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B737 > Command Workbook // Prep for Captaincy > Flashcards

Command Workbook // Prep for Captaincy Flashcards

1
Q

Planning minima for destination aerodrome?

A

Destination: +/- 1 hour of ETA

  • RVR and visibility: At or above operating minima.
  • Non prec / circling the ceiling (BKN or OVC) must be at or above MDH.
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2
Q

Planning minima for destination alternate?

A

For ILS CAT I LTS, CAT II and CAT III: RVR must meet CAT I minima.
Standard CAT I: Ceiling and RVR must meet non- precision approach minima.
Non Prec: Non precision approach minima plus MDA+200 feet and RVR+1000m.
Circling: Ceiling must be at or above the circling minima.

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3
Q

737CL RFFS normal minimum for all cargo flight?

A

5

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4
Q

737NG RFFS normal minimum for all cargo flight?

A

6

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5
Q

Summarise how we apply TAF information when selecting an alternate aerodrome?
Include the application of TEMPO, PROB30 and PROB40 details.

A

TEMPO, TEMPO FM, TEMPO TL, TEMPO FM TL, PROB30 or 40: Deteriorations associated with persistent conditions should be applied (mean winds should be in limits but gusts exceeding limit may be disregarded).
Deteriorations associated with short-lived transient conditions may be ignored (mean winds and gusts that exceed required may be ignored). Improvements should in all cases be disregarded.

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6
Q

(WA): What is the T/O crosswind limit on a dry runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737CL?

A

35kts

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7
Q

(WA): What is the T/O crosswind limit on a dry runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737NG?

A

34kts

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8
Q

(WA): What is the LDG crosswind limit on a dry runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737CL?

A

35kts

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9
Q

(WA): What is the LDG crosswind limit on a dry runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737NG?

A

40kts

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10
Q

(WA): What is the T/O crosswind limit on a wet runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737NG?

A

25kts

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11
Q

(WA): What is the T/O crosswind limit on a wet runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737CL?

A

25kts

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12
Q

(WA): What is the LDG crosswind limit on a wet runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737NG?

A

40kts

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13
Q

(WA): What is the LDG crosswind limit on a wet runway, which is 45m or wider for the 737CL?

A

35kts

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14
Q

What is the T/O and landing crosswind limit for all of our aircraft types when the runway is less than 45m wide, regardless of surface condition?

A

15kts

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15
Q

When are you prohibited from using the Assumed Temperature Method?

A
  • Anti skid inoperative
  • Contaminated runway
  • Thrust reverser inoperative
  • Mixed engine configuration
  • When using improved climb
  • When performing a bleeds off take off.
  • Any power setting instrument is inoperative.
  • Dispatch is planned with the landing gear extended.
  • FMC is inoperative.
  • PMC/EEC is OFF or inoperative
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16
Q

Define ‘contaminated runway’

A

RWY of which more than 25% of the runway surface aero within required length and width being used is covered by the following:
Surface water more than 3mm (0.125in) deep or by equivalent depth of slush or loose snow
Snow compressed into solid mass and resists further compression (compacted snow)
Ice, including wet ice.

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17
Q

(WA) absolute minimum RVRs for takeoff?

A

125m/125m/125m

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18
Q

When conducting a low vis takeoff, what criteria must be met?

A

LVPs in force
Both crew trained and current for LVOs
90m visual segment at start of T/O roll
Required RVR achieved for all relevant reporting points (where A/C is travelling faster than 60kts)
HIRCL spaced 15m or less and HIEL at 60m or less
and are on

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19
Q

System minimum / minimum RVR for LTS Cat I ILS?

A

200’ // 400m / 125m / 75m

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20
Q

System minimum / minimum RVR for Cat II ILS?

A

100’ // 300m / 125m / 75m

21
Q

System minimum / minimum RVR for Cat III ILS?

A

50’ // 200m / 125m / 75m

22
Q

When considering approach minima, when may the stop end RVR may be disregarded?

A

When the LDA >2000m

23
Q

Describe the windshear escape manoeuvre for manual and automatic flight.

A 
MANUAL FLIGHT
• Disengage autopilot.
• Push either TO/GA switch.
• Aggressively apply maximum thrust* 
• Disengage autothrottle.
• Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate toward an initial pitch attitude of 15°.
• Retract speedbrakes.
• Follow flight director TO/GA guidance (if available) **
AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
• Push either TO/GA switch***
• Verify TO/GA mode annunciation. • Verify GA thrust.
• Retract speedbrakes.
• Monitor system performance****

MANUAL OR AUTOMATIC FLIGHT
• Do not change flap or gear configuration until windshear is no longer a factor.
• Monitor vertical speed and altitude.
• Do not attempt to regain lost airspeed until windshear is no longer a factor.

24
Q

When must bank angle be limited to 15 degrees?

When could this be an issue?

A

Below 400ft AAL
Below V2+15Knots

Emergency turn following EFATO

25
Q

Describe the recovery from a stall or approach to stall as PF.

A 
• Hold the control column firmly. 
• Disengage autopilot and
autothrottle.
• Smoothly apply nose down
elevator to reduce the angle of attack until buffet or stick shaker stops. Nose down stabilizer trim may be needed.*
• Roll in the shortest direction to wings level if needed.**
• Advance thrust levers as needed. 
• Retract the speedbrakes.
• Do not change gear or flap
configuration, except
• During liftoff, if flaps are up, call for flaps 1.
• Check airspeed and adjust thrust
as needed.
• Establish pitch attitude.
• Return to the desired flight path.
• Re-engage the autopilot and autothrottle if desired.
26
Q

Describe the terrain escape manoeuvre.

A

Disengage autopilot.
Disengage autothrottle.
Aggressively apply maximum* thrust.
Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch attitude of 20°.
Retract speedbrakes.
If terrain remains a threat, continue rotation up to the pitch limit indicator (if available) or stick shaker or initial buffet.
Do not change gear or flap configuration until terrain separation is assured.
Monitor radio altimeter for sustained or increasing terrain separation.
When clear of terrain, slowly decrease pitch attitude and accelerate.

27
Q

Which takes precedence:

TCAS RA manoeuvre or Approach to stall manoeuvre?

A

Approach to stall manoeuvre.

28
Q

Describe the response to a TCAS RA (not in landing configuration)

A
  • If maneuvering is needed, disengage the autopilot and disengage the autothrottle.
  • Smoothly adjust pitch and thrust to satisfy the RA command.
  • Follow the planned lateral flight path unless visual contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action.
29
Q

Describe the response to a TCAS climb RA in the landing configuration.

A
  • Disengage the autopilot and disengage the autothrottle.
  • Advance thrust levers forward to ensure maximum thrust is attained and call for FLAPS 15.
  • Smoothly adjust pitch to satisfy the RA command.
  • Follow the planned lateral flight path unless visual contact with the conflicting traffic requires other action.
  • Verify a positive rate of climb on the altimeter and call “GEAR UP.” (after positive rate call from PM).
30
Q

When would you not follow a TCAS RA?

A

You would not follow a descend RA issued below 1000 feet AGL.

31
Q

Visual Reference required for CAT I ILS / NPA?

A

Elements of the approach lighting system;

ii) The threshold;
iii) The threshold markings;
iv) The threshold lights;
v) The threshold identification lights;
vi) The visual glide slope indicator;
vii) The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings;
viii) The touchdown zone lights;
ix) Runway edge lights;
x) Other visual reference accepted by the authority.

32
Q

Visual Reference required for CAT II ILS

A

A segment of at least three consecutive lights being the centreline of the approach lights, or touch down zone lights, or runway centreline lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained. This visual reference must include a lateral element of the ground pattern, i.e. an approach lighting cross bar or the landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown zone lighting.

33
Q

Visual Reference required for CAT III ILS

A

A segment of at least three consecutive lights being the centreline of the approach lights, or touchdown zone lights, or runway centreline lights, or runway edge lights, or a combination of these is attained and can be maintained.

34
Q

What does ‘DENEB’ mean when added to a METAR?

A

Fog dispersal operations are in progress

35
Q

What should you do if the FMS or its related components fail whilst flying a PRNAV procedure?

A

Advise ATC: “Unable RNAV due equipment”
Climb above MSA if necessary
Request Radar Vectors
Use conventional Navaids

36
Q

(WA SOP): When the initial clearance is to a flight level, when should the PF set their altimeter to STD?

A

On completion of the Noise Abatement procedure – typically 3000’AGL.
(The PM should reset standard when workload permits and initiate the altimeter check).

37
Q

Can you conduct an autoland onto a runway with a braking action of ‘medium’?

A

No

38
Q

Describe the procedure for a visual circuit

A
  • Downwind: Flap 5
  • Abeam downwind end of the runway: Gear down, Flaps 15, set speed, start timing
  • Fly level for 45 secs (minus 1 sec for every 2kt tailwind)
  • Start descending turn
  • Base leg: Flaps 30/40, set speed, landing checklist
  • Turn final and land
39
Q

What is the minimum circuit height for a visual approach?

A

1500ft AAL

40
Q

When carrying out an autoland, what is the increment to the landing distance?

A

140m

41
Q

When is wing anti ice used on the ground?

A

Use wing anti-ice during all ground operations between engine start and takeoff when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, unless the airplane is, or will be protected by the application of Type II or Type IV fluid in compliance with an approved ground de-icing program.

42
Q

When does an airport implement LVPs?

A

The cloud ceiling is 200 ft or less; or the RVR has dropped to 600m or less.

43
Q

Which conditions should cause the ABORTED ENGINE START checklist to be accomplished?

A
  • N1 or N2 does not increase or increases very slowly after the EGT increases
  • There is no oil pressure indication by the time that the engine is stable at idle
  • the EGT does not increase by 10 (classic) or 15 (NG) seconds after the engine start lever is moved to idle detent
  • The EGT quickly nears or exceeds the start limit
44
Q

Normal starter duty cycle: Each start attempt is limited to how many minutes of starter usage?

A

2 minutes

45
Q

Normal starter duty cycle: A minimum of how many seconds is needed between each start attempt?

A

10 Seconds

46
Q

During extended engine motorings what is the maximum usage time for the starter for the first two engine motorings?

A

15 minutes

47
Q

During extended engine motorings, how much time is needed between the first two attempts?

A

2 minutes

48
Q

What is the definition of “Max motoring” during engine start

A

N2 acceleration less than 1% (approx) in five seconds.

B737 (24 decks)

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