Weapons of Mass Destruction Flashcards
A mixture of chemicals in a bottle that cause an exothermic reaction that over pressurizes and ruptures the container
Bottle bomb
Use of one sealed container which is generally flipped upside down to cause the reaction needed to turn several toxic ingredients into methamphetamine
Single Pot Method
A mixture of chemicals in a bottle that cause an exothermic reaction that over pressurizes and ruptures the container
Bottle bomb
Explosive, incendiary, poison gas, bomb, grenade, or rocket have any propellant charge of more than 4 ounces, missile having an explosive or incendiary charge of more than 1/4 ounce, or mine or similar device. Any weapon involving a disease organism. Any weapon that is designed to release radiation at a level dangerous to human life
Weapons of mass destruction
What are the four main categories of WMDs?
CBRNE (chemical, biological, radiological/nuclear, and explosive)
Where should units stage on WMD events?
Away from the line of sight of the target area, away from buildings with large amounts of glass, and use distant structural or natural barriers for protection
What is the definition of terrorism per 28 Code of Federal Regulations?
The unlawful use of force and violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government, the civilian population or any segment there of, and furtherance of political or social objectives
What does SLUDGEM stand for?
Salivation, lacrimation, urination, defication, gastrointestinal upset, emesis, and miosis
What is the name of the antidotes for counteracting certain Chemical Warfare Agents and organophosphates?
CHEMPACKS. Larger quantities are available in the strategic national stock pile (SNS) and at the CDC for the general population
What are the two types of decontamination that are available to first responders?
Emergency gross decontamination and mass decontamination
How far apart should engines be placed for a mass casualty Decon corridor?
15 to 20 feet
Do not use radios within______ feet of the suspected clandestine lab
300 feet
Who assists with locating an identifying secondary devices in their disposal?
Explosive Ordinance Disposal (EOD)
What kind of decon is established for hazardous material team members?
Technical Decon
What should you not use around potentially explosive devices?
Anything that gives off electromagnetic radiation (Two way radio’s, radar, television transmitting devices) within 300 feet
What is the minimum evacuation distance for explosives?
The range at which life-threatening injury from the blast fragmentation hazards is unlikely
What should not be used as indication of radiological materials being involved?
The immediate signs and symptoms of victims
How far should the reconnaissance group (first arriving suppression/EMS unit) consider staging away from the scene?
A minimum of 500 feet from the sight of where debris or damages are first encountered
When can you enter into a post blast area?
Should be limited to life safety purposes only
What are the two categories of explosives?
High order: produce a deafening, supersonic, over pressurization shockwave, and Low order: creates a supersonic explosion but lacks the over-pressurization
What are the four basic mechanisms of blast injuries?
Primary, secondary, tertiary, and quandary
What is a primary blast injury?
Unique to high explosives. Results from the over -pressurization wave with body surfaces
What is a secondary blast injury?
Results from flying debris and bomb fragments
What is a tertiary blast injury?
Results from flying debris and bomb fragments from the bomb wind
What is a quaternary blast injury?
All explosive related injuries, illnesses, or disease not dues to the first three. Includes complications from preexisting conditions, thermal injuries from the blast, crush injuries, head injuries, respiratory complications or angina
What are blast waves associated with?
High order explosives only
A force of superheated airflow associated with both high and low order explosives
Blast wind
Eye and throat problems associated with quantities of airborne pulverized concrete throughout the blast area
Gray out
What are the two ways biological agents will present?
Focused: involve a single known source of contamination
Public Health Emergency: will involve a large number of victims with similar symptoms to report to medical
What is the most important route of exposure to biological agents?
Inhalation, other ways are also possible such as tainted food
What are the two ways harm can occur in biological events?
Primary: Harm is etiological.
Secondary: Harm is chemical and mechanical
What is the incubation period for bacteria and viruses?
Typically ranges from several days to weeks. Toxins my manifest within hours
What are examples of biological agents?
Anthrax, ricin, smallpox, plague, botulism
What are the two groups of chemical agents?
Toxic industrial chemicals (TIC) and chemical warfare agents (CWA)
What does the persistence of chemical warefare agents depend on?
What does the persistence of CWA’s depend on?
Why are chemical weapons very difficult to effectively disseminate?
Because most are heavier than air and have low vapor pressure
When will decon be most effective for chemical weapon attacks?
When will decon be most effective be for chemical weapon attacks?
This radiation has enough energy to remove electrons from the material it passes through, classified as Alpha Beta and Gamma
Ionizing
What radiation is fully absorbed within the 1st mm of an exposed tissue mass?
Alpha
What is the natural background radiation in the DC area?
5 to 20 UR/hr (microRoentgen/hr)
What is the average radiation dose per year?
360 milliRem (mR)
What is the occupation exposure limit for radiation?
5R per year
A unit of measurement for the exposure of X-rays and gamma rays.
Roentgen
What is ALARA?
As low as reasonably achievable.
The basic principles of ALARA are:
- Maximize distance,
- Minimize exposure time, and
- Maximize shielding
What are the COG radiation adopted dose limits?
5R for all activities,
10R to protect major property,
25R for life saving or protection of large populations,
> 25R for life-saving but only by volunteers who understand the risks
What is the most dangerous type of radiation exposure?
Inhalation, SCBA is your best production
It must be noted emphatically that radioactive contamination, whether internal or external, is almost never immediately life threatening and, therefore, a radiological assessment or decontamination should never take precedence over_________
significant medical condition
What should the control zone be at RDD (radiological dispersal device) incidents if no victims are present?
Two times background or 50 microRoatgen/hr
What are the maximum zone dose rate limits for RDD with the life safety?
Cold zone:2mR/hr,
warm zone: 2mR to 10R/hour,
hot zone: over 10 R/hour,
absolute turn back: 200R/hour
When wearing external dosimeters, they should be
read and reported every
15 minutes
What are the two most common types of Clandestine labs?
Illicit/illegal drugs and homemade explosives labs
What is the acronym if you think you may have encountered a clandestine lab?
LQC,
location, quantity, combination
What is often associated with Clandestine labs?
Booby-traps
What is the most commonly used gas for chemical suicides?
Hydrogen sulfide
__________has been used as a method for committing suicide in two documented cases in Loudoun County,
Aluminum Phosphide
To survey external surfaces of people and objects using radiological
meters and probes.
Radiological Frisking
Any organism (usually living) capable of producing serious disease or death, such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses.
Pathogen
