Block 16 - Naval Aviation Platforms and Missions Flashcards

1
Q

There are six basic core capabilities of Naval Aviation, what are they?

A
Forward presence
Deterrence
Sea control
Power projection
Maritime security
Humanitarian assistance/disaster relief
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2
Q

Key capability that establishes Maritime force and regions throughout the world, with the deployability and expeditionary character of Naval Aviation distinguishes it as the centerpiece of this core capability

A

Forward presence

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3
Q

Aligned to the National belief that preventing Wars is as important as winning wars, removing conditions for conflict, providing for the protection of forces deployed, and possessing Superior military strength all serve to deter aggressors from attacking

A

Deterrence

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4
Q

What protects the ability to operate freely at Sea and is an important enabler of joint and interagency operations?

A

Sea control

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5
Q

What is the ability to project from the sea and is the essential combat element of Maritime strategy?

A

Power projection

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6
Q

This refers to the maintenance of security at Sea and the mitigation at threat short of War by combating terrorism, piracy, drug trafficking and other threats that enhance global stability and protect us shorelines

A

Maritime security

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7
Q

This refers to a human obligation and a foundation of human character

A

Humanitarian assistance / disaster relief

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8
Q

What type of sea combat perform rescue, Logistics, mine countermeasures, and eventually combat search-and-rescue missions

A

Helicopter sea combat (HSC)

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9
Q

Tasked with the primary roles of anti-submarine and anti-surface warfare and secondary roles of logistics and Rescue

A

Helicopter Maritime strike (HSM)

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10
Q

Provides basic and Advanced Training of student Naval aviators and rotary-wing aircraft

A

Helicopter training (HT)

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11
Q

Fixed-wing squadrons that tactically exploit, suppress, degrade and deceive enemy electromagnetic defensive and offensive systems including communication, and support of airstrike and Fleet operations

A

Tactical electronic warfare (VAQ)

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12
Q

Fixed-wing carrier-based squadrons that provide early warning against weather, missiles, shipping and aircraft

A

Carrier Airborne early warning (VAW)

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13
Q

Fixed-wing utility squadrons providing Air Services for the fleet such as simulations and Target Towing

A

Fleet composite (VW)

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14
Q

Fixed-wing squadrons employed for both fighter and attack missions

A

Strike Fighter (VFA)

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15
Q

Fixed-wing land based squadrons that perform anti-submarine Warfare, anti-surface Warfare, reconnaissance and Mining

A

Patrol (VP)

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16
Q

Fixed-wing squadrons that provide electronic warfare support to include search, interception, recording, and Analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy

A

Fleet air reconnaissance (VQ)

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17
Q

Fixed-wing squadrons for the transport of personnel and supplies

A

Aircraft logistic support (VR)

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18
Q

Fixed-wing squadrons that transport personnel and supplies for Carrier onboard delivery

A

Carrier logistic support (VRC)

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19
Q

Fixed-wing squadrons that provide basic and Advanced Training for student Naval aviators in Flight officers

A

Training (VT)

20
Q

Fixed-wing squadrons that test and evaluate their operational capabilities of new aircraft and equipment in an operational environment

A

Air test and evaluation (VX / VXE)

21
Q

What is the material used to protect US government transmitters, Communications, and the processing of classified or sensitive unclassified information related to National Security form on the authorized persons and that material used to ensure authenticity of such comms?

A

Communication security (COMSEC)

22
Q

The system established to distribute, control, and safeguard COMSEC material, which consists of production facilities, COMSEC Central offices of Records (CORs), distribute facilities (i.e. Depot’s) and CMS accounts, is known collectively as what?

A

CMCs

23
Q

What is an individual designated in writing by the CO to manage COMSEC material issued to a CMS account and is the COs primary advisor on matters concerning the security and handling of COMSEC material and the associates records and reports?

A

CMS custodian

24
Q

What is a system of handling and storing designed to prevent single person access to certain COMSEC material?

A

Two-person Integrity (TPI)

25
Q

What is the conversation in of electronic data into another form, called ciphertext, which cannot be easily understood by anyone except authorized parties?

A

Encryption

26
Q

A security measure designed to protect communication systems against acceptance of false Transmissions or simulations by establishing the the validity of transmission, message, or originator

A

Authentication

27
Q

The ability and opportunity to obtain knowledge of classified information by being in a place where such information is kept, if the security measures that are enforced do not prevent the individual from Gaining knowledge of such information

A

Access

28
Q

The determination That official information requires, in the interests of National Security, a specific ° of protection against unauthorized disclosure, coupled with a designator signifying that such a determination has been made

A

Classification

29
Q

A security violation that has resulted in confirmed or suspected exposure of classified information or material to an unauthorized person considered suspected when some evidence exists that classified material has been subjected to this

A

Compromise

30
Q

A determination made by an unauthorized holder of classified information that a prospective recipient requires access to specific classified information in order to perform or assist in the performance of a lawful and authorized government function essential to the Fulfillment of an official US government program

A

Need to know

31
Q

Designated spaces that restrict access and control movement Within

A

Restricted area

32
Q

What is a formal determination that a person meets the Personnel security eligibility standards and is thus afforded access to classified information?

A

Clearance

33
Q

What are the three types of clearances?

A

Confidential, secret and top-secret

34
Q

What type of clearance implies an individual has been determined by an authorized adjudicative authority to be eligible for access to top-secret?

A

Top secret clearance

35
Q

What type of clearance implies an individual has been determined to be eligible for secret?

A

Secret clearance

36
Q

Which program has been objective of authorizing initial and continued access to classified information and or initial and continued assignment too sensitive duties did those persons whose loyalty, reliability and trustworthiness are such that entrusting them with classified information or assigned them too sensitive duties as clearly consistent with the interests of National Security?

A

Personnel security program (PSP)

37
Q

What are the methods and equipment used to routinely destroy classified information?

A
Burning
Cross-cut shredding
Wet pulping
Mutilation
Chemical decomposition
Pulverizing
38
Q

What are the methods used to clearing, sanitization or destruction of classified IT equipment and media?

A

Overriding
Degaussing
Sanding
Physical destruction of components and media

39
Q

What is the classification level of Applied information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause damage to the National Security?

A

Confidential

40
Q

What is the color code for confidential classification?

A

Blue

41
Q

What is the classification level of Applied information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause serious damage to National Security?

A

Secret

42
Q

What’s the color code for secret classification?

A

Red

43
Q

What is the classification level applied to information whose unauthorized disclosure could reasonably be expected to cause exceptionally grave damage to National Security?

A

Top secret

44
Q

What’s the color code for top secret classification?

A

Orange

45
Q

What is an intelligence control marking used to identify intelligence which in originator has determined falls under the criteria of DCID 6/7, and may not be provided in any form to foreign governments, International organizations, Coalition Partners, foreign Nationals, or immigrants aliens without originator approval?

A

NOFORN - No foreign Nationals

46
Q

What is a marking applied to unclassified information that meets one or more exemptions of the Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) under Title 5 U.S.C. Section 522?

A

FOUO - For official use only