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Amphibious Air Traffic Control Center (AATCC) Flashcards

1
Q

Are planning board is usually convened no later than how many hours prior to the execution of the next days are operations?

A

24 hours

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2
Q

What pertains to the scheduling of air operations which require close coordination and cooperation of embarking Aviation units on the ships are Department, ship’s operations Department, CATF / ships combat cargo officers and any units requesting air support?

A

Air planning board

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3
Q

They air planning board is co-chained by whom and consisting of representatives from those units involved in the conduct of air operations?

A

Commander amphibious task force (CATF) air officer

Commander Landing Force (CLF) air officer

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4
Q

What reflects the ships involvement in supporting air operations?

A

Air plan

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5
Q

When the ship is operating independently, the air plan is created by the ship’s operations department and becomes an order of the ship’s what?

A

Commanding officer

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6
Q

Embark Aviation units will publish a ______ reflecting air crew assignments, and times for launch and Recovery.

A

Flight schedule

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7
Q

The flight schedule is created by the ___________ and becomes an order of the Squadron commanders / detachment officer-in-charge (OIC)

A

Squadron operations Department

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8
Q

How many types of flight plans are used in AATCC

A

Three types

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9
Q

What are the types of flight plans used in a AATCC?

A

DD 175
DD 1801
ICAO flight

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10
Q

Which type of change to the military Flight Plan?

A

DD 175

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11
Q

Which type pertains to the DOD international flight plan?

A

DD 1801

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12
Q

What does ICAO stand for?

A

International civil aviation organization

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13
Q

The AATCC shall be manned how many minutes before a scheduled flight operations?

A

90 minutes

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14
Q

Who is responsible for the control of Airborne aircraft, except When control is assigned to another Authority?

A

Operations officer

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15
Q

Who is responsible to the operations officer for coordination of all matters pertaining to flight operations?

A

Air operations officer

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16
Q

Who is responsible to the air operations officer for the execution of the air plan (current OPS) and the proper functioning and Manning of the AATCC?

A

AATCC officer / current OPS

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17
Q

Who’s responsible for the visual control of all aircraft operating in the control Zone under case one and two conditions?

A

Air officer

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18
Q

What is the most prominent Factor affecting the degree of control necessary?

A

Weather in the control Zone

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19
Q

Type of control to be employed during departures and Recovery is determined by whom?

A

Air officer

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20
Q

What are the four types of control?

A

Positive control
Advisory control
Monitor control
Non radar control

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21
Q

Under positive control, what is the ceiling for fixed-wing operations?

A

1000 feet or less

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22
Q

Under positive control, what is the ceiling for helicopter operations?

A

500 feet or less

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23
Q

Under positive control, what is the forward flight visibility for fixed-wing and tilt-rotor V-22 airplane mode (APLN) mode operations?

A

Less than 5 miles

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24
Q

Under positive control, what is the forward flight visibility for helicopter operations until rotor conversion mode operations?

A

1 mile or less

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25
Which type of control is utilized for all unaided flight operations between 1/2 hour after Sunset and 1/2 hour before Sunrise except as Modified by the OTC or ship's commanding officer?
Positive control
26
Which type of control is utilized when the traffic density in operating area requires a higher degree of control for safety of flight than required under visual flight rules?
Advisory control
27
Which type of control is normally limited to visual meteorological conditions (VMS) is recommended for all operations in or adjacent to Oceanic control areas or routes?
Advisory control
28
Which type of control shall be utilized only one aircraft are operating VMC (visual meteorological conditions) outside controlled airspace and the responsibility for separation from other traffic can be safely assumed by the pilot?
Monitor control
29
Which type of control is used when shipboard radar is inoperative or so degraded as to be inadequate to provide radar separation of air traffic on air conditioners normally requiring Positive control?
Non radar control
30
Which airspace has the dimension of surface to 2,500 feet / 10 NM diameter?
Control Zone
31
Who owns the control Zone?
Prifly / air boss
32
What are spaces Dimension surface to Infinity / 100 NM diameter?
Control area
33
Who owns the control area?
AATCC
34
Which air traffic control procedures are affected by EMCON?
``` Launch Departure Mission Arrival Recovery ```
35
Aircraft operating at 50 miles or more from the ship shall be separated by a minimum of how many miles?
5 miles
36
Aircraft operating within 50 miles of the ship, and not within 10 miles on a designated approach, shall be separated by a minimum of how many miles?
3 miles
37
Aircraft on a designated approach or establish downwind and inside of 10 miles shall be separated by a minimum of how many miles?
2 miles
38
Aircraft established on Final within 5 miles shall be separated by a minimum of how many miles?
1 - 1/2 miles
39
Air search Radars that rotates an excess of ______ are the only Radars acceptable for applications of lateral separation of less than 5 NM
7 RPM
40
And turboprop aircraft operating at altitudes of up to and including FL290 shall be separated by what?
1000 feet vertically
41
Aircraft operating at altitudes above FL290 shall be separated by what?
2000 feet vertically
42
Helicopters and tail rotor aircraft in conversion mode shall be separated by what?
500 feet vertically
43
Fixed wing and tail rotor aircraft in airplane mode shall be separated from helicopters and tail rotor aircraft in conversion mode by what?
1000 feet vertically
44
Vertical separation may be reduced to ____ inside of 12NM
800 ft
45
____ shall verify which mode of flight tail rotor aircraft are utilized prior to applying appropriate altitude.
AATCC
46
What are the hazards of lightning?
``` Temporary blindness Hearing loss from shock waves Mild electrical shock Minor burn Damaged navigational electrical equipment Punctures in aircraft skin ```
47
What are the four types of ice?
Clear ice Rime ice Frost Carburetor icing
48
The most dangerous type of ice?
Clear ice
49
What are the four degrees of icing?
Trace Light Moderate Severe
50
What are the four types of fog?
Radiation Advection Upslope Severe
51
What is one of the worst hazards of thunderstorms flying as a cause of structural damage?
Hail
52
What are the four degrees of turbulence?
Light Moderate Severe Extreme
53
Which may be used when it is anticipated that aircraft will not encounter instrument meteorological condition (IMC) at any time during descent, break, and pattern established on the port side of the Final Approach?
Case 1
54
Which case has weather minimums of 1000-foot ceiling in 3 miles visibility are required in the control Zone?
Case 1
55
Which case has the ceiling and visibility greater than or equal to 1000 ft and 3 miles?
Case 1
56
Which case shall be utilized when IMC (Instrument meteorological condition) is encountered during descent but at least a 500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility exist at the ship?
Case 2
57
During case 2, which controls shall be utilized until the flight leader / pilot reports the ship inside?
Positive control
58
What shall be fully manned and ready to assume control of case 3 in the event weather deteriorates to below case 2 minimum?
AATCC
59
Which case procedures will be used whenever weather conditions at the ship are below case 2 minimum, or when no visible Horizon exist, or when directed by the commanding officer or OTC?
Case 3
60
_____ formation recoveries are not authorized except when an aircraft experiencing difficulties is recovered on the wing of another aircraft
Case 3
61
Which case has ceiling/visibility less than 500 ft or 1 mile?
Case 3
62
Which fixed-wing departure in recovery case may be used during daylight and night ate it operations when it is anticipated that aircraft will not encounter IMC at any time during descent, break in Final Approach?
Case 1
63
Which procedures shall be utilized during day and IMC will be encountered during descent, but weather at the ship is at least 1000 foot ceiling and visibility 5 miles?
Case 2
64
Which procedure shall be utilized during Mandatory let down in thunderstorms and 30 minutes after Sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise?
Case 3
65
A Sar Helo / plane guard Helo is normally established where?
Starboard Delta
66
What is first aircraft up, last aircraft down?
Sar Helo
67
Sar aircraft should remain ____ of the ship and maintain ____ of fuel to Splash to ensure the proper Sar posture
Within 10 NM, 1 hour
68
What is that one mile to three miles, 045 degrees outbound in 110 degrees inbound, flown at 350 and 80 Knots?
Starboard Delta
69
What are the controlling positions in AATCC?
``` Approach Marshal Departure Assault Final ```
70
What is responsible for controlling inbound aircraft from Marshal during case 2 and 3 operations, and establishing aircraft in the Final Approach course (an imaginary line extending 10 NM aft of the ship)?
Approach controller
71
Who hands aircraft off from Marshal to final?
Approach controller
72
Who supports amphibious air operations concerning ship-to-shore movement?
Assault controller
73
Who is responsible for the orderly flow of departing aircraft during case 2 and 3?
Departure controller
74
Who is responsible for controlling aircraft on Final Approach?
Final controller
75
Who is responsible for establishing the initial sequencing and separation of aircraft During case 2 and 3 recoveries?
Marshal controller
76
What are the non-controlling positions of AATCC?
AATCC watch officer AATCC supervisor Status boards / plotter
77
Who's responsible for maintaining the ships plot and completing the pre-launch brief and also responsible for providing essential information for following the progress of launch and Recovery operation
Status board plotter
78
Who's responsible to the AATCC watch officer for the overall operation of AATCC?
AATCC supervisor
79
What is the flight quarters watchstation responsible in ensuring all aspects of AATCC are performED?
AATCC Watch officer
80
What provides AATCC with accurate weather updates, diverted field weather information, Shore destinations weather information?
Meteorology and oceanography (METOC)
81
Which term refers to an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc. That may result in injury or death if not carefully observed or followed?
Warning
82
Which term refers to an operating procedure, practice, or condition etc. That may result in damage to equipment if not carefully observed or followed?
Caution
83
Which term refers turn operating procedure, practice or condition etc. That must be emphasized?
Note
84
Which term means a procedure that is mandatory?
Shall
85
Which term means a procedure that is recommended?
Should
86
Which term means procedure that is optional?
May
87
Which term indicates Futurity and never indicates any degree 5 requirement for application of procedure?
Will
88
Which term means altitude in thousands of feet?
Angels
89
Which AATCC equipment has the nickname 'Easy Rider'?
AN / SPN 35
90
What is the usage for AN/SPN 35?
Final controller radar
91
What is the range for AN/SPN 35?
10 NM
92
Which AATCC equipment has a nickname ' bullseye'?
AN/SPN 41
93
What is the usage for AN/SPN 41?
AV8 on Final
94
What is the range for AN/SPN 41?
20 NM
95
Which AATCC has the nickname 'Gadget'?
AN/SPN 43
96
What is the usage for AN/SP 43?
AATCC's primary ASR
97
What is the range for AN/SPN 43?
50 NM
98
Which AATCC equipment has a nickname ' Father'?
TACAN
99
What is the usage for TACAN?
Provides slant bearing and range
100
What is the nickname for TPX - 42?
Snitch
101
What is the usage for TPX - 42?
Records ATC info
102
Which AATCC equipment is used for radar display?
OD - 220
103
Which AATCC equipment is used for wind indicator?
Moriah
104
What does AATCC stand for?
Amphibious Air Traffic Control Center
105
What does ACE stand for
Air combat element
106
What does CATF stand for?
Combat amphibious task force
107
What does CLF stand for?
Commander Landing Force
108
What does FL Stand for?
Flight level
109
What does METOC stand for?
Meteorology and oceanography
110
What does TACC stand for?
Tactical Air Control Center
111
What does PMC stand for?
Passenger mail cargo
112
What publication is known as the air traffic control (ATC) Bible?
7110.65
113
What does NATOPS stand for?
Naval air training and operating procedure standardization
114
What is a manual used by controllers and standardize the rules and procedures of air traffic control Navy wide?
NATOPS
115
When was NATOPS established?
1961

EAWS BOARD (22 decks)

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