Type Rating Stuff (currently 737 Classic Based) Flashcards

1
Q

What are the North and South limitations of the aircraft (due to the IRS)?

A

60 deg S, 73 deg N

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2
Q

How many degrees of nose wheel steering does the tiller give?

A

78 degrees

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3
Q

How many degrees of nose wheel steering do the rudder pedals give?

A

7 degrees

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4
Q

From which fuel tank does the APU normally take fuel?

A

Tank 1

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5
Q

How many overwing exits on each side does the 737-400 have?

A

2

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6
Q

What is the Kva rating of the generators on the aircraft?

A

45Kva

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7
Q

What’s the voltage of the TRUs?

A

28V

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8
Q

How many electrical buses can the APU supply in flight?

A

One

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9
Q

What is the load limit for an engine driver generator?

A

125 amps

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10
Q

When in flight does the TR3 disconnect relay open?

A

Glideslope capture of flight director or autopilot ILS

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11
Q

What voltage is the NiCad battery?

A

24V

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12
Q

What’s the normal operating PSI of the hydraulic systems?

A

3000PSI

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13
Q

Why does the B hydraulic system reservoir have a larger capacity than the A system reservoir?

A

It links with the standby system, if required.

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14
Q

During ground operations, how much fuel should be in the number one fuel tank to ensure proper cooling of the A hydraulic fluid when using the electric hydraulic pump?

A

1676lbs / 760kg

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15
Q

What are the conditions that will activate the hydraulic landing gear transfer unit?

A

After T/O, engine N2 falls below 56%, gear lever UP, gear not UP.

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16
Q

What are the conditions required for activation of the hydraulic standby system in flight?

A

Flaps extended

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17
Q

What are the conditions required for activation of the hydraulic standby system on the ground?

A

Flaps extended, wheel speed greater than 60kts

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18
Q

What is the maximum permitted speed with the landing gear extended?

A

320kts / .82M

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19
Q

What is the maximum permitted speed to retract the landing gear?

A

235kts

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20
Q

What is the maximum permitted speed to extend the landing gear?

A

270kts / .82M

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21
Q

After landing, what conditions need to exist for the autobrake to operate?

A

Autobrake selector to required mode, right main gear spin up, thrust levers near idle.

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22
Q

Between which speeds on the take off roll will the autobrake not engage for an RTO?

A

60-90kts

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23
Q

In flight; if the gear is not down and the thrust levers are retarded to idle, what happens to the gear lights?

A

Red lights illuminate.

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24
Q

Which condition will cause the gear warning horn to sound (cannot be silenced)?

A

Flaps more than 15, gear not down, throttles in any position.

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25
Q

In which position should the landing gear lever be for manual gear extension?

A

OFF

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26
Q

Which hydraulic system normally powers the nose wheel steering?

A

A

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27
Q

Which hydraulic system normally powers the normal brakes?

A

B

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28
Q

How many packs can the APU power for take off, with engine bleeds off?

A

One

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29
Q

Up to 10,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?

A

One electrical system, one pack

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30
Q

Up to 17,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?

A

One electrical system OR one pack

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31
Q

Over 17,000 feet, how many electrical systems and how many packs can the APU power?

A

One electrical system, NO pack

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32
Q

What is the maximum APU operating altitude?

A

FL350

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33
Q

Successful APU starts are assure upto what altitude?

A

25,000 ft

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34
Q

APU fuel is normally supplied by which fuel tank, but can also be supplied by which tanks?

A

Tank 1, but can be supplied with left pump from centre tank or tank 2 with crossfeed.

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35
Q

What’s the max APU EGT at startup?

A

760C

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36
Q

What’s the max continuous APU EGT?

A

710C

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37
Q

To start the APU, what is the minimum voltage required from the battery?

A

23V

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38
Q

Most pneumatic bleed valves on the a/c are _________ activated and _________ operated.

A

Electrically activated and pneumatically operated.

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39
Q

During the use of engine anti ice on the ground, in which position should the APU bleed valve be and why?

A

Closed, because APU bleed air could back pressure the engine 9th stage bleed, causing it to close and losing sufficient bleed pressure for engine anti ice.

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40
Q

Under which conditions does the DUAL BLEED light illuminate?

A

APU bleed valve open, engine bleed SWITCHES in open position, potential for engines to backpressure the APU

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41
Q

When is it acceptable to have the DUAL BLEED light on and what is the limitation?

A

During engine start; keep engine at idle power

42
Q

The bleed trip off temperature sensor is in which position relative to the bleed air pre-cooler?

A

Downstream

43
Q

For engine start, which position should the engine bleed switches be in?

A

OFF

44
Q

How many operating packs are required to keep the cabin altitude below 8000 ft at maximum certified ceiling?

A

ONE

45
Q

Above what cabin differential pressure does the flow control valve open?

A

2.5PSI

46
Q

The pack valves are spring loaded to which position?

A

Closed

47
Q

With a pack switch in AUTO position, aircraft in flight, flaps retracted, what will happen to the flow rate if the opposite pack goes off?

A

It will automatically switch to HIGH

48
Q

Regarding the packs, when are the Ram air doors fully open?

A

On the ground, in flight with flaps extended, in flight when maximum cooling is required.

49
Q

Roughly where in the cabin is the cabin temperature sensor?

A

Over row 3

50
Q

A DUCT OVERHEAT warning illuminates when the air conditioning duct reaches what temperature?

A

88C

51
Q

When a duct overheat is sensed, what happens to the mix control valves?

A

They drive full cold

52
Q

For the 737-400, with a temperature controller set at AUTO, what temperature will it try to maintain?

A

21C

53
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure for the aircraft?

A

8.65psid

54
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure for take off and landing?

A

0.125psid

55
Q

What cabin differential pressure will the aircraft try to maintain when at or below 28,000ft?

A

7.45psid

56
Q

What cabin differential pressure will the aircraft try to maintain when above 28,000ft?

A

7.80psid

57
Q

During taxi in, when does the main outflow valve move to full open?

A

N1 less than 50%

58
Q

What is the normal rate of climb and descent of the cabin?

A

300fpm

59
Q

Where is the accessory section on each engine?

A

At the side

60
Q

Which stages of the compressor are variable vane?

A

First 4

61
Q

Is it permissible for the oil pressure to go into the amber range and when?

A

Yes, at low power

62
Q

Is the oil temperature sensed before or after it is cooled?

A

Before

63
Q

When is the FLT position of the engine igniters used?

A

In-flight engine restarts

64
Q

During the start procedure, when should you move the start lever from cutoff to idle?

A

N2 25% (minimum 20%)

65
Q

At what % N2 should the starter cut out on the 737-800?

A

56% N2

66
Q

The number 2 engine thrust reverser is powered by which hydraulic system?

A

B

67
Q

To which position does the thrust reverser isolation valve fail?

A

Closed

68
Q

When does the ‘REVERSER’ light on the overhead panel illuminate?

A

When reverser is in motion. (If position disagrees for more than 12s, you get a master caution)

69
Q

Which fuel tanks are normally refuelled first?

A

Wings

70
Q

The fuel in which fuel tank is usually consumed first?

A

Centre

71
Q

What are the capacities of each wing fuel tank?

A

4555kgs

72
Q

What is the capacity of the centre fuel tank?

A

7029kgs

73
Q

How are the fuel pumps cooled and lubricated?

A

By the fuel

74
Q

How many pumps are there per each fuel tank?

A

Two

75
Q

Is it possible to transfer fuel between fuel tanks whilst in flight?

A

No

76
Q

What is the maximum random fuel imbalance?

A

1000lbs / 453kg

77
Q

The fuel pumps are AC or DC?

A

AC

78
Q

Which fuel pumps operate at higher pressure, centre of wing?

A

Centre (so that centre tank empties first)

79
Q

The engine fuel shut off valves are DC powered from which bus?

A

Hot battery bus

80
Q

If both centre tank fuel pumps fail, is the centre tank fuel useable?

A

No

81
Q

When is the crossfeed valve light illuminated bright blue?

A

When the valve is in motion.

82
Q

What is the maximum fuel temperature?

A

+49C

83
Q

What is the minimum fuel temperature?

A

+3C above fuel freezing temperature or -45C, whichever is greater.

84
Q

Does the aircraft have tail anti ice?

A

No

85
Q

For engine anti ice, does the engine bleed switch need to be on?

A

No

86
Q

If you select engine anti ice ON, which other engine related system must be switched on?

A

Continuous ignition

87
Q

Specifically, which part of the aircraft does the wing anti ice heat?

A

Leading edge slats only.

88
Q

How are the wing anti ice valves operated?

A

By an AC motor.

89
Q

If the power is lost to a wing anti ice valve, in which position does it fail?

A

In the position that it failed.

90
Q

Which of the cockpit windows are electrically heated?

A

L1, L2, L4, L5, R1, R2, R4, R5

91
Q

Specifically, what does the ON light mean with regard to the window heat system?

A

The system is applying electrical power to heat the windows

92
Q

If a heated window overheats, how long should you wait before resetting it?

A

2-5 minutes

93
Q

For how long before take off should the window heat be switched on?

A

10 minutes

94
Q

The engine and APU fire squibs are powered by which electrical bus?

A

Hot battery bus

95
Q

The engine and APU fire detection systems are powered by which electrical bus?

A

Battery bus (battery must be on for it to work)

96
Q

The wheel well fire detection system is powered by which electrical bus?

A

AC transfer bus 1

97
Q

When you pull up an engine fire switch, what does it do?

A
  • Arms squib
  • Closes fuel valve at the tank
  • Closes bleed air valve
  • Closes thrust reverser isolation valve
  • Closes hydraulic valve (eng pump)
  • Trips gen. field and breaker
98
Q

When you pull up the APU fire switch, what does it do?

A
  • Arms squib
  • Closes APU fuel shut off valve
  • Closes APU bleed air valve
  • Closes APU inlet door
  • Trips gen. field and breaker
99
Q

When moving the fire detection / protection test switch to FIRE / OVHT, is it normal to get a FAULT light illuminated?

A

No

100
Q

For cargo hold protection, which of the two bottles discharges at a slow rate?

A

Bottle 2

101
Q

When would the A/P red light come on?

A

If the Horizontal Stabilizer is out of trim below 800 ft. when on a dual channel AP approach; or when ALT ACQ is inhibited during go-around (due to stabilizer out of trim on single channel g/a).