
a. felty’s syndrome
b. loeffler’s syndrome
b. loeffler’s syndrome
Which of the following phagocytosis antigen-antibody complexes?
a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils
b. eosinophils
In which type of cancer is the Philadelphia chromosome most frequent? A. Hairy cell leukemia (HCL) B. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
Which of the following is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor?
a. prednisone
b. asparaginase
c. hydroxyurea
d. imatinib
e. doxorubicin
d. imatinib
What’s the gold standard diagnostic method used to diagnose malignant lymphoid neoplasms?
a. Morphological assessment
b. Immunophenotyping
c. Cytogenetic studies
d. Molecular genetic analysis
a. Morphological assessment
Which TWO of the following are found on NK cells?
a. CD55
b. CD56
c. CD57
d. CD19
e. CD20
b. CD56
&
c. CD57
What’s the tests is used to find the neoplastic cells are lymphoid and myeloid?
a. Morphological assessment
b. Immunophenotyping
c. Cytogenetic studies
d. Molecular genetic analysis
b. Immunophenotyping
Which of the following is a result of a t(14;18) mutation?
a. hodgkins lymphoma
b. MGUS
c. follicular lymphoma
d. burkitts lymphoma
c. follicular lymphoma
Which of the following is a result of a t(4;18) mutation?
a. hodgkins lymphoma
b. MGUS
c. follicular lymphoma
d. burkitts lymphoma
d. burkitts lymphoma
