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B737 > B737-800 Type Rating Theory > Flashcards

B737-800 Type Rating Theory Flashcards

1
Q

What does a red landing gear light mean?

A
  • landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both forward thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL).
  • related landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position (in transit or unsafe).
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2
Q

Which conditions cause the autobrake to apply maximum brake pressure during RTO?

A

Thrust levers are retarded to idle at or above 90 knots.

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3
Q

What’s the normal pressure for the hydraulic brake accumulator?

A

3000PSI

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4
Q

When the nose wheel steering switch is in ALT which hydraulic system powers it?

A

B

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5
Q

What are the conditions that cause the landing gear transfer unit to operate?

A
  • airborne
  • No. 1 engine RPM drops below a limit value
  • LANDING GEAR lever is positioned UP
  • either main landing gear is not up and locked.
    (will use hydraulic system B to rause gear instead of A)
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6
Q

Can you retract the landing gear with the manual extension access door open?

A

No

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7
Q

What is the difference between the main antiskid system and alternate antiskid system?

A

The main antiskid system provides antiskid to each individual wheel but the alternate antiskid system provides antiskid to each main wheel pair

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8
Q

Is antiskid system available if all hydraulic pressure is lost?

A

Yes

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9
Q

What happens if you land with the autobrake in RTO?

A

No automatic braking action occurs and the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminates two seconds after touchdown.

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10
Q

What conditions cause autobrake engagement on landing?

A
  • both forward thrust levers are retarded to IDLE
  • the main wheels spin–up.
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11
Q

Can autobrake be selected on landing after touchdown?

A

Yes, prior to decelerating through 30kts

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12
Q

How many sensors does the Air/Ground system have?

A

Six (two on each landing gear)

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13
Q

What does the DUAL BLEED light tell you?

A

Illuminated (amber) – APU bleed air valve open and engine No. 1 BLEED air switch ON, or engine No. 2 BLEED air switch ON, APU bleed air valve and isolation valve open.

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14
Q

With the bleed air isolation valve switch in AUTO, when does it automatically close the isolation valve?

A

Both engine BLEED air switches are ON and both air conditioning PACK switches are AUTO or HIGH

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15
Q

With the bleed air isolation valve switch in AUTO, when does it automatically open the isolation valve?

A

Either engine BLEED air or air conditioning PACK switch positioned OFF.

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16
Q

What fault conditions can be reset with the TRIP RESET switch?

A

BLEED TRIP OFF
PACK
ZONE TEMP

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17
Q

Following an unpressurized take off, when is the first engine bleed switch positioned to on?

A

Not less than 400 feet and prior to 2000 feet above field elevation.

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18
Q

How are engine bleed valves powered?

A

DC activated, pneumatically operated

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19
Q

What’s the main purpose of the overboard exhaust valve?

A

Exhausts E&E cooling air on ground and in flight at low differential pressure. Normally closed in flight.

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20
Q

What does the BLEED TRIP OFF light tell you?

A

Excessive engine bleed temperature or pressure (bleed air valve closes automatically).

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21
Q

On the PFD above which speed is your mach number displayed?

A

0.40

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22
Q

What do the amber pitch limit indication marks on the PFD tell you?

A

Pitch limit for stick shaker activation in current flight conditions.

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23
Q

The CDS MAINT in white illuminates on the ground. Can you dispatch?

A

Yes

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24
Q

The CDS FAULT in amber illuminates on the ground. Can you dispatch?

A

No

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25
Q

What does INSTR SWITCH (amber) mean?

A

Both captain’s and FO’s displays are using the same source of IRU data

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26
Q

If one Display Electronic unit fails, can the remaining DEU supply each pilot with information from independent sources?

A

Yes

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27
Q

How many static ports does the aircraft have?

A

Six. (Two capt, two FO, two alt)

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28
Q

How many pitot probes does the aircraft have? (Not including elevator feel pitot probes)

A

Three

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29
Q

What does an amber DISPLAY SOURCE tell you?

A

A single DEU has been manually or automatically selected to drive all six display units.

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30
Q

What does the word PITCH (or ROLL) displayed in the lower part of the attitude indicator mean?

A

The Captain and First Officer’s pitch (or roll) displays differ by more than 5 degrees.

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31
Q

What does the amber FAULT light on the Overheat / Fire Protection panel tell you when the overheat detector switch is in NORMAL? Would you get a MASTER CAUTION?

A

Both detector loops for an engine have failed.
Yes - MASTER CAUTION OVHT/DET

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32
Q

What does the amber FAULT light on the Overheat / Fire Protection panel tell you when the overheat detector switch is in A or B? Would you get a MASTER CAUTION?

A

Indicates the selected loop for that engine has failed.
No MASTER CAUTION.

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33
Q

With the passenger oxygen switch in NORMAL, what cabin altitude causes the passenger oxygen masks to drop?

A

14,000 feet

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34
Q

What are class A, B and C (E in Europe) fires?

A

Class A - Combustible materials
Class B - Flammable liquids
Class C - Live electrical

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35
Q

Which flight deck window (on each side) is not heated?

A

No. 3

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36
Q

What does an amber ENG FAIL light tell you and what conditions will cause it to extinguish?

A

Engine operating below sustainable idle (below 50% N2) and engine start lever in idle position.
Engine recovers or start lever moved to CUTOFF or engine fire switch pulled.

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37
Q

What does magenta X-BLD mean above N2 gauge?

A

Crossbleed air recommended for inflight start.

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38
Q

Can the APU be operated with a blue MAINT light?

A

Yes

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39
Q

What is the wingtip height of blended wing aircraft?

A

6.4m

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40
Q

Describe what the pitch mode TOGA commands the FD pitch bars to do during take off

A
  • 10 degrees nose down until 60 knots IAS
  • 15 degrees nose up after 60 knots IAS
  • 15 degrees nose up after lift–off until a sufficient climb rate is
    acquired. Then, pitch is commanded to maintain MCP speed plus 20 knots.
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41
Q

At what speed during take off will the A/T FMA indicate THR HOLD?

A

84KIAS

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42
Q

If you have an engine failure on take off (after V1) - what speed will the pitch FD command?

A

V2, or airspeed at lift off, whichever is greater.

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43
Q

In TOGA, below 400 feet AAL, FD commands are limited to what bank angle?

A

8 degrees

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44
Q

After lift-off in TOGA mode, at what height does the A/T change from THR HOLD to ARM?

A

800 feet AAL

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45
Q

What does an amber OVERHEAT mean above a electric hydraulic pump switch mean?

A

Hydraulic fluid used to cool and lubricate the corresponding electric motor driven pump has overheated or the pump itself has overheated.

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46
Q

What position should the engine driven hydraulic pump switches be at engine shutdown?

A

ON

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47
Q

What is the maximum hydraulic pressure of system A or B?

A

3500PSI

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48
Q

RF will illuminate next to hydraulic system A or B quantity when it is below what %?
It is only valid in certain circumstances - what are they?

A

76%
(refill)
Valid only when airplane is on ground with both engines shutdown or after landing with flaps up during taxi–in.

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49
Q

The standby hydraulic system is connected to which main hydraulic system?

A

B

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50
Q

What happens when you switch off an engine driven hydraulic pump?

A

Isolates fluid flow from system components but pump rotates as long as engine is operating.

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51
Q

If there is a leak in the engine driven pump of hydraulic system A or its related lines the reservoir will drop to approximately what quantity?
Is system pressure maintained?

A

20%
System pressure maintained by electric motor driven pump.

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52
Q

If a leak develops in the electric motor driven pump of hydraulic system A or its related lines the reservoir will drop to what quantity?
Is system pressure maintained?

A

Zero - all system pressure lost

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53
Q

If there is a leak in the engine driven pump of hydraulic system B or its related lines the reservoir will drop to approximately what quantity?
Is system pressure maintained?

A

Zero - all system pressure lost
(Still sufficient fluid for PTU)

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54
Q

If there is a leak in the electric motor driven pump of hydraulic system B or its related lines the reservoir will drop to approximately what quantity?
Is system pressure maintained?

A

Zero - all system pressure lost
(Still sufficient fluid for PTU)

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55
Q

Does a leak in hydraulic system B affect the operation of the standby hydraulic system?

A

No

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56
Q

To which main hydraulic system is the standby hydraulic system connected?

A

System B

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57
Q

A hydraulic LOW PRESS light will illuminate when the hydraulic pressure drops below what psi?

A

1300 psi

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58
Q

Summarise what the PTU does

A
  • supplies additional volume of hydraulic fluid to operate auto slats and leading edge devices at normal rate if system B pressure is low (engine no.2 EDP pressure lost).
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59
Q

What conditions cause the PTU to operate?

A
  • airborne
  • system B engine driven pump falls below 2350PSI for more than 0.5s
  • flaps between 1 and 10 OR
  • flaps not up (SFP)
  • (some a/c flaps less than 15 but not up)
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60
Q

Is there fluid transfer between hydraulic system A and B when the PTU is operating?

A

No - system A pressure is used to power a hydraulic motor driven pump which pressurises system B hydraulic fluid.

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61
Q

If a leak occurs in the standby hydraulic system, the standby reservoir depletes to zero. What happens to system B quantity?

A

Decreases to around 72%.

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62
Q

You notice that system B hydraulic quantity is around 72%. What do you suspect may have occurred with the hydraulic system?

A

Standby hydraulic system leak.
(should get LOW QUANTITY) indication.

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63
Q

What is landing gear max extend speed?

A

270KIAS / 0.82M

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64
Q

What is max landing gear retract speed?

A

235KIAS

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65
Q

What is max landing gear extended speed?

A

320KIAS / 0.82M

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66
Q

If the landing gear manual extension door is not properly closed, what is one potential threat?

A

Unable to retract landing gear.

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67
Q

The parking brake set red light operates from which electrical source?

A

Hot Battery bus

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68
Q

The operation of the overwing exit locks is dependent on:

A
  • Engine speed
  • Thrust lever position
  • Air / Ground mode status
  • DC power
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69
Q

What does the white CALL light on the CDU mean?

A

A subsystem other than the FMC is requesting control of the CDU

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70
Q

What does an IRS ON DC light tell you?
Any other associated warnings?

A

Related IRS is operating on DC power from switched hot battery bus (AC power not normal)
On ground, ground call horn in nose wheel well sounds
Momentary illumination is normal during self test.

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71
Q

How do Boeing describe the difference between the FMS and FMC?

A

FMS - flight management system: provides centralised control of the aircraft’s flight path and performance parameters.
FMC - flight management computer: heart of the system, performing navigation and performance computations and providing control and guidance commands.

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72
Q

If IRS alignment is lost during flight you lose IRS navigation capability but retain attitude functionality (by selecting ATT). How long does the ATT function take to re-level (approximately)

A

30 seconds

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73
Q

How is the left IRS usually powered?

A

AC standby bus (In emergency from switched hot battery bus)

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74
Q

How is the right IRS powered?

A

AC transfer bus 2 (in emergency switched hot battery bus for 5 minutes).

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75
Q

How would you enter N47° W008° as a waypoint into the CDU?

A

N47W008

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76
Q

How would you enter N47° 15.4’ W008° 3.4’ as a waypoint in the CDU?

A

N4715.4W00803.4

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77
Q

If you wanted to add an along track waypoint 10 miles before ROKUP, how would you enter it into the CDU?

A

ROKUP/-10

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78
Q

On what page of the CDU is the ENG OUT prompt?

A

CRZ

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79
Q

Where on the CDU can you find fuel quantity values?

A

PERF INIT and PROGRESS page 1/3

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80
Q

When is the CDU message INSUFFICIENT FUEL displayed?

A

If predicted fuel on arrival at destination will be 900kg or less

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81
Q

If power to the FMC is lost, for how long is entered data retained?

A

9 seconds

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82
Q

What does the Trip altitude on the PERF INIT page of the CDU tell the crew?

A

Trip altitude is the predicted minimum cost altitude determined by operator constraints. Provides crew a reference for selecting a planned cruise altitude.

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83
Q

You are in a reduced thrust climb. The FMC will restore maximum climb thrust by what altitude?

A

15,000 feet

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84
Q

The CDU climb page shows ‘180 LIM CLIMB’; what does this mean?

A

FMC is commanding a max climb speed of 180kts which is limited by leading or trailing edge flaps

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85
Q

The CRZ page of the CDU tells you your maximum possible flight level. What do the suffixes -T and -B tell you?

A

-T: Available Thrust is the limiting factor for maximum altitude
-B: Buffet margin is the limiting factor for maximum altitude

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86
Q

What is Mcrit?

A

The lowest Mach number at which the airflow over some point of the aircraft reaches the speed of sound, but does not exceed it.

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87
Q

When does the FCOM state that wing anti ice should be used on the ground?

A

Use wing anti-ice during all ground operations between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, unless the airplane is, or will be protected by the application of Type II or Type IV fluid in compliance with an approved ground de-icing program.

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88
Q

During winter operations, under what conditions should you do an engine run up and how often should you do it?

A

When engine anti ice is required and the OAT is below 3 deg C
Intervals no greater than 30 minutes

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89
Q

Describe the procedure for an engine run up during winter operations:

A

Ensure area behind aircraft is clear
Run-up to a minimum of 70% N1 for approximately 30 seconds at intervals no greater than 30 minutes.

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90
Q

Minimum pavement width for 180 degree turn?

A

24.3 metres

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91
Q

What is a clearway?

A

Area clear of obstacles beyond paved area of the runway under airport authority control.
May be included in TODA.

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92
Q

What is a stopway?

A

Area at end of runway which can be used for deceleration incase of rejected take off. (Yellow chevrons)

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93
Q

What is the screen height for performance class A aeroplanes on a wet runway?

A

15 feet.

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94
Q

What’s the max recommended start altitude for the APU? (B737-800)

A

No limit

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95
Q

Summarise what the AC electrical transfer buses are for.

A

Point of connection for the power sources (engines/APU/GPU). Used for heavy, essential loads eg hydraulic pumps.

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96
Q

What feeds the AC main buses and what are they used for?

A

Fed from respective transfer bus. Used for non-essential loads eg recirc fans. The main busses are next to be load shed after the galley busses

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97
Q

When you move the standby power switch to BAT, what happens in the electrical system (on a basic level)

A
  • AC standby bus is powered by battery through static inverter
  • DC standby bus and battery bus are powered directly by battery.
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98
Q

MTOW B737-800?

A

79,016 kg

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99
Q

MLW B737-800?

A

66,349Kg

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100
Q

MTOW B737-8200?

A

82,600kg

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101
Q

What causes the amber DRIVE light on the Generator Drive and Standby Power panel to illuminate?

A

Integrated drive generator (IDG) low oil pressure caused by one of the following:
- IDG failure
- engine shutdown
- IDG automatic disconnect due to high oil temperature
- IDG disconnected through generator drive DISCONNECT switch.

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102
Q

Describe the take off segments:

A

1st) Screen height to gear retracted
2nd) Gear retracted to acceleration alt (min 400’, max 1000’), speed V2
3rd) Acceleration alt to flaps retracted
4th) Flaps retracted to 1500’ aal

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103
Q

Are the leading edge flaps de iced by the aircraft anti ice system?

A

No

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104
Q

On the PFD, what is the white / amber bar immediately to the left of the altitude tape and what does it tell you?

A

It is the landing altitude reference bar and it tells you your height above touchdown.

White bar: 500 to 1000 feet above landing altitude
Amber bar: 0 - 500 feet above landing altitude

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105
Q

Minimum decision height and RVR for CAT II approach (EASA)?

A

DH not less than 100 feet
RVR not less than 300m
(note that there will be minimums for roll out too)

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106
Q

Should Vref additives be added for steady tailwinds or tailwind gusts?

A

No

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107
Q

A non normal checklist states to use VREF 40 + 30 knots. Does this include wind additive?

A

No, you should add wind additive as needed.

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108
Q

Define what is meant by Dry Operating Mass

A

Total mass of the aeroplane ready for a specific type of operation excluding usable fuel and traffic load. The mass includes items such as:
i) Crew and crew baggage.
ii) Catering and removable passenger service
equipment.
iii) Potable water and lavatory chemicals.
iv) Food and beverages

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109
Q

How many ground spoilers on each wing?

A

Two

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110
Q

How many flight spoilers on each wing?

A

Four

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111
Q

You press recall and get FLT CONT; you see that the SPEED TRIM FAIL light is illuminated; what is this telling you?

A

Indicates failure of a single FCC channel

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112
Q

You press recall and get FLT CONT; you see that the MACH TRIM FAIL light is illuminated; what is this telling you?

A

Indicates failure of a single FCC channel

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113
Q

You press recall and get FLT CONT; you see that the AUTO SLAT FAIL light is illuminated; what is this telling you?

A

Indicates failure of single Stall Management / Yaw Damper (SMYD) computer.

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114
Q

What does the STBY RUD ON light tell you?

A

Standby rudder system is commanded on to pressurize the standby rudder control unit and thrust reversers

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115
Q

What happens if the Force Fight Monitor detects opposing pressure between A and B rudder actuators?

A
  • Standby hydraulic pump turned up
  • Standby rudder shut off valve open to pressurize the standby rudder PCU (and Thrust Reversers)
  • STBY RUD ON illuminates with Master Caution FLT CONT
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116
Q

What conditions cause the standby hydraulic system to automatically operate?

A
  • loss of hyd. system A or B, and
  • flaps extended, and
  • airborne, or wheel speed greater than 60kts, and
  • FLT CONTROL switch A or B Hydraulic system ON
    OR
  • the main PCU Force Fight Monitor trips
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117
Q

What does the amber SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED (in flight) tell you?

A
  • SPEED BRAKE lever is beyond armed position, and
  • TE flaps extended beyond flap 10, or
  • Radio altitude less than 800 feet
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118
Q

What does the amber SPEEDBRAKES EXTENDED (on the ground) tell you?

A
  • SPEED BRAKE lever is in the DOWN detent, and
  • ground spoilers are not stowed
    (note, does not illuminate when hydraulic pressure system A is below 750psi)
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119
Q

What conditions cause ground operation of the speed brake system on landing?

A
  • SPEED BRAKE lever is in the ARMED position
  • SPEED BRAKE ARMED light illuminated
  • radio altitude less than 10 feet
  • landing gear strut compresses on touchdown
    (any strut enables flight spoilers to deploy, compression of right main strut enables the ground spoilers to deploy)
  • both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE
  • main landing gear wheels spin up more than 60kts
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120
Q

If the SPEED BRAKE lever is in the DOWN position during landing or RTO, what conditions cause the auto speed brake system to operate?

A
  • main landing gear wheels spin up > 60kts
  • both thrust levers are positioned to IDLE
  • reverse thrust levers are positioned for reverse thrust
    (if either thrust lever is advanced, the SPEED BRAKE lever automatically moves the the DOWN position and all speed brakes are retracted).
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121
Q

What does the amber STAB OUT OF TRIM light tell you?

A

Autopilot not trimming the stabiliser properly

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122
Q

From which pack does flight deck air come from?

A

Left

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123
Q

Aside from switch / valve positions, what is the DUAL BLEED light really telling you?

A

Engine bleed air is more powerful than APU bleed air so you could damage the APU from backpressure.

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124
Q

During the climb, the RAM DOOR OPEN lights stay illuminated for longer than normal, what could this be telling you?

A

Cabin is still very hot and packs require full ram air for cooling or heat exchanger may faulty.
Note: these lights are removed from 737-8200

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125
Q

Does the APU bleed air switch position affect the isolation valve position?

A

No

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126
Q

What is the electrical power source for the fuel system spar valves and the APU fuel valve?

A

Hot battery bus.
Also they have their own battery charger and battery pack as a backup. (P6 panel)

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127
Q

What is the max lateral fuel imbalance?

A

453kgs / 1000lbs

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128
Q

When the refuelling panel is open, how is it powered?

A

Hot battery bus.

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129
Q

Can you refuel the aircraft if it is not connected to ground power but the battery switch is on?

A

Yes

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130
Q

The aircraft is connected to ground power but the ground power is not switched on. Can you refuel the aircraft?

A

Yes

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131
Q

What quantity of fuel does the 737-800 centre fuel tank hold?

A

13,800kgs

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132
Q

What quantity of fuel does each wing tank of a 737-800 hold?

A

3,900kgs

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133
Q

What do the fuel vents (near each wing tip) do?

A

Provide a small head of pressure to fuel in all three tanks.
- Prevents a vacuum forming as fuel is used
- Assists fuel pumps
- Prevents evaporation

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134
Q

When all six fuel boost pumps are on, why does the centre tank fuel get used first? (NG)

A

Centre tank pumps produce higher pressure (23PSI) compared to main tanks (10PSI)

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135
Q

From which fuel tank does the APU draw fuel from?

A

Main tank 1

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136
Q

From which tank is the fuel temperature taken?

A

Main tank 1 (will be coldest)

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137
Q

What power source do the fuel quantity indicators require?

A

Standby AC power.

138
Q

What is the electrical power source for the engine fuel shut off valves?

A

Battery bus

139
Q

What causes the centre tank scavenge pump to operate?
For how long does it continue to operate?

A

Main tank fuel pump number 1 FWD switch ON and main tank 1 quantity is about half.
For the remainder of the flight.

140
Q

Which method of trimming the stabiliser gives full range?

A

Manual trim wheel (-0.2 to 16.9)

141
Q

What are the three inputs to the elevator feel computer?

A
  • local airflow from two elevator pitot probes
  • Stab position via control rod
  • SMYD (if stall is sensed it applies 850psi Hyd A pressure to increase feel force on controls)
142
Q

CAT II approach minimums? (EASA and UK CAA)

A

DH below 200’ agl but not below 100’ agl
RVR 300m

143
Q

CAT III approach minimums? EASA

A

DH below 100’ agl
RVR 200m

144
Q

Below which RVR does EASA consider the conditions to be ‘All Weather Operations’

A

550m

145
Q

Describe V1

A

V1 is the maximum speed in the takeoff at which point a pilot must take the first action (e.g., apply brakes, reduce thrust, deploy speed brakes) to stop the aeroplane within the accelerate-stop distance. V1 also means the minimum speed in the takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the take-off and achieve the required height above the take-off surface within the take-off distance.

146
Q

Define Vmcg

A

Vmcg is defined as the minimum calibrated airspeed, during the takeoff run at which, if the critical engine suddenly fails, it is possible to maintain directional control using only aerodynamic controls.

Vmcg must not be greater than V1.

147
Q

Define Vmca

A

Vmca is defined as the minimum speed, whilst in the air, that directional control can be maintained with one engine inoperative (critical engine on two engine aerolanes), operating engine(s) at takeoff power and a maximum of 5 degrees of bank towards the good engine(s).

148
Q

What is meant by a ‘balanced field’

A

TODR is equal to ASDR

149
Q

You are flying IFR in VMC and you lose two way communication. What is the UK procedure to follow?

A
  • When VMC can be maintained: set transponder to Code 7600
  • Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome. Pilots should take account of visual landing aids and keep watch for instructions as may be issued by visual signals from the ground. The pilot should report arrival to the appropriate ATC unit as soon as possible.
  • If it does not appear feasible to continue the flight in VMC, or if it would be inappropriate to follow this procedure, the pilot should adopt the procedures for flights in IMC .
150
Q

If the autopilot disengage light is flashing amber, what is it telling you?

A

The autopilot has reverted to CWS pitch or roll while in CMD.

151
Q

If the autothrottle disengagement light is flashing amber, what is it telling you?

A

An autothrottle airspeed error if speed is not held within +10 or -5 knots of commanded speed when in flight, flaps not up and autothrottle engaged in MCP SPD or FMC SPD mode.

152
Q

VNAV mode is terminated by selecting a different ____ mode or Glideslope capture or Extending the wing flaps beyond __ degrees.

A

Selecting a different pitch mode or Glideslope capture or Extending the wing flaps beyond 15 degrees.

153
Q

During a dual channel approach the second autopilot must be engaged in CMD by ___ radio altitude?

A

800’

154
Q

The bank angle limit selector sets the limit of bank angle when using which AFDS modes?

A

Heading select and VOR

155
Q

The conditions for engaging the flight director in go-around mode are?

A
  • F/D switches can be ON or OFF
  • Inflight below 2,000 feet RA
  • Not in take-off mode
  • TO/GA switch pressed.
156
Q

If an engine fails while the autothrottle is in N1 mode, what happens to the thrust lever of the failed engine?

A

Advances a few degrees and returns to or below the other thrust lever position.

157
Q

The underspeed symbol in the MCP Speed window is what?

A

Flashing “A”

158
Q

During a dual channel autopilot approach, the Autopilot Disengage light illuminates steady red when below 800 feet. This indicates what?

A

The stabiliser is out of trim.

159
Q

During an autopilot go-around, the Autopilot Disengage light illuminates steady red. This indicates what?

A

The altitude acquire mode is inhibited (Stabilizer not trimmed for single A/P operation).

160
Q

What is the minimum Mach number that can be selected in the IAS/MACH display of the MCP panel?

A

0.60 Mach

161
Q

The IAS/MACH display change over switch on the MCP panel will change the display between IAS and MACH when pressed. An automatic change over occurs at what level?

A

FL260

162
Q

If the MCP selected Altitude is changed during ALT ACQ mode what happens to the pitch mode?

A

V/S mode is automatically activated.

163
Q

The autopilot is engaged in ALT HOLD mode. The control column is then pushed, causing the autopilot to engage in CWS P mode. After the aircraft has descended 150 feet from the initial altitude the force applied to the control column is released. What happens?

A

CWS P mode changes to ALT ACQ mode and the A/P returns to the initial altitude and ALT HOLD engages.

164
Q

How many air / ground sensors does the aircraft have?

A

Six (two on each gear)

165
Q

(UK CAA) When should a pilot declare ‘minimum fuel’?

A

a) when committed to land at a specific aerodrome; and
b) any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome
may result in landing with less than the planned final reserve fuel.

Do not expect priority. This is not an emergency situation but an indication that an emergency situation is possible should any additional delay occur.

166
Q

(UK CAA) When should a fuel emergency be declared?

A

when the calculated usable fuel predicted to be available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made is less than the planned final reserve fuel.

167
Q

If you lose the antiskid system is autobrake still available?

A

No

168
Q

If you lose the autobrake system is antiskid still available?

A

Yes

169
Q

What powers the alternate brake system?

A

Hydraulic system A

170
Q

What is the brake accumulator pre-charge pressure?

A

1000PSI

171
Q

Autobrake requires which hydraulic system to be operating?

A

B

172
Q

The HYD Brake Pressure indicator reads zero, but both hydraulic system pressures are normal, what is this telling you?

A

The nitrogen precharge in the brake accumulator has leaked out, accumulator braking is not available but normal braking is unaffected.

173
Q

The HYD Brake Pressure indicator reads 1000PSI and both hydraulic system pressures are zero, what is this telling you?

A

Brake accumulator used up, no further braking available.

174
Q

What would cause the CONFIG warning near the centre fuel tank quantity indication?

A
  • either engine running
  • center fuel tank quantity greater than 726 kgs; and
  • both center fuel tank pump switches positioned OFF
175
Q

What would cause the LOW warning next to the main fuel tank quantity indication?

A
  • fuel tank quantity less than 907 kgs in related main tank
  • display remains until fuel tank quantity is increased to 1134 kgs
176
Q

When would you do the ABORTED ENGINE START checklist?

A
  • the N1 or N2 does not increase or increases very slowly after the EGT increases
  • there is no oil pressure indication by the time that the engine is stable at idle
  • the EGT does not increase by 15 seconds after the engine start lever is moved to IDLE detent
  • the EGT quickly nears or exceeds the start limit
177
Q

What engines are on the B737-800?

A

CFM56-7

178
Q

Power source for right ignition (both engines)?

A

AC Standby Bus

179
Q

Power source for left ignition engine 1?

A

AC Transfer bus 1

180
Q

Power source for left ignition engine 2?

A

AC Transfer Bus 2

181
Q

On the overhead ENG panel, during flight the REVERSE light illuminates. Will you get reverse thrust on landing?

A

Yes

182
Q

What does ENGINE CONTROL (on overhead ENG panel) tell you?

A

EEC has a non dispatchable fault. (Inhibited above 80kts).

183
Q

When you move the rudder trim knob, how is that movement passed to the rudder trim actuator?

A

Electrical signal - creates an input to rudder PCUs and gives a backdrive of rudder pedals through the rudder cable system.
(If a cable broke then rudder trim could be used to control the rudder).

184
Q

What does the main rudder PCU Force Fight Monitor detect?

A

Opposing pressure between A and B actuators.
If condition detected for more than five seconds, FFM automatically turns on standby rudder PCU.

185
Q

Does the rudder have manual reversion?

A

No. There is no direct cable linkage.

186
Q

What is the greatest rudder deflection for NG and Max?

A

29 degrees

187
Q

What is the rudder trim limit (NG and Max)

A

18 degrees

188
Q

What is the yaw damper authority (NG and Max)

A

Flaps up: 2 degrees
Flaps not up: 3 degrees

189
Q

During what speed on take off does the rudder become aerodynamically effective?

A

Between 40 and 60 kts

190
Q

Mach trim is automatically accomplished above which speed?

A

Mach .615

191
Q

How many electric stablizer trim motors does the aircraft have?

A

One

192
Q

What is the trim authority of the main electric trim?

A

Flaps extended: 0.05 to 14.5 units
Flaps retracted: 3.95 to 14.4 units

193
Q

What is the authority of the autopilot trim?

A

0.05 to 14.5 units

194
Q

What is the authority of the manual trim?

A

-0.20 to 16.9 units

195
Q

If the B FLT CONTROL switch is positioned OFF or STBY RUD, can the YAW DAMPER switch be positioned to ON?

A

No

196
Q

How many leading edge flaps and slats on the 737-800?

A

LE flaps: 4
LE slats: 8

197
Q

Regarding the flap load relief, when the TE flaps are at 40, if the airspeed exceeds ___ knots the TE flaps retract to 30. When the airspeed is reduced below ___kts the TE flaps re-extend to 40.

A

163
158
(Note: it will only retract one stage of flap).

198
Q

Regarding the flap load relief, when the TE flaps are at 30, if the airspeed exceeds ___ knots the TE flaps retract to 25. When the airspeed is reduced below ___kts the TE flaps re-extend to 30.

A

176
171
(Note, it will only retract one stage of flap).

199
Q

At what flap positions is Autoslat function available on non SFP aircraft and SFP aircraft?

A

Non SFP: 1, 2, 5
SFP: 1, 2, 5, 10, 15, 25

200
Q

If TE uncommanded motion us detected the FSEU shuts down the TE drive unit by closing the TE flap bypass valve. Can the shutdown be reset by the flight crew?

A

No, they must use the alternate flap system to control the TE flaps.

201
Q

You are making an approach to RWY36. The wind is reported as 360 at 20 gusting to 30. What Vref addition should you add?

A

Vref + 15kts
or
if Vref + 15kts exceeds landing flap placard speed minus five knots, use landing flap placard speed minus 5 knots

202
Q

Takeoff with flaps 5, at what speed do you call for flap 1?

A

V2 + 15 (white bug or F on speed tape)

203
Q

Turbulence penetration speed B737-800?

A

280KIAS / 0.76M

204
Q

The maximum allowable on-the-ground altitude display differences for RVSM operations are: (for airfields between sea level and 5,000ft)

A

Between Captain and FO: 50ft
Between Captain or FO and Field elevation: 75ft

205
Q

Maximum cabin differential pressure (B737-800)

A

9.1psi

206
Q

Regarding the APU; after three consecutive aborted start attempts, a __ minute cooling period is required.

A

15

207
Q

What does the left WING BODY OVERHEAT light tell you?

A

Overheat from bleed air duct leak in left engine strut, left inboard wing leading edge, left air conditioning bay, keel beam or APU bleed air duct

208
Q

What does the right WING BODY OVERHEAT light tell you?

A

Overheat from bleed air duct leak in right engine strut, right inboard wing leading edge or right air conditioning bay.

209
Q

What does ZONE TEMP (CONT CABIN) and Master Caution AIR COND tell you?

A

A duct temperature overheat or failure of the flight deck primary and standby temperature control

210
Q

What does ZONE TEMP (FWD CABIN or AFT CAB) and Master Caution AIR COND tell you?

A

Duct temperature overheat

211
Q

During master caution recall you get ZONE TEMP (CONT CAB), what is this telling you?

A

Failure of flight deck primary or standby temperature control.

212
Q

During master caution recall you get ZONE TEMP (FWD CAB or AFT CAB), what is this telling you?

A

Failure of associated zone temperature control.

213
Q

With a PACK switch in AUTO, when will it regulate a pack to high flow?

A
  • One pack operating and
  • Flaps up
    Or when operating one pack from APU with both Engine bleed switches OFF
214
Q

You get a PACK light with Master Caution AIR COND light. What is this telling you?

A

Pack trip off or failure of both primary and standby pack controls

215
Q

On Master Caution recall you get a PACK light. What is this telling you?

A

Failure of either primary or standby pack control.

216
Q

On the Pressurisation panel you see an AUTO FAIL light with no ALTN light. What has most likely happened?

A

Dual pressurisation controller failure

217
Q

On the Pressurisation panel you see an AUTO FAIL light with an ALTN light. What has most likely happened?

A

Single pressurisation controller failure.

218
Q

The FLT ALT and / or LAND ALT indicators are showing 88888 or all dashes. What could have happened?

A

Panel failure detected after a DC power interruption.
If cabin altitude and cabin rate are normal, automatic control of cabin pressure is not affected by the failure.

219
Q

Is the isolation valve AC or DC operated?

A

AC

220
Q

The APU bleed valve is ____ controlled and _____ operated

A

DC controlled and pressure operated

221
Q

What does the High Stage Valve in the bleed air system do?

A

Regulates bleed air flow from the 9th stage compressor.

222
Q

Which pack provides conditioned air for the flight deck?

A

Left

223
Q

How many packs can the APU power:
1) On the ground?
2) In flight?

A

1) Two
2) One

224
Q

Can you operate more than one pack from one engine?

A

No

225
Q

What’s the purpose of the Ram Air System?

A

Provides cooling air for the heat exchangers.

226
Q

What is the selector range of the Air Conditioning individual temperature selectors?

A

Approx. 18C - 30C

227
Q

The Recirculation fans reduce the air conditioning pack load and the engine bleed load. From where do they draw air and where is it recirculated to?

A

Drawn from passenger cabin and E and E bay, recirculated to mix manifold.

228
Q

Are the recirculation fans DC or AC powered?

A

AC

229
Q

When operating the DCPCS in Manual mode, how long does outflow valve full range of motion take?

A

Up to 20 seconds.

230
Q

On the 737-800 or -900, the overboard exhaust valve is driven open if either pack switch is in ____ and the ____ recirculation fan is off

A

High
Right

231
Q

Is dual channel autopilot operation available with one generator powering both buses?

A

No

232
Q

If an MCP mode is active, but the switch is not illuminated on the MCP panel, what does this mean?

A

The mode cannot be deselected.

233
Q

What is the overspeed indication in the MCP IAS/Mach display?

A

Flashing “8”
(Vmo or Mmo, landing gear limit or flap limit).

234
Q

What is the underspeed indication in the MCP speed window?

A

Flashing “A”

235
Q

When does AFDS MCP SPEED automatically engage?

A
  • ALT ACQ engages
  • ALT HOLD engages
  • V/S engages
  • G/S capture occurs.
236
Q

If the N1 SET outer knob is in manual BOTH, 1 or 2 position, can the A/T exceed an N1 value that has been set?

A

Yes

237
Q

What are the LNAV bank angle limits?

A

8 degrees below 200’ AGL
30 degrees above 200’ AGL

238
Q

For a dual autopilot approach, at what point does SINGLE CH disappear?

A

When second autopilot engages and FLARE armed is annunciated.

239
Q

With the A/T Arm switch at ARM, the A/T go–around mode is armed:
- with or without the AFDS engaged
* when descending below 2000 feet RA
and:

A
  • when above 2000 feet RA with flaps not up or G/S captured
240
Q

On the MCP speed panel, can you select a speed which is above flap or gear placard speed or less than minimum speed?

A

Yes but the AFS won’t exceed or go below the limit speed.

241
Q

What is the wingspan of the B737-800?

A

35.79m

242
Q

When the Emergency Lights switch is in the ARMED position, what will cause all of the emergency lights to illuminate?

A

If airplane electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails or AC power is turned off

243
Q

With the WING ANTI ICE switch in the ON position, on the ground, what conditions must be met for the wing anti-ice valves to open?

A
  • Thrust on both engines is below takeoff warning setting and;
  • Temperature inside both distribution ducts is below thermal switch activation temperature.
244
Q

With the WING ANTI ICE switch in the ON position, on the ground, what would cause the the wing anti-ice valves to close?

A
  • Either engine thrust is above takeoff warning setting or;
  • Thermal switch is activated in either distribution duct.
    (Switch remains ON)
245
Q

When the aircraft is on standby power, is the standby airspeed pitot heated?

A

No

246
Q

What part of the the wing does the wing anti-ice system actually heat?

A

The three inboard leading edge slats.

247
Q

If you are cruising at or below 28,000 feet, what is the differential pressure limit?

A

7.45psid

248
Q

If you are cruising above 28,000 feet to 37,000 feet, what is the differential pressure limit?

A

7.80psid

249
Q

If you are cruising above 37,000 feet, what is the differential pressure limit?

A

8.35psid

250
Q

What is the minimum recommended warm up time (before applying pneumatic load) for the APU

A

3 minutes recommended, 1 minute absolute minimum.
(Electrical load can be applied with no warm up).

251
Q

The Flight Data recorder continuously records the most recent flight data, saving the most current data for the last __ hours of operation

A

25

252
Q

For how many days is the flight data recorder locator beacon operable?

A

30 days.

253
Q

What are the APU start duty cycle limits?

A

Three start attempts followed by a 15 minute cooldown period

254
Q

When can the landing gear aural warning horn not be silenced?

A

The aural indication cannot be silenced with the cutout switch at flaps greater than 10.

255
Q

When does the weather radar start automatically scanning for windshear?

A
  • thrust levers set for takeoff, even if engine is off or IRS not aligned, or
  • in flight below 2,300 feet RA (predictive windshear alerts are issued
    below 1,200 feet RA).
256
Q

If an EEC goes into soft alternate mode, the ALTN and ON light illuminate.
How is hard alternate mode activated?

A

By either retarding the thrust lever to idle or manually selecting ALTN with the EEC switch

257
Q

What route does engine oil take after leaving the engine to returning to the oil tank?

A

Scavenge pumps, scavenge filter, main engine oil cooler.

258
Q

What is the maximum authorised thrust reduction below any certified rating?

A

25%

259
Q

If a wet start is detected, the EEC will automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine after how long?

A

15 seconds after the start lever is moved to idle for ground starts.

260
Q

With normal power source on the buses, placing the battery switch to OFF will remove power from which buses?

A

Battery bus and switched hot battery bus.

261
Q

Above what windspeed is the navigation display wind direction/speed arrow shown?

A

6kts

262
Q

During the PRELIMINARY COCKPIT PREPARATION, the IRS Mode Selector is moved from OFF to ATT instead of OFF to NAV. How can normal IRS operation be regained?

A

Switch to OFF wait for ALIGN light to extinguish then perform full alignment

263
Q

During engine start, the EGT exceeds the starting limit, when does the EEC automatically turn off ignition and shut off fuel to the engine? On the ground, in flight or both?

A

On the ground only.

264
Q

Does the EEC provide EGT redline exceedance protection?

A

No

265
Q

During take-off, an engine oil pressure indicator is in the yellow band, what should you do?

A

Reject the take-off.

266
Q

In which fuel tanks are bypass valves located?

A

Both main tanks.

267
Q

With ENGINE START switch in OFF, automatic ignition will occur if N2 is between __% and __%?

A

57% and 50%

268
Q

If the thrust lever(s) are advanced after touchdown when will the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light illuminate?

A

After 3 seconds in the advanced position.

269
Q

During start the EGT display, both box and dial, turn red and the EEC automatically turns off ignition and shuts off fuel to the engine if the EGT exceeds the starting limit. Is this valid for both ground and inflight starts?

A

No, ground starts only.

270
Q

If the APU GEN OFF BUS light fails to illuminate by the end of the start cycle what light can you expect on the APU panel?

A

FAULT

271
Q

If the right pack primary control fails how is the right pack controlled?

A

By the left pack standby control.

272
Q

With the CONTROL PANEL select switch on the Displays Source Panel in the BOTH ON 2 position what effect does this have on the displays?

A

The First Officer’s EFIS control panel is supplying identical inputs to the Captain’s and First Officer’s displays.

273
Q

During battery start, when does the EEC start to operate?

A

15% N2

274
Q

With regard to TCAS, what is the definition of ‘proximate traffic’?

A

Proximate traffic is within six miles and 1200 feet vertically, but is not expected to cause a TA or RA alert.

275
Q

How many fire extinguishing bottles are there totally for engine and APU fires?

A

3

276
Q

Which bus supplies electrical power to the auxiliary battery charger?

A

AC ground service bus 1

277
Q

The flight crew oxygen system uses auto pressure breathing masks / regulators with pressure breathing starting at what altitude?

A

27,000 feet.

278
Q

Where is Engine Fuel Flow measured?

A

After passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve.

279
Q

How many fuel measuring sticks are installed?

A

16

280
Q

After a normal take-off, what pitch command can you expect from the F/D?

A

V2+20kts

281
Q

During a normal engine start, prior to placing the engine start switch to GRD, what engine parameters are available?

A

N1, N2, oil quantity and engine vibration.

282
Q

Which pitot probes and static ports are not heated?

A

Static ports.

283
Q

The Look-Ahead Terrain alerting system will show for terrain within ____ feet ______ altitude.

A

2000 feet barometric altitude.

284
Q

To see both left and right GPS position relative to the FMC position, which page should you select on the CDU?

A

POS SHIFT page 3/3

285
Q

When is TCAS TA Only mode enabled automatically?

A

Below 1000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected.

286
Q

What is the TCAS symbol for proximate traffic?

A

A white solid diamond.

287
Q

What does an amber COWL ANTI ICE light tell you?

A

Overpressure condition in duct downstream of engine cowl anti-ice valve.

288
Q

Approximately what is starter cutout speed?

A

56% N2

289
Q

What does the GEN OFF BUS light tell you?

A

The IDG is not powering its associated transfer bus.

290
Q

What does the SOURCE OFF light tell you?

A

No source has been manually selected to power the related transfer bus, or the manually selected source has been disconnected

291
Q

At what altitude will both A/Ps automatically disengage if FLARE is not armed during an ILS dual channel approach?

A

350 feet RA

292
Q

On which CDU page is ground speed displayed?

A

POS REF page 2

293
Q

During engine start the maximum time allowance for EGT indication after start lever is moved to idle is?

A

15 seconds

294
Q

In flight with both PACK switches in HIGH what happens with the RECIRC fans?

A

They will not operate.

295
Q

Is the fuel quantity displayed on the FMC PROGRESS page based on fuel flow inputs or obtained from the fuel quantity indication system?

A

Obtained from the fuel quantity indication system.

296
Q

During VNAV PATH DESCENT and below the Speed Restriction Altitude, what does the FMC Alerting Message OVERSPEED DISCONNECT mean?

A

VNAV has disengaged because airspeed has exceeded FMC Speed Restriction by more than 15kts.

297
Q

Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?

A

AC ground service bus 2

298
Q

In MANUAL pressurisation mode, how is the outflow valve driven?

A

Electric motor powered by DC standby bus.

299
Q

What is the alert for excessive bank angle?

A

BANK ANGLE, BANK ANGLE

300
Q

Which bus supplies electrical power to the main battery charger?

A

AC ground service bus 2

301
Q

To see both left and right GPS position in latitude and longitude you select which CDU page?

A

POS REF 2/3

302
Q

Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered from which electrical bus?

A

DC bus 1 and DC bus 2

303
Q

If all TEMPERATURE ZONE SELECTORS are positioned to OFF what temperatures do the left and right pack maintain?

A

Left 24 degrees
Right 18 degrees

304
Q

The wing-body overheat light comes on. What is the related master caution warning?

A

AIR COND

305
Q

When does the EEC automatically select approach idle?

A

In flight if flaps are in landing configuration or engine anti–ice is ON for either engine.

306
Q

What is the airspeed range for speed trim operation?

A

100kts - Mach 0.6

307
Q

When using halon in the flight deck the crew must don O2 masks with which setting?

A

EMER

308
Q

What does steady ON DC on the left IRS mean?

A

The related IRS is operating on DC power from the switched hot battery bus.

309
Q

When using alternate flap extension which system drives the leading edge devices to full extension?

A

Standby hydraulic

310
Q

The cockpit voice recorder uses four independent channels to record flight deck audio for ___ minutes.

A

120

311
Q

What is the minimum pavement width for 180 degree turn?

A

24.1 metres

312
Q

With the flight crew oxygen mask in the 100% position, it supplies 100% oxygen above which altitude?

A

At all altitudes.

313
Q

When the passenger service unit (PSU) is activated, how long can it supply oxygen?

A

12 minutes

314
Q

The ISFD is an emergency source of altitude, heading, attitude and airspeed. In case of total electrical failure it is powered by its own battery for how long?

A

150 minutes

315
Q

Where are the bleed trip sensors installed?

A

Both sides of the engine bleed air valve

316
Q

When do the ram air system deflector doors open?

A

On the ground only.

317
Q

As part of the preflight procedure, you are about to test the STALL warning. For this to be possible, an AC source must have powered the Aircraft for a minimum of approx. __ minutes

A

4

318
Q

Which buses power the galley buses?

A

AC Transfer buses.

319
Q

Which bus normally powers the AC Standby bus?

A

AC Transfer bus 1

320
Q

Moving the battery switch to OFF automatically shuts down the APU on the ground or in the air. Why is this?

A

Because APU fire detection requires battery power.

321
Q

What does the LE FLAPS TRANSIT (amber) tell you?

A
  • any LE device in transit
  • any LE device not in programmed position with respect to TE flaps
  • a LE uncommanded motion condition exists (two or more LE flaps or slats have moved away from their commanded position)
  • illuminates during alternate flap extension until LE devices are fully extended and TE flaps reach flaps 10 (15 SFP).
    (Light is inhibited during auto slat operation in flight)
322
Q

What does the LE FLAPS EXT (green) tell you?

A
  • all LE flaps extended and all LE slats in extended (intermediate) position (TE flap positions 1, 2 and 5)
  • all LE devices fully extended (TE flap positions 10 through 40).
323
Q

Flap extension should not be attempted above which altitude?

A

20,000 feet

324
Q

When the flap lever is moved from UP to 1, 2 or 5 what happens to the LE devices?

A

LE flaps extend to fully extended position.
LE slats extend to the extend position (intermediate).

325
Q

When the flap lever is moved above position 5 what happens to the LE devices?

A

LE flaps remain in fully extended position.
LE slats extend to fully extended position.

326
Q

How is the ALTERNATE FLAPS (trailing edge) system powered?

A

Electric motor

327
Q

When using alternate flaps the LE flaps and slats are driven to the full extended position using which system?

A

Standby hydraulic system

328
Q

Does the alternate flaps system provide asymmetry or skew protection?

A

No

329
Q

What are the normal starter duty cycles?

A
  • Multiple consecutive start attempts are permitted. Each start attempt is limited to 2 minutes of starter usage.
  • A minimum of 10 seconds is needed between start attempts.
330
Q

List from left to right what each of the four switches on the hydraulic panel are

A

ENG 1
ELEC 2
ELEC 1
ENG 2

331
Q

The ELEC 2 hydraulic pump powers which hydraulic system?

A

A

332
Q

The ELEC 1 hydraulic pump powers which hydraulic system?

A

B

333
Q

During gear retraction, how is rotation of the main gear wheels stopped?

A

The brakes automatically stop rotation

334
Q

During gear retraction, how is rotation of the nose gear wheel stopped?

A

Snubbers.

335
Q

Under what conditions can the landing gear warning horn not be silenced?

A

Below 200’ RA
If flaps are greater than 10 degrees.

336
Q

Under what circumstances will the fuel gauges turn amber and give an IMBAL alert indication?

A

A fuel imbalance of more than 453kgs and is displayed until the imbalance is less than 91kgs.

337
Q

From where are the ILS signals to the Standby Horizon Indicator supplied from?

A

No. 1 ILS Receiver.

338
Q

How is the main wheel fire detection system powered?

A

AC transfer bus 2 and battery bus

339
Q

How is cargo compartment smoke detection powered?

A

DC bus 1 and DC bus 2

340
Q

How is cargo compartment fire suppression powered?

A

Hot battery bus

341
Q

During the fire and overheat system test, what indications should you see when you move the switch in the FAULT/INOP position, if everything is working normally?

A
  • Both MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate
  • the OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminates
  • the FAULT light illuminates
  • the APU DET INOP light illuminates
    (Five lights)
342
Q

During the fire and overheat system test, what indications should you get in the flight deck when you move the switch in the OVHT/FIRE TEST position?

A
  • the fire warning bell sounds
  • both master FIRE/WARN lights illuminate
  • both MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate
  • the OVHT/DET system annunciator light illuminates
  • both engine fire switches / start levers (as installed) illuminate
  • the APU fire switch illuminates
  • both ENG OVERHEAT lights illuminate
  • the WHEEL WELL fire warning light illuminates if AC power is available
    (11 or 13 lights)

B737 (24 decks)

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