Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Blood Module - 3rd year > 2008 module exam > Flashcards

2008 module exam Flashcards

1
Q

What will be less in a long term renal failure patient?

A

Erythroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a correct order?

a. Yolk sac, liver & spleen & secondary lymphoid tissue, bone marrow
b. Amnion, lymphoid tissue, spleen
c. Placenta, spleen, BM, lymphoid

A

a. Yolk sac, liver & spleen & secondary lymphoid tissue, bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If platelet deficiency, which lineage is affected?

a. Myeloblast
b. Monoblast
c. Megakaryoblast
d. lymphoblast

A

c. Megakaryoblast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Child with swollen lymph nodes, heterophile positive blood. what virus does he have?

A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A man with tropical spastic paraparesis, what virus does he have?

A

HTLV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A chinese baby with nasopharyngeal carcinoma, what virus does he have?

A

EBV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In porphyria cutanea trada, taking sulfonamide, an antibiotic, provokes the symptoms ..why?

a. It promotes immunoglobulin synthesis
b. It activates cytochrome 450 pathway

A

b. It activates cytochrome 450 pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the purpose of giving hemin as a treatment for porphyria?

A

It inhibits delta-ALA synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What’s the most important enzyme in porphyrin synthesis

A

Delta-ALA synthase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If there is an increase in heme production, what occurs as a form of regulation?

A

Increase synthesis of globin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the compound in which hemoglobin Fe has six bonds?

a. Oxyhemoglobin
b. Deoxyhemoglobin
c. Methemoglobin
d. Carboxyhemoglobin
e. Hemoglobin

A

a. Oxyhemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What molecule is a negative effector in O2 binding to hemoglobin?

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Carbon monoxide

A

a. Carbon dioxide (Bohr Effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is produced by RBC to control hemoglobin affinity to oxygen?

A

2,3 bisphosphoglycerate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What enzyme deficiency induces RBC hemolysis?

A

Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the oxygen affinity curve of myoglobin versus hemoglobin. (picture question)

A 
myoglobin= hyperbola
hemoglobin= sigmoid
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where is folate absorbed?

a. Terminal ilium
b. Duodenum
c. Juejenum
d. Large intestine
e. Stomach

A

c. Juejenum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What will be highly excreted in a patient with ATP:cobalamine adenosyl transferase deficiency?

a. Melanoic acid
b. Hemocysteine
c. Methylmelanolic acid

A

c. Methylmelanolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In patient with pancreatic insufficiency, which molecule will interfere with cobalamine absorption?

A

Haptocorrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In which case is hepcidin inhibited?

A

Increased erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What do type 2 hypersensitivity reactions target?

A

Membrane bound antibiotic

the drug is adsorbed into plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What immunoglobulin causes hemolytic anemia in fetus?

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which is true about blood grouping?

a. People with blood group B have anti-B Ab
b. People with blood group A don’t express anti A Ab
c. AB are universal donors

A

b. People with blood group A don’t express anti A Ab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Anemia in Patient with gastric bypass due to morbid obesity + (picture of hypersegmented neutrophil). What is the cause?

A

B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Patient with macrocytic anemia. Tests show Positive anti-intrinsic factor .Positive antibodies against parietal cells. What is the patient most likely to suffer from?

a. MDS
b. Thalassemia major
c. Pernicious anemia

A

c. Pernicious anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Patient who is known to have long standing anemia and is transfusion dependent .She developed spleenomagaly & bronze discoloration .What does she likely suffer from?

a. MDS
b. Thalassemia major
c. Pernicious anemia

A

b. Thalassemia major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Increased creatinine level is a side effect of which drug?

A

Deferasirox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which drug requires weekly CBC for risk of agranulocytosis& neutropenia?

A

Deferiprone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Patient who requires repeated blood transfusion is given deferoxamine, why?

A

To excrete Fe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Why do RBCs produce NADH?

a. To produce ATP
b. To reduce methemoglobin
c. To reduce lactate

A

b. To reduce methemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is phosphatidyl serine kept on the inner surface?

A

By action of flippase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Patient with hereditary spherocytosis. What is the pathogenesis?

A

cytoskeleton-protein interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which is least likely associated with hereditary spherocytosis?

a. Spectrin
b. GLUT
c. Actin
d. Band 4.2
e. Band 4.2
f. Anion exchanger
g. Ankyrin

A

b. GLUT

not sure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In HbC disease, hemoglobin precipitates due to water loss. What is the cause of water loss?

a. Activation of K channels
b. Activation of Na channels

A

a. Activation of K channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In HbS disease, why does it migrate slower in protein electrophoresis?

a. Less charge
b. Due to its sickle shape

A

a. Less charge

35
Q

A woman developed anemia after eating 3 falafel sandwiches. CBC given .What is the pathogenesis of this condition?

A

Oxidative damage to RBC membrane

36
Q

A woman developed anemia after eating 3 falafel sandwiches. What test would you do to confirm your diagnoisis?

A

Measure G6PD level

37
Q

Cancer patient on chemotherapy has developed petechial rash. Coagulation profile is normal. What must you give him?

A

Platelets

38
Q

An elderly man developed a chest infection secondary to liver disease. What type of blood transfusion does he require?

A

Fresh frozen plasma

39
Q

What is released to activate FXII in the intrinsic pathway?

a. Acidic Phospholipids
b. Tissue factor

A

a. Acidic Phospholipids (not 100% sure)

40
Q

What mediates fibrinogen to fibrin?

A

Thrombin

41
Q

What mediates formation of primary hemostatic plug

a. Platelets
b. Thromboxane
c. vWF

A

a. Platelets

42
Q

what promotes aggregation of platelets? Or what attracts platelets to the site of clot?

A

Thromboxane & ADP

43
Q

What is the role of vWF?

A

Binds & stabilizes F VIII

44
Q

What requires vitamin K?

A

Gla proteins

45
Q

What’s the role of bradykinin

A

Stimulates the release of t-PA from endothelial cells

46
Q

What constitutes the pale region of thrombus?

a. Fibrin & platelets
b. Fibrin & RBC

A

a. Fibrin & platelets

47
Q

What does thrombomodulin activates?

A

Protein C

48
Q

Prolonged APTT that is not corrected by normal plasma. Whats the diagnosis?

A

Lupus anticoagulant

49
Q

Which of the following supports that the cause of bleeding is due to platelets rather than coagulation problem?

a. Hemarthrosis
b. Immediate and profuse bleeding after tooth extraction
c. Mucocutanous bleeding

A

c. Mucocutanous bleeding

50
Q

Patient with chest infection .Prolonged PT & APTT .High level of D dimer .Low level of platelets. What is the diagnosis?

A

DIC

51
Q

Ahmad was treated with anticoagulant, but developed bleeding which was controlled by protamine sulphate. What anticoagulant was he given?

a. Heparin
b. Warfarin

A

a. Heparin

52
Q

Why does streptokinase cause systemic fibrinolysis while t-PA doesn’t?

a. Streptokinase is endogenous
b. Because it binds plasminogen
c. Streptokinase is more potentiative than t-PA
d. streptokinase binds fibrin-bound as well as free plasminogen, while tPA only binds fibrin-bound plasminogen

A

d. streptokinase binds fibrin-bound as well as free plasminogen, while tPA only binds fibrin-bound plasminogen

53
Q

A girl with an infection was given amoxicillin, 8 days later, she later developed erythematous rash. What will you find?

a. Neutropilia
b. Esinophilia
c. Basophilia

A

b. Esinophilia

54
Q

how do esinophils kill?

a. Cytotoxicity
b. phagocytosis

A

a. Cytotoxicity

55
Q

What is used to mobilize stem cells from the bone marrow of the donor in stem cell transplant?

A

CSF

56
Q

What cause trilineage suppression in TB?

A

TNF

57
Q

What is homing is mediated by?

A

Adhesion molecules

58
Q

What is involved in respiratory burst?

A

Oxygen reactive mediators

59
Q

A woman with petechial rash & menorrhagia .high WBC, low RBC & platelets, petechial rash. PBS shows immature cells .What is likely the diagnosis?

a. Megaloblastic anemia
b. Immune mediated reaction
c. BM infiltration
d. Acute leukemia

A

d. Acute leukemia

60
Q

How will you confirm the diagnosis of Acute leukemia?

a. Biopsy of skin with petechial rash
b. VB12 level
c. Restocitin
d. Coagulation profile
e. BM examination

A

e. BM examination

61
Q

A child with joint pain and bleeding, whats the diagnosis?

A

F VIII defeciency

62
Q

A patient with high RBC. High hematocrit. High WBC, high platelets. What’s the diagnosis?

A

PV

63
Q

Whats the abnormality in PV?

A

JAK kinase gain of function

64
Q

What is characterized by philadelphia chromosome?

A

CML

65
Q

What causes CML to develop into its blast crisis?

a. Chromosomal trisomies
b. P 53 mutation
c. Chr 16 inversion

A

a. Chromosomal trisomies

66
Q

Which conditionis associated with intracytoplasmic rods?

A

AML

67
Q

Abnormality associated with AML

a. RARA transcription factor activation
b. P53 gene deletion
c. 2 philadelphia chromosomes
d. Chromosome 16 inversion

A

d. Chromosome 16 inversion

68
Q

Where do thymocytes mature?

A

Thymus

69
Q

What is the difference between Th1 & Th2?

A

Th1 activate cell mediated immunity while Th2 doesn’t

70
Q

What produces cytokines to activate production of antibodies?

a. Th1
b. Th2

A

Tb. Th2

71
Q

What suppresses T cell function activation?

A

T reg

72
Q

Patient with lymphadenopathy, light chain restriction, spherocytes, anemia .What is the pathogenesis of anemia?

A

Immune mediated destruction

73
Q

Patient with lymphadenopathy. Biopsy shows binucleated cells. What’s the diagnosis?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

74
Q

A patient with lymphadenopathy – follicular pattern. What is the most important diagnostic test?

a. Cytochemistry
b. Cytogenic analysis

A

b. Cytogenic analysis

75
Q

What is multiple myeloma?

a. Bence Jones proteins in urine
b. Low calcium level
c. Polyclonal indication in gel electrophoresis

A

a. Bence Jones proteins in urine

76
Q

A febrile patient with atypical lymphocytes. What is the cause?

A

Viral infection

77
Q

A woman with neutrophilia, fever, & cough. What is the cause?

A

Bacterial infection

78
Q

A patient with metastatic prostate cancer. Normal MCV, low Hb, normal platelets, low WBC. What is mechanism of disease?

a. Chronic blood loss
b. Ineffective erythropoiesis
c. Suppressed erythropiotic activity
d. Chronic blood loss

A

c. Suppressed erythropiotic activity

79
Q

A man with microcytic hypochromic anemia .What might be the cause?

A

Chronic blood loss

80
Q

What is true about Mercaptopurine?

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis

81
Q

Premature baby with bleeding, what’s the cause?

A

vit k deficiency

82
Q

Which immunoglobulin is most commonly associated with multiple myeloma?

A

IgG

83
Q

If you suspect suppressed erythropiotic activity, what test must you use to confirm your diagnosis?

a. Erythropoietin level
b. Ferritin level
c. BM examination

A

c. BM examination

Blood Module - 3rd year (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions