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B737 > WA Year Two Systems study. > Flashcards

WA Year Two Systems study. Flashcards

1
Q

The electric hydraulic pumps are AC or DC?

A

AC

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2
Q

Which hydraulic pumps supply the highest volume of hydraulic fluid, electric or engine?

A

Electric (about four times as much)

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3
Q

Where are the hydraulic fluid heat exchangers located?

A

Respective main fuel tanks.

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4
Q

Minimum fuel in a main tank for operation of an electric hydraulic pump?

A

760kgs

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5
Q

If a leak develops in the system A engine driven pump or its related lines, what will happen?

A

A standpipe in the reservoir prevents a total system fluid loss. With fluid level at the top of the standpipe, the reservoir quantity displayed indicates approximately 22% full (EIS) or 1/4 full (conventional). System A hydraulic pressure is maintained by the electric motor–driven pump

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6
Q

If a leak develops in the system A electric driven pump or its related lines, what will happen?

A

If a leak develops in the electric motor–driven pump or its related lines, or components common to both the engine and electric motor–driven pumps, the quantity in the reservoir steadily decreases to zero and all system pressure is lost.

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7
Q

If a leak develops in the system B engine driven pump or its related lines, what will happen?

A

If a leak develops in the engine–driven pump or its associated lines, the system B quantity decreases until it indicates approximately 40% full (EIS) 1/2 full (conventional). System pressure is maintained by the electric motor–driven pump.

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8
Q

If a leak develops in the system B electric driven pump or its related lines, what will happen?

A

If a leak develops in the electric motor–driven pump or its associated lines, system B pressure is lost. However, fluid remaining in the system B reservoir is sufficient for power transfer unit operation.

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9
Q

What is the purpose of the Power Transfer Unit?

A

To supply the additional volume of hydraulic fluid needed to operate the auto slats and leading edge flaps and slats when system B engine-driven hydraulic pump volume is lost.
It uses system A pressure to power a hydraulic motor pump, which pressurises system B hydraulic fluid.

Simplified: If you get an engine failure of no2, you can still operate the leading edge devices.

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10
Q

When does the Power Transfer unit operate?

A

When all of the following conditions are met:

  • aircraft is airborne
  • system B engine driven pump pressure below limits
  • flaps are less than 15 but not up
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11
Q

What is the purpose of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit?

A

To supply pressurised hydraulic fluid needed to raise the landing gear at the normal rate when system A is lost due to No. 1 engine RPM loss. System B provides pressurised hydraulic fluid.

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12
Q

What conditions are required of the Landing Gear Transfer Unit to operate?

A
  • aircraft is airborne
  • No.1 engine drops below a limit value
  • LANDING GEAR lever is positioned UP
  • either main landing gear is not up and locked
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13
Q

The Standby Hydraulic System uses an electric motor to power which components?

A
  • Thrust reversers
  • Rudder
  • Leading edge flaps and slats (extend only)
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14
Q

What happens when you position either FLT CONTROL switch to STBY RUD?

A
  • activates the standby electric motor–driven pump
  • shuts off the related hydraulic system pressure to ailerons, elevators and rudder by closing the flight control shutoff valve
  • opens the standby rudder shutoff valve
  • deactivates the related flight control LOW PRESSURE light when the standby rudder shutoff valve opens
  • allows the standby system to power the rudder and thrust reversers.
  • illuminates the STBY RUD ON, Master Caution, and Flight Controls (FLT CONT) lights.

Simplified: It allows standby system to power the rudder.

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15
Q

What happens when you position the ALTERNATE FLAPS switch to ARM?

A
  • activates the standby electric motor–driven pump
  • closes the trailing edge flap bypass valve
  • arms the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch
  • allows the standby system to power the leading edge flaps and slats and thrust reversers.

Simplified: allows TE flaps to be electrically operated and allows LE devices to be operated by standby system.

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16
Q

What conditions are required for automatic operation of the standby Hydraulic system?

A
  • Loss of System A or B ,
    or rudder pressure reducer system fails in low pressure mode, and
  • TE Flaps extended, and
  • Airborne or wheel speed >60kts, and
  • FLT CONTROL switch A or B Hyd system ON.
    OR
  • Main PCU Force Fight Monitor trips.
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17
Q

When the standby system is automatically turned on, what indications can you expect to see?

A

STBY RUD ON light

Master Caution - FLT CONT

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18
Q

What happens in case of a standby hydraulic system leak?

A

Standby reservoir quantity reduces to zero.
LOW QUANTITY light illuminates when reservoir is approximately half empty.
System B continues to operate normally, but system B reservoir quantity reduces to approximately 64% full (EIS) or between 1/2 and RFL (conventional)

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19
Q

When is the FEEL DIFF PRESS LIGHT armed?

A

When the trailing edge flaps are up (not on NG)

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20
Q

What does the FEEL DIFF PRESS light tell you?

A

Excessive differential pressure in elevator feel computer

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21
Q

What does SPEED TRIM FAIL light tell you?

A

indicates failure of the speed trim system
indicates failure of a single FCC channel when MASTER CAUTION
light recall is activated and light extinguishes when master caution system is reset.

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22
Q

What does MACH TRIM FAIL light tell you?

A

indicates failure of the Mach trim system
indicates failure of a single FCC channel when MASTER CAUTION
light recall is activated and light extinguishes when master caution system is reset.

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23
Q

What is the purpose of the speed trim system?

A

Improves flight characteristics during low speed flight with low gross weight, aft CG and engine RPM above 60% N1

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24
Q

What does the stabilizer trim override switch do?

A

OVERRIDE – bypasses the control column actuated stabilizer trim cutout switches to restore power to the stabilizer trim switches

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25
Q

During takeoff, at what speed does the rudder become aerodynamically effective?

A

40 - 60 kts

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26
Q

Why should you not use aileron trim with the autopilot engaged?

A

If aileron trim is used with the autopilot engaged, the trim is not reflected in the control wheel position. The autopilot overpowers the trim and holds the control wheel where it is required for heading/track control. Any aileron trim applied when the autopilot is engaged can result in an out of trim condition and an abrupt rolling movement when the autopilot is disconnected.

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27
Q

Which hydraulic pressure does the elevator feel system use?

A

Either A or B, whichever is higher

28
Q

Above what speed does Mach Trim become active?

A

Mach .615

29
Q

When do the main electric and autopilot stabilizer trim operate in high speed mode?

A

With flaps extended.

30
Q

What conditions are required for the Speed trim system to operate?

A
  • Flaps not up
  • Airspeed 100 – 300 KIAS
  • 10 seconds after takeoff
  • 5 seconds following release of
    trim switches
  • N1 above 60%
  • Autopilot not engaged
  • Sensing of trim requirement
31
Q

The rudder pressure reducer is connected to which hydraulic system?

A

A

32
Q

The rudder pressure limiter is connected to which hydraulic system?

A

B

33
Q

The RPR and RPL limit hydraulic pressure to the rudder when full rudder authority is not required. What are the conditions required for this to occur and under what circumstances is hydraulic pressure returned to normal?

A
  • Airplane climbs above 1000 feet AGL.
    Hydraulic pressure is returned to normal when the airplane descends through 700 feet AGL, or if B hydraulic system depressurizes, or whenever the N1 difference between the left and right engines exceeds 45%
34
Q

The Yaw Damper is powered by which hydraulic system?

A

B

35
Q

During landing, what conditions are required for the auto speedbrake system to deploy?

A
  • SPEED BRAKE lever is in the ARMED position
  • SPEED BRAKE ARMED light is illuminated
  • both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE
  • main landing gear wheels spin–up (more than 60 kts) – SPEED BRAKE
    lever automatically moves to the UP position, and the flight spoilers deploy
  • right main landing gear strut compresses on touchdown, causing the mechanical linkage to open the ground spoiler bypass valve, and the ground spoilers deploy
36
Q

During an RTO, what conditions are required for auto speedbrake deployment?

A
  • main landing gear wheels spin–up (more than 60 kts)
  • takeoff is rejected, both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE and the
    reverse thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust – SPEED BRAKE lever automatically moves to the UP position and all spoilers deploy.
37
Q

How many LE flaps does the Classic have and where are they on the wing?

A

Four, inboard of engines.

38
Q

How many LE slats does the Classic have and where are they on the wing?

A

Six, outboard of the engines.

39
Q

The LE and TE flaps are normally powered by which hydraulic system?

A

B

40
Q

Beyond which flap lever position do the slats extend to fully extended position?

A

5

41
Q

(Classic) The flap load relief will retract the TE flaps to 30 if the airspeed exceeds which speed?

A

300: 158kts
400: 162kts

42
Q

(Classic) If the flap load relief has activated, below which speed will the TE flaps be extended back to 40?

A

300: 153kts
400: 157kts

43
Q

When using alternate flap extension, which system extends the leading edge devices and what drawbacks are there?

A

Standby hydraulic system. They cannot be retracted by the standby hydraulic system.

44
Q

Which hydraulic pumps do not have an overheat light and why?

A

Engine. They are mechanically (not electrically) driven and have very little heat rise so there is no need for an overheat warning.

45
Q

When you switch off an engine drive hydraulic pump, does the pump stop running?

A

No, a pressure relief bypass valve opens and takes fluid away from the pump.

46
Q

The ‘refill’ value on the hydraulic gauges is only valid when:

A

Aircraft is on ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi-in.

47
Q

What is the normal, minimum and maximum hydraulic system pressure?

A

Normal: 3000psi
Minimum: 2800psi
Maximum: 3500psi

48
Q

Which source of electrical power is required for fuel quantity indication?

A

AC

49
Q

What method ensures that centre tank fuel is used first?

A

The centre tank check valves open at a lower pressure than the main tank check valves.

50
Q

Is the crossfeed valve motor AC or DC? Which electrical bus provides the power?

A

DC. Battery Bus.

51
Q

Are the fuel shut off valves powered by AC or DC? Which electrical bus provides the power?

A

DC. Hot battery bus.

52
Q

Describe how the centre tank shut off valve works?

A

When both center tank fuel pump switches are turned OFF, the fuel scavenge shutoff valve opens.
This allows fuel pressure from the main tank No. 1 forward pump to operate the center tank scavenge jet pump, which transfers the remaining center tank fuel to main tank No. 1.
After 20 minutes, the fuel scavenge shutoff valve automatically closes.

53
Q

The fuel temperature indication displays fuel temperature in which tank?
Does it use AC or DC power?

A

Tank no1

AC Power

54
Q

Fuel gauge accuracy for CL (digital and analog indicators)?

A

digital +/- 2.5%

analog +/- 3%

55
Q

How many wing and centre tank dripsticks does the Classic have?

A

Five in each wing, none in centre tank.

NG has 6 in each wing, 4 in centre tank

56
Q

What is normal brake accumulator precharge pressure?

A

1000PSI

57
Q

The tiller turns the nosewheel how many degrees each side?

A

78

58
Q

The rudder turns the nosewheel how many degrees each side?

A

7

59
Q

During main gear retraction, how is main gear rotation stopped?

A

The brakes apply automatically.

60
Q

Which hydraulic system pressurises the brake accumulator?

A

B

61
Q

If you lose both hydraulic systems, is antiskid still available?

A

yes

62
Q

What wheel speed must be reached for Autobrake RTO mode to be activated? (not applied)

A

60kts

63
Q

The autobrake RTO mode is automatically disarmed when which main gear strut extends?

A

Right

64
Q

When is the standby hydraulic LOW QUANTITY light armed?

A

Always

65
Q

When is the standby hydraulic LOW PRESSURE light armed?

A

When standby pump operation is activated.

66
Q

How can you tell if the RPR or RPL has failed?

A

No flight deck indication. It will be noticed on the next maintenance inspection.

67
Q

You get the SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED light whilst in flight. What, basically is this telling you?

A

That the speedbrakes are extended in approach configuration.

B737 (24 decks)

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