w3 mc qs Flashcards
Which of the following best explains why twin studies are used to investigate nature vs. nurture?
(A) Monozygotic twins share 50% of their DNA, allowing researchers to isolate genetic effects.
(B) Comparing monozygotic twins raised apart helps determine how much environment influences traits.
(C) Dizygotic twins are genetically identical, making them ideal for genetic research.
(D) Adoption studies are irrelevant when studying behavioral genetics
(B) (Monozygotic twins raised apart allow researchers to isolate environmental influences.)
Caspi et al. (2002) examined the MAO-A gene and childhood maltreatment in predicting criminal behavior. What does this study demonstrate about the gene-environment interaction?
(A) Genetics alone determine whether a person will engage in violent crime.
(B) Environmental maltreatment does not affect individuals with high MAO-A levels.
(C) The likelihood of violent crime increases only when both genetic predisposition (low MAO-A) and environmental risk factors (maltreatment) are present.
(D) Environmental influences cannot override genetic predispositions.
(C) (Caspi et al. showed that both genetic and environmental factors interact to influence behavior.)
Which of the following best illustrates how genes and the environment interact in shaping behavior?
(A) Identical twins raised in different environments have identical personalities.
(B) A child with a genetic predisposition for high intelligence will always outperform peers in school.
(C) A person with a genetic vulnerability to depression may only develop the disorder in response to life stressors.
(D) Genetic factors completely determine behavior, regardless of environment.
(C) (Gene-environment interactions mean that genetic predispositions require environmental triggers.)
The Caspi et al. (2002) study on MAO-A and childhood maltreatment provides evidence that:
(A) Genetic and environmental factors independently shape behavior.
(B) Environmental factors can alter genetic sequences.
(C) A specific gene alone determines criminal behavior.
(D) The interaction of genes and environment influences the likelihood of violent behavior.
(D) (The study showed that low-MAO-A activity combined with maltreatment increased the probability of violent behavior.)
Which of the following best explains why a neuron does not fire continuously?
(A) Neurons require time to build up neurotransmitters before firing again.
(B) The all-or-none principle states that neurons fire at a constant intensity but vary in frequency.
(C) The neuron needs to enter a prolonged depolarization phase.
(D) Once an action potential starts, it cannot be stopped or influenced by inhibitory signals.
(B) (Neurons fire with the same strength each time but can adjust firing rate based on stimulus intensity.)
A neuron is currently at -70mV and has received multiple excitatory signals. What must occur for it to fire?
(A) The neuron’s voltage must reach the threshold (e.g., -55mV) via depolarization.
(B) The neuron must hyperpolarize before depolarizing.
(C) The neuron must first pass through the refractory period.
(D) Sodium (Na+) must exit the cell to initiate an action potential.
(A) (Excitatory inputs must depolarize the neuron to reach its firing threshold.)
If a drug functions as an agonist for dopamine, which of the following effects might it have?
(A) It will block dopamine receptors and reduce dopamine-related behaviors.
(B) It will increase dopamine levels or mimic its effects, leading to heightened motivation and pleasure.
(C) It will prevent dopamine from crossing the synapse.
(D) It will inhibit dopamine production.
Answer: (B) (Agonists enhance neurotransmitter effects; dopamine agonists increase reward/motivation behaviors.)
Why is long-term potentiation (LTP) important for memory and learning?
(A) It decreases synaptic strength to prevent overactivation.
(B) It strengthens synaptic connections through repeated activation.
(C) It relies on neurotransmitter depletion to encode memories.
(D) It prevents neural circuits from changing over time.
(B) (LTP enhances synaptic efficiency, making learning and memory formation more effective.)
Which brain structure is most crucial for maintaining homeostasis, including regulating hunger, thirst, and body temperature?
(A) Amygdala
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Thalamus
(D) Hippocampus
(B) (The hypothalamus is the body’s master regulatory structure, linking the nervous and endocrine systems.)
A patient has difficulty forming new long-term memories after brain damage. Which structure is most likely affected?
(A) Cerebellum
(B) Amygdala
(C) Hippocampus
(D) Basal ganglia
(C) (The hippocampus is crucial for long-term memory formation.)
Which of the following accurately describes the difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems?
(A) The sympathetic system prepares the body for action, while the parasympathetic system restores calm.
(B) Both systems increase heart rate and energy expenditure.
(C) The parasympathetic system inhibits digestion, while the sympathetic system promotes it.
(D) The sympathetic system is responsible for conscious movement, while the parasympathetic system controls reflexes.
(A) (Sympathetic = fight-or-flight; Parasympathetic = rest-and-digest.)
If a drug were to block norepinephrine receptors, what physiological effect would you expect?
(A) Increased stress response
(B) Decreased heart rate and blood pressure
(C) Increased neurotransmitter reuptake
(D) Enhanced sensory processing
(B) (Norepinephrine is involved in the stress response; blocking it reduces heart rate and arousal.)
How does the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis contribute to the stress response?
(A) It rapidly releases neurotransmitters to promote immediate action.
(B) It triggers the release of cortisol, which helps regulate energy use under stress.
(C) It suppresses the sympathetic nervous system.
(D) It functions independently of hormonal signals.
(B) (The HPA axis regulates long-term stress responses through cortisol release.)
Chronic overactivation of the HPA axis has been linked to:
(A) Increased memory recall and focus.
(B) Reduced immune function and heightened anxiety.
(C) Complete inhibition of neurotransmitter function.
(D) Lowered metabolism and reduced appetite.
(B) (Chronic stress weakens the immune system and is linked to anxiety disorders.)
What is the key takeaway from the study of Phineas Gage regarding the prefrontal cortex?
(A) The prefrontal cortex is essential for emotional regulation and personality.
(B) The brain cannot adapt after injury.
(C) Damage to the brainstem has no effect on behavior.
(D) The corpus callosum is responsible for motor control.
(A) (Phineas Gage’s injury demonstrated the role of the prefrontal cortex in personality and decision-making.)
What would happen if a neuron’s sodium (Na+) channels failed to open during an action potential?
(A) The neuron would fire continuously.
(B) The neuron would not depolarize and fail to fire.
(C) The neuron would become hyperpolarized immediately.
(D) The neuron would release more neurotransmitters.
(B) (Na+ entry is required for depolarization and action potential initiation.)
How does myelin improve neural communication?
(A) It increases the number of neurotransmitters released.
(B) It prevents depolarization, allowing the neuron to rest.
(C) It speeds up action potentials by allowing saltatory conduction between nodes of Ranvier.
(D) It generates additional action potentials.
(C) (Myelin enables faster transmission through saltatory conduction.)
If a patient is given a drug that blocks serotonin reuptake, what effect would this likely have?
(A) It would increase serotonin levels in the synapse, enhancing mood.
(B) It would decrease serotonin signaling.
(C) It would prevent serotonin from binding to receptors.
(D) It would inhibit the release of serotonin.
(A) (Blocking reuptake increases neurotransmitter availability, enhancing signaling.)
How do experience and learning influence neural plasticity?
(A) Synaptic connections strengthen or weaken based on use, altering neural circuits.
(B) Neurons regenerate at a rapid rate in adults.
(C) The brain’s structure is completely fixed by early adulthood.
(D) Plasticity only occurs in response to injury.
(A) (Experience shapes synaptic strength through plasticity mechanisms like long-term potentiation.)
Which scenario best illustrates the function of the amygdala?
(A) Remembering your first day of school.
(B) Feeling intense fear when encountering a snake.
(C) Maintaining balance while walking.
(D) Regulating digestion.
(B) (The amygdala processes fear and emotional associations.)
A person has trouble understanding speech but can still speak fluently. Which brain region is likely damaged?
(A) Broca’s area
(B) Wernicke’s area
(C) The hippocampus
(D) The occipital lobe
Answer: (B) (Wernicke’s area is responsible for language comprehension.)
What would happen if the sympathetic nervous system were activated continuously without parasympathetic counteraction?
(A) The body would remain in a heightened state of alertness, leading to chronic stress.
(B) The person would be unable to move voluntarily.
(C) The body would not produce enough neurotransmitters.
(D) Digestion and immune function would improve.
(A) (Chronic activation of the sympathetic system is linked to stress-related disorders.)
If a person experiences a sudden decrease in heart rate and blood pressure after a stressful event, which nervous system division is responsible?
(A) Sympathetic
(B) Parasympathetic
(C) Somatic
(D) Central
Answer: (B) (The parasympathetic system restores the body to a relaxed state.)
Why do hormones generally have longer-lasting effects than neurotransmitters?
(A) Hormones travel through the bloodstream, affecting distant tissues over time.
(B) Hormones act only on neurons, while neurotransmitters affect the whole body.
(C) Hormones cannot be regulated.
(D) Hormones function only in emergency situations.
Answer: (A) (Hormones are distributed via the bloodstream, leading to widespread and lasting effects.)
Which of the following is the best example of the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis in action?
(A) Increased cortisol levels in response to an upcoming exam.
(B) Increased dopamine release during pleasurable activities.
(C) Rapid reflex withdrawal from a painful stimulus.
(D) The release of insulin after eating.
Answer: (A) (The HPA axis regulates stress responses via cortisol.)
What does the case of Phineas Gage suggest about brain function?
(A) The frontal lobe is involved in personality and decision-making.
(B) The brain cannot function after traumatic injury.
(C) The hippocampus is responsible for voluntary movement.
(D) The cerebellum controls emotional regulation.
Answer: (A) (Gage’s injury demonstrated the role of the prefrontal cortex in personality regulation.)
How do split-brain patients provide insight into lateralization of brain function?
(A) They show that each hemisphere can function independently when disconnected.
(B) They prove that the left hemisphere is responsible for all cognitive functions.
(C) They demonstrate that brain hemispheres do not communicate under normal conditions.
(D) They show that language is processed in the right hemisphere in all people.
(A) (Split-brain research reveals hemisphere specialization and independent function when the corpus callosum is severed.)
