learning topic extra Q's Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following causes sideroblastic anemia?

a. high lead levels
b. hematopoietic cell destruction on the bone marrow
c. heme biosynthesis defect

A

c. heme biosynthesis defect (in erythroid precursors)

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2
Q

Which of the following is the treatment for acquired sideroblastic anemia?

a. vitamin B6
b. growth factors
c. chelation therapy
d. transfusion

A

b. growth factors

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3
Q

Schwachman-Diamond syndrome may cause which of the following?

a. aplastic anemia
b. sideroblastic anemia
c. lead poisoning
d. pernicious anemia

A

a. aplastic anemia

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4
Q

Which of the following is the treatment for X-linked Sideroblastic anemia?

a. vitamin B6
b. growth factors
c. immunosuppression
d. chelation therapy

A

a. vitamin B6

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5
Q

Which of the following is the treatment for aplastic anemia?

a. vitamin B6
b. growth factors
c. immunosuppression
d. chelation therapy

A

c. immunosuppression

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6
Q

Which of the following doesn’t depend on plasma volume?

a. Hb
b. HCT
c. MCV
d. RBC count

A

c. MCV

plasma volume effects red cell mass-RCM; RBC count, Hb, & HCT depend on RCM

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7
Q

X-ray of patient shows black-blue lines on epiphyses of long bone, which of the following is most likely?

a. aplastic anemia
b. lead poisoning
c. MDS
d. sideoblastic anemia

A

b. lead poisoning

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8
Q

Which of the following is a subtype of Myelodysplastic syndrome?

a. sideroblastic anemia
b. aplastic anemia
c. iron-deficiency anemia
d. pernicious anemia

A

a. sideroblastic anemia

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9
Q

Which of the following cells does cytomegalovirus replicate in?

a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. erythrocyte precursor
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes

A

a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte (PMNL)

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10
Q

Which of the following is true about parvovirus B19?

a. double-stranded DNA
b. enters cells via K blood antigen receptor
c. they attack rapidly dividing erythrocyte precursors

A

c. they attack rapidly dividing erythrocyte precursors

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11
Q

Which of the following cause fifth disease?

a. epstein-Barr virus
b. varicella-zoster virus
c. cytomegalovirus
d. parvovirus B19

A

d. parvovirus B19

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12
Q

Other than Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following viruses causes mononucleosis?

a. parainfluenza virus
b. varicella-zoster virus
c. cytomegalovirus
d. only Epstein-Barr virus causes mono

A

c. cytomegalovirus

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13
Q

Which of the following has NO association with malignancies?

a. HTLV-1
b. HTLV-2
c. EBV

A

b. HTLV-2

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14
Q

Which of the following cells does Epstein-Barr virus replicate in?

a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. erythrocyte precursor
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes

A

d. T lymphocytes

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15
Q

Which of the following cells does Parvovirus B19 replicate in?

a. polymorphonuclear leukocyte
b. erythrocyte precursor
c. B lymphocytes
d. T lymphocytes

A

b. erythrocyte precursor

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16
Q

Patient comes in with IM and has a negative heterophile antibody result. Which virus is the cause of his illness?

a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2
e. Parvovirus B19

A

b. CMV

negative heterophile= CMV
positive heterophile= EBV

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17
Q

Which of the viruses enter the cells via P blood antigen receptor?

a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2
e. Parvovirus B19

A

e. Parvovirus B19

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18
Q

Patient comes in with IM and sore throat. Which virus is the cause of his illness?

a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2
e. Parvovirus B19

A

a. EBV

sore throat=EBV

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19
Q

Which of the following indivisuals are assumed to be infectious?

a. ALT positive
b. TSP positive
c. HTLV antibody positive
d. T cell hairy leukemia positive

A

c. HTLV antibody positive

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20
Q

Indivisuals with which of the following viruses shouldn’t consume salted fish?

a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HTLV-1
d. HTLV-2

A

a. EBV

21
Q

Indivisuals with which of the following viruses have immuno-complexes in their circulation?

a. EBV
b. CMV
c. HAV
d. HBV

A

d. HBV

22
Q

Which of the following is the most sensitive test for intravascular anemia?

a. hemoglobinuria
b. hemosiderinuria
c. methemalbuminemia
d. direct coombs tests
e. indirect coombs tests

A

b. hemosiderinuria

23
Q

Which of the following has leg ulcers as one of the symptoms?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. thalassemia
e. sickle cell disease

A

e. sickle cell disease

24
Q

Which of the following diseases has mostly asymptomatic cases?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. thalassemia
e. sickle cell disease

A

b. hereditary elliptocytosis

25
Q

Which TWO of the following can be treated with splenecomy in severe cases?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. sickle cell disease

A

a. hereditary spherocytosis
&
b. hereditary elliptocytosis

26
Q

Which of the folllowing can be treated with folic acid?

a. hereditary spherocytosis
b. hereditary elliptocytosis
c. G6PD deficiency
d. thalassemia
e. sickle cell disease

A

c. G6PD deficiency

27
Q

Patient comes in with thrombocytopenia, hemolytic anemia, and organ damage. Which is the most likely diagnosis?

a. hemolytic disease of new born
b. hereditary spherocytosis
c. autoimmune hemolytic anemia
d. thrombotic microangiopathy

A

d. thrombotic microangiopathy

organ damage due to microscopic blood clots in capillaries

28
Q

Which of the following causes intravascular hemolysis?

a. liver disease
b. infections
c. snake bites
d. membrane defects

A

c. snake bites

29
Q

Which of the following causes jaundice?

a. conjugated bilirubin
b. unconjugated bilirubin

A

b. unconjugated bilirubin

30
Q

T/F: coagulation inhibitors are suppressed in DIC

A

false, they’re consumed

31
Q

Which of the following has lower levels in DIC?

a. platelets
b. fibrin degradation products
c. schistocytes
d. D-dimers

A

a. platelets

32
Q

Which of the following causes shock in DIC?

a. activation of fibrogen via thrombin
b. activation of complement and kinin systems
c. entrapment and consumption of platelets

A

b. activation of complement and kinin systems

33
Q

Which coagulation factor is the mediator of DIC?

a. CF 3
b. CF 8
c. CF 12
d. CF 13

A

a. CF 3 (tissue factor)

34
Q

Which of the following is given to patients with DIC?

a. cryoprecipitate
b. FFP
c. PRBC

A

b. FFP

35
Q

Which of the following describes a left shift?

a. premature release of lymphocytes
b. premature release of eosinophils
c. premature release of t cells
d. premature release of neutrophils

A

d. premature release of neutrophils

36
Q

Which of the following may cause neutropenia?

a. felty’s syndrome
b. loeffler’s syndrome
c. hypereosinophilic syndrome

A

a. felty’s syndrome

37
Q

Which is most abundant in a 3-year-old healthy child?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils

A

c. lymphocytes

38
Q

Which of the following is the mediator of histamine?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils

A

a. basophils

39
Q

Which of the following usually accompanies whooping cough?

a. basophilia
b. monocytosis
c. lymphocytosis
d. neutrophilia

A

c. lymphocytosis

40
Q

Which of the following may cause eosinophilia?

a. felty’s syndrome
b. loeffler’s syndrome

A

b. loeffler’s syndrome

41
Q

Which of the following phagocytosis antigen-antibody complexes?

a. basophils
b. eosinophils
c. lymphocytes
d. neutrophils

A

b. eosinophils

42
Q
In which type of cancer is the Philadelphia chromosome most frequent? 
A. Hairy cell leukemia (HCL) 
B. Acute myeloid leukemia (AML) 
C. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) 
D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)
A

D. Chronic myeloid leukemia (CML)

43
Q

Which of the following is a tyrosine kinase inhibitor?

a. prednisone
b. asparaginase
c. hydroxyurea
d. imatinib
e. doxorubicin

A

d. imatinib

44
Q

What’s the gold standard diagnostic method used to diagnose malignant lymphoid neoplasms?

a. Morphological assessment
b. Immunophenotyping
c. Cytogenetic studies
d. Molecular genetic analysis

A

a. Morphological assessment

45
Q

Which TWO of the following are found on NK cells?

a. CD55
b. CD56
c. CD57
d. CD19
e. CD20

A

b. CD56
&
c. CD57

46
Q

What’s the tests is used to find the neoplastic cells are lymphoid and myeloid?

a. Morphological assessment
b. Immunophenotyping
c. Cytogenetic studies
d. Molecular genetic analysis

A

b. Immunophenotyping

47
Q

Which of the following is a result of a t(14;18) mutation?

a. hodgkins lymphoma
b. MGUS
c. follicular lymphoma
d. burkitts lymphoma

A

c. follicular lymphoma

48
Q

Which of the following is a result of a t(4;18) mutation?

a. hodgkins lymphoma
b. MGUS
c. follicular lymphoma
d. burkitts lymphoma

A

d. burkitts lymphoma