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EAWS BOARD > Amphibious Air Traffic Control Center (AATCC) > Flashcards

Amphibious Air Traffic Control Center (AATCC) Flashcards

1
Q

Are planning board is usually convened no later than how many hours prior to the execution of the next days are operations?

A

24 hours

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2
Q

What pertains to the scheduling of air operations which require close coordination and cooperation of embarking Aviation units on the ships are Department, ship’s operations Department, CATF / ships combat cargo officers and any units requesting air support?

A

Air planning board

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3
Q

They air planning board is co-chained by whom and consisting of representatives from those units involved in the conduct of air operations?

A

Commander amphibious task force (CATF) air officer

Commander Landing Force (CLF) air officer

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4
Q

What reflects the ships involvement in supporting air operations?

A

Air plan

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5
Q

When the ship is operating independently, the air plan is created by the ship’s operations department and becomes an order of the ship’s what?

A

Commanding officer

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6
Q

Embark Aviation units will publish a ______ reflecting air crew assignments, and times for launch and Recovery.

A

Flight schedule

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7
Q

The flight schedule is created by the ___________ and becomes an order of the Squadron commanders / detachment officer-in-charge (OIC)

A

Squadron operations Department

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8
Q

How many types of flight plans are used in AATCC

A

Three types

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9
Q

What are the types of flight plans used in a AATCC?

A

DD 175
DD 1801
ICAO flight

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10
Q

Which type of change to the military Flight Plan?

A

DD 175

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11
Q

Which type pertains to the DOD international flight plan?

A

DD 1801

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12
Q

What does ICAO stand for?

A

International civil aviation organization

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13
Q

The AATCC shall be manned how many minutes before a scheduled flight operations?

A

90 minutes

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14
Q

Who is responsible for the control of Airborne aircraft, except When control is assigned to another Authority?

A

Operations officer

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15
Q

Who is responsible to the operations officer for coordination of all matters pertaining to flight operations?

A

Air operations officer

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16
Q

Who is responsible to the air operations officer for the execution of the air plan (current OPS) and the proper functioning and Manning of the AATCC?

A

AATCC officer / current OPS

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17
Q

Who’s responsible for the visual control of all aircraft operating in the control Zone under case one and two conditions?

A

Air officer

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18
Q

What is the most prominent Factor affecting the degree of control necessary?

A

Weather in the control Zone

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19
Q

Type of control to be employed during departures and Recovery is determined by whom?

A

Air officer

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20
Q

What are the four types of control?

A

Positive control
Advisory control
Monitor control
Non radar control

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21
Q

Under positive control, what is the ceiling for fixed-wing operations?

A

1000 feet or less

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22
Q

Under positive control, what is the ceiling for helicopter operations?

A

500 feet or less

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23
Q

Under positive control, what is the forward flight visibility for fixed-wing and tilt-rotor V-22 airplane mode (APLN) mode operations?

A

Less than 5 miles

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24
Q

Under positive control, what is the forward flight visibility for helicopter operations until rotor conversion mode operations?

A

1 mile or less

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25
Q

Which type of control is utilized for all unaided flight operations between 1/2 hour after Sunset and 1/2 hour before Sunrise except as Modified by the OTC or ship’s commanding officer?

A

Positive control

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26
Q

Which type of control is utilized when the traffic density in operating area requires a higher degree of control for safety of flight than required under visual flight rules?

A

Advisory control

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27
Q

Which type of control is normally limited to visual meteorological conditions (VMS) is recommended for all operations in or adjacent to Oceanic control areas or routes?

A

Advisory control

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28
Q

Which type of control shall be utilized only one aircraft are operating VMC (visual meteorological conditions) outside controlled airspace and the responsibility for separation from other traffic can be safely assumed by the pilot?

A

Monitor control

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29
Q

Which type of control is used when shipboard radar is inoperative or so degraded as to be inadequate to provide radar separation of air traffic on air conditioners normally requiring Positive control?

A

Non radar control

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30
Q

Which airspace has the dimension of surface to 2,500 feet / 10 NM diameter?

A

Control Zone

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31
Q

Who owns the control Zone?

A

Prifly / air boss

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32
Q

What are spaces Dimension surface to Infinity / 100 NM diameter?

A

Control area

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33
Q

Who owns the control area?

A

AATCC

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34
Q

Which air traffic control procedures are affected by EMCON?

A 
Launch
Departure
Mission
Arrival
Recovery
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35
Q

Aircraft operating at 50 miles or more from the ship shall be separated by a minimum of how many miles?

A

5 miles

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36
Q

Aircraft operating within 50 miles of the ship, and not within 10 miles on a designated approach, shall be separated by a minimum of how many miles?

A

3 miles

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37
Q

Aircraft on a designated approach or establish downwind and inside of 10 miles shall be separated by a minimum of how many miles?

A

2 miles

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38
Q

Aircraft established on Final within 5 miles shall be separated by a minimum of how many miles?

A

1 - 1/2 miles

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39
Q

Air search Radars that rotates an excess of ______ are the only Radars acceptable for applications of lateral separation of less than 5 NM

A

7 RPM

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40
Q

And turboprop aircraft operating at altitudes of up to and including FL290 shall be separated by what?

A

1000 feet vertically

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41
Q

Aircraft operating at altitudes above FL290 shall be separated by what?

A

2000 feet vertically

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42
Q

Helicopters and tail rotor aircraft in conversion mode shall be separated by what?

A

500 feet vertically

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43
Q

Fixed wing and tail rotor aircraft in airplane mode shall be separated from helicopters and tail rotor aircraft in conversion mode by what?

A

1000 feet vertically

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44
Q

Vertical separation may be reduced to ____ inside of 12NM

A

800 ft

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45
Q

____ shall verify which mode of flight tail rotor aircraft are utilized prior to applying appropriate altitude.

A

AATCC

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46
Q

What are the hazards of lightning?

A 
Temporary blindness
Hearing loss from shock waves
Mild electrical shock
Minor burn
Damaged navigational electrical equipment
Punctures in aircraft skin
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47
Q

What are the four types of ice?

A

Clear ice
Rime ice
Frost
Carburetor icing

48
Q

The most dangerous type of ice?

49
Q

What are the four degrees of icing?

A

Trace
Light
Moderate
Severe

50
Q

What are the four types of fog?

A

Radiation
Advection
Upslope
Severe

51
Q

What is one of the worst hazards of thunderstorms flying as a cause of structural damage?

52
Q

What are the four degrees of turbulence?

A

Light
Moderate
Severe
Extreme

53
Q

Which may be used when it is anticipated that aircraft will not encounter instrument meteorological condition (IMC) at any time during descent, break, and pattern established on the port side of the Final Approach?

54
Q

Which case has weather minimums of 1000-foot ceiling in 3 miles visibility are required in the control Zone?

55
Q

Which case has the ceiling and visibility greater than or equal to 1000 ft and 3 miles?

56
Q

Which case shall be utilized when IMC (Instrument meteorological condition) is encountered during descent but at least a 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility exist at the ship?

57
Q

During case 2, which controls shall be utilized until the flight leader / pilot reports the ship inside?

A

Positive control

58
Q

What shall be fully manned and ready to assume control of case 3 in the event weather deteriorates to below case 2 minimum?

59
Q

Which case procedures will be used whenever weather conditions at the ship are below case 2 minimum, or when no visible Horizon exist, or when directed by the commanding officer or OTC?

60
Q

_____ formation recoveries are not authorized except when an aircraft experiencing difficulties is recovered on the wing of another aircraft

61
Q

Which case has ceiling/visibility less than 500 ft or 1 mile?

62
Q

Which fixed-wing departure in recovery case may be used during daylight and night ate it operations when it is anticipated that aircraft will not encounter IMC at any time during descent, break in Final Approach?

63
Q

Which procedures shall be utilized during day and IMC will be encountered during descent, but weather at the ship is at least 1000 foot ceiling and visibility 5 miles?

64
Q

Which procedure shall be utilized during Mandatory let down in thunderstorms and 30 minutes after Sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise?

65
Q

A Sar Helo / plane guard Helo is normally established where?

A

Starboard Delta

66
Q

What is first aircraft up, last aircraft down?

67
Q

Sar aircraft should remain ____ of the ship and maintain ____ of fuel to Splash to ensure the proper Sar posture

A

Within 10 NM, 1 hour

68
Q

What is that one mile to three miles, 045 degrees outbound in 110 degrees inbound, flown at 350 and 80 Knots?

A

Starboard Delta

69
Q

What are the controlling positions in AATCC?

A 
Approach
Marshal
Departure
Assault
Final
70
Q

What is responsible for controlling inbound aircraft from Marshal during case 2 and 3 operations, and establishing aircraft in the Final Approach course (an imaginary line extending 10 NM aft of the ship)?

A

Approach controller

71
Q

Who hands aircraft off from Marshal to final?

A

Approach controller

72
Q

Who supports amphibious air operations concerning ship-to-shore movement?

A

Assault controller

73
Q

Who is responsible for the orderly flow of departing aircraft during case 2 and 3?

A

Departure controller

74
Q

Who is responsible for controlling aircraft on Final Approach?

A

Final controller

75
Q

Who is responsible for establishing the initial sequencing and separation of aircraft During case 2 and 3 recoveries?

A

Marshal controller

76
Q

What are the non-controlling positions of AATCC?

A

AATCC watch officer
AATCC supervisor
Status boards / plotter

77
Q

Who’s responsible for maintaining the ships plot and completing the pre-launch brief and also responsible for providing essential information for following the progress of launch and Recovery operation

A

Status board plotter

78
Q

Who’s responsible to the AATCC watch officer for the overall operation of AATCC?

A

AATCC supervisor

79
Q

What is the flight quarters watchstation responsible in ensuring all aspects of AATCC are performED?

A

AATCC Watch officer

80
Q

What provides AATCC with accurate weather updates, diverted field weather information, Shore destinations weather information?

A

Meteorology and oceanography (METOC)

81
Q

Which term refers to an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc. That may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed?

82
Q

Which term refers to an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc. That may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed?

83
Q

Which term refers turn operating procedure, practice or condition etc. That must be emphasized?

84
Q

Which term means a procedure that is mandatory?

85
Q

Which term means a procedure that is recommended?

86
Q

Which term means procedure that is optional?

87
Q

Which term indicates Futurity and never indicates any degree 5 requirement for application of procedure?

88
Q

Which term means altitude in thousands of feet?

89
Q

Which AATCC equipment has the nickname ‘Easy Rider’?

A

AN / SPN 35

90
Q

What is the usage for AN/SPN 35?

A

Final controller radar

91
Q

What is the range for AN/SPN 35?

92
Q

Which AATCC equipment has a nickname ‘ bullseye’?

93
Q

What is the usage for AN/SPN 41?

A

AV8 on Final

94
Q

What is the range for AN/SPN 41?

95
Q

Which AATCC has the nickname ‘Gadget’?

96
Q

What is the usage for AN/SP 43?

A

AATCC’s primary ASR

97
Q

What is the range for AN/SPN 43?

98
Q

Which AATCC equipment has a nickname ‘ Father’?

99
Q

What is the usage for TACAN?

A

Provides slant bearing and range

100
Q

What is the nickname for TPX - 42?

101
Q

What is the usage for TPX - 42?

A

Records ATC info

102
Q

Which AATCC equipment is used for radar display?

103
Q

Which AATCC equipment is used for wind indicator?

104
Q

What does AATCC stand for?

A

Amphibious Air Traffic Control Center

105
Q

What does ACE stand for

A

Air combat element

106
Q

What does CATF stand for?

A

Combat amphibious task force

107
Q

What does CLF stand for?

A

Commander Landing Force

108
Q

What does FL Stand for?

A

Flight level

109
Q

What does METOC stand for?

A

Meteorology and oceanography

110
Q

What does TACC stand for?

A

Tactical Air Control Center

111
Q

What does PMC stand for?

A

Passenger mail cargo

112
Q

What publication is known as the air traffic control (ATC) Bible?

113
Q

What does NATOPS stand for?

A

Naval air training and operating procedure standardization

114
Q

What is a manual used by controllers and standardize the rules and procedures of air traffic control Navy wide?

115
Q

When was NATOPS established?

EAWS BOARD (22 decks)

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