Weapons Flashcards
1
Q
Who is the weapons department head (Gun Boss)?
A
LT Barbra
2
Q
Who is the Ordnance handling officer (OHO)?
A
LTJG Fennell
3
Q
What are the five divisions in the weapons Department?
A
G1, G2, G3, G4, G5
4
Q
What division is responsible for Flight Deck and AWSE/731?
A
G1
5
Q
Which division is responsible for the armory?
A
G2
6
Q
Which division is responsible for the magazine crew?
A
G3
7
Q
Which division Is responsible for security?
A
G4
8
Q
Which division is responsible for ordinance control / admin?
A
G5
9
Q
Where’s the G1 Flight Deck located?
A
Starboard Island
10
Q
Where’s the G1 ASWE/731 located?
A
01 level Hangar Bay
11
Q
Where’s the G2 Armory located?
A
Primary - starboard mess decks
Secondary – upper V
Troop – ships gym
12
Q
Where’s the G3 magazine crew located?
A
Cargo 4 - located by the CMC office
Cargo 5 - located Port of mess decks
Cargo 6 - below 3M office
13
Q
Where’s the G4 security located?
A
Starboard Galley by CPO mess
14
Q
Where’s the G5 ordinance control / admin located?
A
01 level above MR shop
15
Q
Which weapons division is responsible for the assembly/ disassembly loading / unloading of rockets, test bobs fin, issue, receipt in stowage of already service ammunition?
A
G1 Flight Deck
16
Q
Which weapons division is responsible for the build-up, configure, issue, troubleshoot and maintain support equipment for ordinance?
A
G1 AWSE/731 (Aviation weapons support equipment)
17
Q
Which weapons division is responsible for the upkeep, maintenance and meaning of ships 50 cal, 25 mm, magazine Sprinklers and small arms?
A
G2 Armory
18
Q
Which weapons division is responsible for the receipt, tissue, storage, segregation, ordinance, breakouts, buildup and configuration?
A
G3 magazine crew
19
Q
Which weapons division is responsible for the MAs?
A
G4 security
20
Q
Which weapons division is responsible for the ordering ammunition, managing Ordnance movement and expenditures?
A
G5 ordinance control/admin
21
Q
What does NMC stand for?
A
Naval Munitions command
22
Q
Ordinance control uses OIS, what does it stand for?
A
Ordnance information system
23
Q
What was OIS formerly known as?
A
ROLMS - Retail ordinance Logistics information system
24
Q
Which program was established by the chief of Naval operations as a result of the catastrophic Mark (MK) 24 parachute flare accident on board the USS Oriskany that led to significant loss of life and major ship damage?
A
Ammunition explosive handling Personnel qualification and certification (QUAL/CERT) program
25
How long is the QUAL/CERT valid for?
Till the last day of the 12th month
26
What is the identifying Mark for personnel who are qualified and certified for on the ship?
Red jersey with black stripe
27
What pertains to controlling missions to keep weapons from prematurely detonating?
Hazards and electromagnetic radiation to Ordnance (HERO)
28
What is the classifications of HERO?
Safe
Susceptible
Unsafe
Unreliable
29
What are done to ensure that no electrical current is in the firing circuitry so it doesn't actuate / detonate the weapon?
Stray voltage checks
30
Which missile is nicknamed Sidewinder?
AIM-9
31
Which missile is nicknamed Maverick?
AIM-65
32
Which missile is nicknamed Hellfire?
AGM-114
33
Which missile is nicknamed AMRAAM (Advanced medium-range air-to-air missile)?
AIM-120
34
What does AIM stand for?
Aerial intercept guided-missile
35
What does AGM stand for?
Air surface attack guided-missile (air-to-ground missile)
36
What does RIM stand for?
Surface launch intercept guided-missile
37
What does CBU stand for?
Cluster bomb unit
38
What does APKWS stand for?
Advanced Precision kill weapon system
39
What does JDAM stand for?
Joint direct attack munitions
40
What does PGW Stand for?
Practice guided weapons
41
What does CATM stand for?
Captive air training missile
42
What does NATM stand for?
Special air training missile
43
What does DATM stand for?
Dummy air training missile
44
What does GBU stand for?
Guided bomb unit
45
Which homing guidance has the target illumination supplied by the missile, signals transmitted from the missile are reflected off the Target and back to the missile?
Active
46
The missile get the target elimination from the external source?
Semi-active
47
Which type of homing guidance has directing information received from the target?
Passive
48
What are the three major components of a bomb?
Body (shell)
Tail (fins)
Nose (fuze)
49
This pertains to the Free Falling, insensitive explosives encased in a shell, approximately 45 percent of their wages made of explosives
Bomb body
50
These are threaded into lug inserts on the bomb body
Suspension lugs
51
What are the two general classes of fusing?
Mechanical (old) / electrical (new)
52
What provides stability to the bomb, cause the bomb to fall in a smooth, definite curved to the Target, instead of tumbling through the air?
Fin assembly
53
What type of ordinance is a container filled with bomblets designed to cover a great surface area, that are designed for anti-personnel and armor covered targets?
Cluster bomb units (CBUs)
54
Which bonds are designed to be dropped and destroyed and are categorized by weight class?
General-purpose bomb
55
What are the most common classes of general-purpose bomb?
MK 80 series
| BLU (bomb live unit) series
56
Roughly what percent of the bomb way is comprised of explosive filler?
45%
57
What is the weight of the MK 82 / BLU 111?
500 lbs
58
What is the weight of the MK 83 / BLU 110?
1000 lbs
59
What is the weight of the MK 84 / BLU 117 (not in this platform)?
2000 lbs
60
These bombs are outfitted with more sophisticated accessories like fins and semi-active fuses in order to provide them with a guidance system for better Target accuracy
Guided bomb units (GBUs)
61
Which bombs are widely used for training exercises in the purpose is to stimulate flight trajectories and they fall later to be recovered and be reused?
Practice bombs
62
What is the color code for inert (training)?
Blue
63
What's the color code for highly explosive (live)?
Yellow
64
What's the color code for live rocket motor?
Brown
65
How many yellow bands pertain to high explosive?
1
66
How many yellow bands pertain to thermally protected?
2
67
How many yellow bands pertain to insensitive munitions?
3
68
How many yellow bands pertain to low collateral?
4
69
How many . 50 caliber gun mounts are on the ship?
4
70
Where are the 50 cals located?
One on each corner of the ship
71
What is max range of the 50 cal?
7400 yards (4 miles)
72
How many 25 mm machine guns do we have on board?
3
73
Where are all the 25 mm machine guns located?
(1) Aft
(2) Port
(3) Starboard
74
What is the max range of the 25 mm machine gun?
4.1 miles
75
What are the rocket launchers currently in use by the aircraft on the BHR?
LAU-10, LAU-68, LAU-61
76
What is currently the only launcher for 5.0 inch rockets and holds a maximum of 4 Rockets?
LAU-10
77
What holds 2.75 in rockets and has a maximum capacity of 7 Rockets?
LAU-68
78
Currently, which aircraft are able to use all three rocket launchers on board the BHR?
AH-1, SH-60, UH-1 And Harrier aircraft
79
What holds 2.75 in rockets and has a maximum capacity of 19 Rockets?
LAU-61
80
Who is the first MCPON?
MCPON Delbert black
81
Who is the only AO to receive the Medal of Honor?
AOC John W Finn
82
What is the type of ordinance that hurts most people?
Inert
83
Who is responsible for weapons personnel?
Department head (Gun Boss)
84
Who is responsible for all Ordnance throughout the ship?
Ordnance handling officer (OHO)
85
Which weapons division refers to Hangar Bay (GSE) Flight Deck ordinance?
G1
86
Which weapons division refers to Armory / magazine sprinklers?
G2
87
Which weapons division refers to magazine and bomb assembly?
G3
88
Which weapons division refers to Administration / QA / ordinance control / Logistics?
G4 security / G5
89
Who is responsible to ensure hazardous explosive devices are rendered safe?
Explosive Ordnance disposal (EOD)
90
The explosive handling Personnel qualification and certification program was initiated in what year to determine the qualifications of personnel who are permitted to participate in ordinance evolutions and any tasks involving Aviation Ordnance material?
1968
91
What rating is fall under the QUAL/CERT program?
AO, GM, FC, PR, CTT
92
How long is the certification under the QUAL/CERT program Valid for?
12 months
93
The functional characteristics of electronically initiated ordinance cause what?
Hazards to electromagnetic radiation to Ordnance (HERO)
94
Ordinance that presents a HERO problem, which include what?
Cartridge
Cartridge actuated devices
20 mm ammunition
95
What maybe accidentally initiated or their performance degraded by exposure to radiofrequency (RF) environments?
Ordinance Electro explosive devices (EEDs)
96
The susceptibility of ordinance to RF environments is determined by a testing program sponsored by what?
NAVSEASYSCOM
97
What are the four HERO classifications Assigned to ordinance?
HERO safe ordinance
HERO susceptible ordinance
HERO unreliable ordinance
HERO unsafe ordinance
98
What requires transmitting systems to be secured to prevent enemy ships / aircraft from locating us through their passive detection systems?
Emissions Control (EMCON)
99
What are performed prior to Ordnance loading to ensure that no electrical charge, exist within the aircraft's firing circuits that would inadvertently caused the activation detonation of the Loaded ordinance?
Stray voltage checks
100
What are located strategically throughout the ship and are intended to counter small boats and attempts to boarding, both ashore and in Port?
50 caliber mounts
101
Which missile is a supersonic air-to-air weapon and it has passive infrared Target detection, proportional navigation guidance and torque balance control systems?
AIM-9 Sidewinder
102
Which muscle is a laser-guided, rocket-propelled air-to-ground missile design for use against fortified ground installations, armored vehicles, and surface combatants?
AGM-65 Maverick
103
Which missile is an air-to-surface missile, developed primarily for anti-armor used, it can be launched from multiple air, sea and ground platform with multi-system and multi-target precision strike capability?
AGM-114 Hellfire
104
What is the primary 100-pound class air-to-ground Precision weapon for the armed forces of the United States and many other nations?
AGM-114 Hellfire
105
Which missile guidance uses active detection and tracking methods to destroy its Targets on these missiles use radar guidance systems?
Active
106
Which missile guidance uses a combination of active and passive detection and tracking methods to destroy its Target?
Semi-active
107
Which missile guidance uses information collected from the target itself and these included infrared detection of a Target Heat sources and reception of radio wave Transmissions?
Passive
108
What pertains to the air launched, intercept aerial guided-missile?
AIM
109
What pertains to air launched, surface attack guided-missile?
AGM
110
What pertains the ship launched, intercept aerial guided-missile?
RIM
111
What pertains to air Launched, training guided-missile?
ATM
112
What pertains to Cluster bomb units?
CBUs
113
What is a low-drag, general-purpose (LDGP) bomb used in aircraft bombing operations?
MK80 (series) general-purpose bomb
114
The _____ of the bomb is aerodynamically designed and relatively light, line 50% of the bombs total weight to be compromised of explosives
Case
115
What is a metal container that contains the HE charge, has threaded fittings to accommodate the fuses, suspension lugs and hoisting lugs?
Bomb body
116
What are used to attach the assembled bomb onto the aircraft suspension and releasing equipment?
Suspension lugs
117
What are installed in the nose and tail of the bomb, and are safely Tied by cotter pins and release wires?
Fusing
118
What provide stability and cause it to fall in a smooth, definite of curve to the Target?
Fin assemblies
119
What is the color designation for high explosives (HE)?
Yellow
120
Irritant (harassing agent)
Grey with red bands
121
Armor piercing ammunition
Black
122
Smoke or marker ammunition
Light green
123
Incendiary ammunition
Light red
124
Illuminating ammunition, or ammunition that produces a colored light
White
125
Training, or firing practice ammunition
Light blue
126
What is any Airborne weapon which could not be dropped or fired due to a weapon, Rack or circuit malfunction?
Hung Ordnance
127
Two attempts to fire or drop and is presumed to be in normal operating condition and can be fired or jettisoned if necessary?
Unexpended Ordnance
128
How many weapons elevators are on board the BHR?
5
129
What provides a safe and efficient means to handle weapons and weapons components among the magazine and various assembly, staging, and arming area, within the ship?
Weapons elevators
130
What develops and approves the detailed specifications for construction of navy ships in individual ships blueprints?
NAVSEASYSCOM
131
What are storage spaces that are usually located below deck, and if possible, below the waterline?
Primary magazines
132
What does LFORM stand for?
Landing Force operational Reserve material
133
What are the types of LFORM ammunition?
Class V (A) Air Wing ammunition
Class V (W) Ground ammunition
134
What are designated spaces located near the weapon or area to be served?
Ready service magazines
