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Simmons NURP 501 Exam 1 > Week 3 Practice Questions from the Book > Flashcards

Week 3 Practice Questions from the Book Flashcards

1
Q 
Which of the following is considered the most important muscle of the pelvic floor?
A. Urethral
B. Piriformis
C. Levator ani
D. Coccygeus
A

C. Levator ani

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2
Q

T/F The innominate bones consist of the sacrum, ischium, and ilium.

A

False. The innominate bones consist of the pubis, the ischium, and the ilium, all of which are fused together at the acetabulum.

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3
Q 
The fundus, body, and cervix are regions of the:
A. vagina
B. fallopian tubes
C. urethra
D. uterus
A

D. uterus

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4
Q

T/F The vulva is the externally visible outer genitalia.

A

True

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5
Q 
Which of the following produces milk during lactation?
A. The lymph nodes
B. The lactiferous ducts
C. The alveoli
D. Montgomery's glands
A

C. The alveoli

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6
Q

T/F Oxytocin, released from the pituitary, stimulates milk production.

A

False

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7
Q 
Which of the following hormones is responsible for regulating the gynecologic organ activities?
A. Adrenocorticotropin (ACTH)
B. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Growth hormone (GH)
D. Prolactin (PRL)
A

B. Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

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8
Q

T/F The most relevant factor in determining the onset of puberty and menstruation in young women is the ratio of total body weight to lean body weight.

A

True

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9
Q

T/F A woman’s breasts’ singular function in Western society is to serve a maternal role.

A

False. In Western society, it often seems that a woman’s breasts have two functions or roles: one that is sexual, and one that is maternal.

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10
Q 
In which of the following phases of the ovarian cycle does the mature ovum release from the follicle after a surge in a woman's LH and estrogen levels?
A. Luteal
B. Follicular
C. Ovulatory
D. Secretory
A

C. Ovulatory

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11
Q

T/F the Bartholin’s gland is responsible for the secretion of lubrication during a woman’s sexual arousal.

A

True

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12
Q 
Which of the following is the most frequent reason a woman visits her clinician?
A. Changes in menstruation
B. STIs
C. Inability to achieve sexual arousal
D. Information about contraceptives
A

A. Changes in menstruation

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13
Q

Preparing the mammary gland for lactation and synthesizing milk is the responsibility of the hormone _____.

A

Prolactin

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14
Q

The Caldwell-Moloy classification is the best-known categorization of the female _____.

A

Pelvis

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15
Q

T/F Varying levels of gonadotropic hormones control the monthly rhythmic functioning of the menstrual cycle.

A

True

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16
Q 
Which of the following is responsible for the changing colors and textures of a woman's ovaries?
A. Disease
B. Hormones
C. Age and reproductive stage
D. Sexual arousal
A

C. Age and reproductive stage

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17
Q

The _____ layer of the fallopian tube moves the ovum toward the uterus through wavelike contractions of smooth muscle layers.

A

Muscularis

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18
Q

T/F The appearance, texture, and amount of a woman’s cervical mucus does not change throughout the ovulation and menstruation phases.

A

False. After menstruation, the cervical mucus is scant and viscous. During the late follicular phase, it becomes clear, copious, and elastic. The quantity of cervical mucus increases 30-fold compared to the early follicular phase and can stretch to at least 6 cm.

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19
Q 
A complete pregnancy history can be obtained using the \_\_\_\_\_ system.
A. USPSTF
B. GTPLA
C. open-ended questions
D. OLDCARTS
A

B. GTPLA

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20
Q

T/F Many clinicians believe that about 75% of the information necessary for a diagnosis comes directly from the health history.

A

False. 90%.

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21
Q 
A bulge on the anterior vaginal wall, visible when a woman coughs or bears down, may indicate a(n):
A. STI
B. neovagina
C. Cystocele
D. Rectocele
A

C. Cystocele

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22
Q

T/F Because of the controversy regarding the efficacy of breast self-exams, breast examinations are no longer performed by health professionals.

A

False. It is no longer recommended to teach self-breast exams.

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23
Q 
The health professional's final clinical responsibility for the gynecological exam is:
A. a follow-up visit
B. documentation of findings
C. taking time to answer questions
D. explanation of findings
A

B. documentation of findings

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24
Q

T/F The level of detailed explanation and description of abnormal findings from an exam may depend on the degree of severity of the finding.

A

True

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25
Q

in order to gather information about a woman’s pregnancies, a clinician will use the five-digit numeric summary _____.

A

GTPAL

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26
Q 
Tammy's uterus is in a retroflexed position. Which of the following types of exams is necessary to accomplish a complete evaluation?
A. Adnexal exam
B. Bimanual exam
C. Speculum exam
D. Rectovaginal exam
A

D. Rectovaginal exam

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27
Q

T/F The steps, timing, and procedures used in routine physical exams are standardized by the National Board of Medicine for all gynecological and primary care patients.

A

False. What constitutes a complete physical examination in the ambulatory gynecology or primary care setting is not standardized.

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28
Q

T/F A healthy cervix is pink, but can come in various shapes, sizes, and appearances.

A

True

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29
Q

Several possible maneuvers may be necessary to examine the _____ in the bimanual exam depending on its anterior, midposition, or posterior position.

A

Uterus

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30
Q

What is an advantage to using a self-administered health questionnaire to gather comprehensive information about a patient?
A. The patient is able to omit questions.
B. A verbal and visual review with a nurse helps clarify initial answers.
C. Writing makes information about uncomfortable topics easier to share.
D. Patients take more time to complete the answers.

A

C. Writing makes information about uncomfortable topics easier to share.

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31
Q

T/F Speculum exam is used mainly for observation and usually does not include the gathering of specimens for routine testing.

A

False

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32
Q 
In what part of the breast do most malignancies develop?
A. The upper outer quadrant
B. The upper inner quadrant
C. The lower outer quadrant
D. The lower inner quadrant
A

A. The upper outer quadrant

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33
Q

T/F Discussion of contraceptive use and method is a part of a woman’s gynecologic health history that should be gathered by her clinician.

A

True

34
Q

In a patient’s general physical exam, exploration of the _____ includes inspecting the skin, palpating superficially and deeply in all areas including the inguinal lymph nodes.

A

Abdomen

35
Q

T/F an attempted but not completed sex act cannot be considered sexual violence.

A

False

36
Q

T/F There is no clinical definition for sexual assault or rape.

A

True

37
Q 
The National Intimate Partner and Sexual Violence Survey found that \_\_\_\_\_ women had a higher incidence of rape.
A. black
B. multiracial
C. Hispanic
D. white
A

B. multiracial

38
Q

T/F Women ages 25-30 have the highest incidence of rape and sexual assault in the country.

A

False. 18-24 years have the highest incidence.

39
Q

A women who has been sexually assaulted is more likely to experience severe trauma if:
A. the assault is completed rather than attempted.
B. she has not experienced psychological trauma in the past.
C. the assailant is a stranger.
D. she tries to fight back.

A

A. the assault is completed rather than attempted.

40
Q

T/F The most frequently diagnosed STI among women who have been assaulted is HIV.

A

False. The most frequently diagnosed are chlamydia, gonorrhea, trich, and bacterial vaginosis.

41
Q 
NAATs can detect the presence of organisms responsible for:
A. Hep B
B. HIV
C. Syphilis
D. Gonorrhea
A

D. Gonorrhea

42
Q

T/F Before caring for a sexual assault victim, clinicians must obtain informed consent for medical evaluation and treatment and informed consent to collect evidence.

A

True.

43
Q 
The CDC recommends that a woman who has not been previously vaccinated receive a vaccine for \_\_\_\_\_ during the initial evaluation.
A. Trich
B. Gonorrhea
C. HBV
D. Chlamydia
A

C. HBV

44
Q 
Emergency contraceptive therapy may be given up to a maximum of \_\_\_\_\_ following assault.
A. 5 days
B. 48 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 10 days
A

A. 5 days

45
Q

_____ may help to increase compliance with the treatment regimen and follow-up services.
A. Reporting assault to the authorities
B. Clinician contact with the woman via phone or text message within 48 hours of the initial evaluation
C. Psychological evaluation
D. Extensive explanation of the importance of following the clinician’s instructions and warnings of the possible consequences of noncompliance.

A

B. Clinician contact with the woman via phone or text message within 48 hours of the initial evaluation

46
Q

T/F Medical follow-up should occur within 24-48 hours after the assault.

A

False. Medical follow-up should occur within 1-2 weeks after the assault.

47
Q 
Long-term resources provided by an advocacy group may include:
A. medical treatment.
B. referrals.
C. providing information.
D. counseling.
A

D. counseling.

Referrals and information (B and C) are some of there other services, but not the long-term services.

48
Q

T/F Advocacy services help women deal with the chronic after effects of sexual violence.

A

True

49
Q

T/F Clinicians should avoid getting involved in law enforcement regarding a patient’s sexual assault and should instead refer the woman to an advocacy agency.

A

False

50
Q

T/F A primary consideration for the health of a victim of sexual assault is to find a place to stay if it is unsafe to return home.

A

True

51
Q 
People \_\_\_\_\_ are nearly 3x more likely to experience violent victimization.
A. who did not finish college
B. who are elderly
C. who are immigrants
D. with disabilities
A

D. with disabilities

52
Q

T/F Elderly women are more likely to experience sexual assault in an institutional setting than at home.

A

True

53
Q

Sexual assault survivors who suffer from PTSD often use drugs and alcohol as _____.

A

Coping mechanisms

54
Q

The psychological health of women who are victims of sexual assault are most affected by which of the following?
A. The response of her support structure.
B. The identity of the assailant.
C. The severity of the assault.
D. The amount of time that passes before she seeks clinical care.

A

A. The response of her support structure.

55
Q

T/F Statistics reported by national studies are often misrepresented d/t the amount of rape and sexual violence incidences that are not reported.

A

True

56
Q 
Emily has a coworker who is constantly finding ways to touch her in the workplace. He has patted her butt with his hand as a joke and whenever he is in close proximity to her he finds a way to reach for items and brush her breasts. Which of the following types of sexual violence does this describe?
A. Completed sex act
B. Attempted sex act
C. Abusive sexual contact
D. Noncontact sexual abuse
A

C. Abusive sexual contact

57
Q 
Which of the following groups are 3x more likely to be victims of sexual assault?
A. The elderly
B. Minority women
C. LGBT persons
D. The disabled
A

D. The disabled

58
Q

T/F When taking photographs of a woman who has experienced sexual assault, one is taken from a position to provide identification of the body structure, one is a close-up image of the injury, and one is taken with a measuring device so the size of the injury can be documented.

A

True

59
Q

A _____ is a clinician who has completed the training required to care for sexual assault victims and is the recommended initiator of care for victims by the Department of Justice.

A

SAFE (Sexual Assault Forensic Examiner)

60
Q

What must be done before a clinician is able to examine a victim of sexual assault?
A. Notification of the authorities.
B. Getting the consent of the victim for treatment and collection of evidence.
C. Interviewing the victim that provides details of the assault.
D. Signing of a confidentiality agreement.

A

B. Getting the consent of the victim for treatment and collection of evidence.

61
Q

Using a collection kit, _____ samples are collected from a patient if their history and clinical exams indicate an incidence of sexual assault.

A

Evidentiary

62
Q

T/F Women who are victims of sexual assault are more likely to report the event if it occurred with an intimate partner, friend, family member, or acquaintance.

A

False

63
Q 
Differentiated-type VIN:
A. is associated with chronic inflammatory infections.
B. does not have a genetic component.
C. is most often found in younger women.
D. is closely related to HPV.
A

A. is associated with chronic inflammatory infections.

64
Q

T/F In the TNM classification system, the “T” describes the primary tumor according to its size and location.

A

True

65
Q 
It is generally accepted that a woman must be infected with \_\_\_\_\_ before she develops cervical cancer.
A. a UTI
B. PID
C. HIV
D. HPV
A

D. HPV

66
Q

T/F White women have a higher incidence of diagnosis of mortality from cervical cancer than do African American or Hispanic women.

A

False

67
Q 
In FIGO stage \_\_\_\_\_, the cancer has invaded beyond the uterus and cervix but is not yet in the pelvis.
A. II
B. III
C. IIIC1
D. IB
A

B. III

68
Q

T/F A Pap test is the most commonly used method for detecting endometrial cancer.

A

False

69
Q 
The most important risk factor for ovarian cancer is:
A. hysterectomy
B. obesity.
C. the presence of HPV.
D. family history.
A

D. family history.

70
Q

T/F Because symptoms of ovarian cancer are vague, it is often not diagnosed until it has reached an advanced stage.

A

True

71
Q

T/F There is no screening test for vulvar cancer and its diagnosis can only be achieved through visual identification and biopsy confirmation.

A

True

72
Q

Caused by trauma or irritation, _____ is a possible differential diagnosis of cervical cancer that must be ruled out before a cancer diagnosis.

A

cervicitis

73
Q

T/F Due to the increased risk of developing endometrial cancer for obese physically inactive women, high-resource countries have a higher incidence of endometrial caner than low-resource countries.

A

True

74
Q

The side effects of vulvar cancer treatments can vary between each individual but _____ dysfunction is usually a common side effect of most treatments and can cause a woman grief and loss over the ability to enjoy normal experiences within this area.

A

sexual

75
Q 
Which of the following factors can double the risk of developing cervical cancer?
A. Use of combined COCs.
B. Use of an IUD.
C. Being sexually active.
D. Lack of sexual activity.
A

A. Use of combined COCs.

76
Q

T/F From highest to lowest, the mortality of gynecologic cancers are vulvar cancers, endometrial cancer, and ovarian cancer.

A

False

77
Q

T/F Cervical cancer rates have increased over the last 30 years due to lack of screening procedures.

A

False

78
Q 
Which of the following procedures are most commonly used to assess uterine bleeding and diagnose endometrial cancer?
A. Transvaginal US
B. Endometrial biopsy
C. D and C
D. Hysteroscopy
A

C. D and C

79
Q

Approximately 75% of women diagnosed with _____ cancer have an advanced form of the disease at the time of diagnosis, and even with treatment their 10-year survival rate is only 10%.

A

ovarian

80
Q 
Which of the following groups of women are most affected by vulvar cancer?
A. Premenopausal women
B. Postmenopausal women
C. Adolescents
D. Women who have not been pregnant
A

B. Postmenopausal women

Simmons NURP 501 Exam 1 (63 decks)

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