VII. Cross Country Flight Planning and Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What are the different methods of checking the accuracy of VOR equipment?

A

a. VOT Check; +-4º
b. Ground checkpoint; +-4º
c. Airborne checkpoint; +-6º
d. Dual VOR check; 4º between each other
e. Select a radial over a known point; +-6º

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2
Q

What information is provided by a maximum elevation figured (MEF) on a sectional chart?

A

Represents the highest elevation in that quadrant, including terrain and other vertical obstacles (towers, trees, etc.)
Figures are rounded to the nearest hundred feet above mean sea level.

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3
Q

You discover the radio is INOP. What procedures should be used when attempting to enter a traffic pattern and land at a tower controlled airport?

A

a. Remain outside of Class D airspace. Squawk 7600.
b. Determine the direction and flow of traffic.
c. Join the pattern, wait for light gun signals.
d. Acknowledge by rocking wings, or flashing landing lights at night.

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4
Q

What is the required preflight information does a pilot need to review before a flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport?

A

NWKRAFT (91.103)
Notams
Weather Reports/Forecasts
Known ATC Delays
Runway lengths of intended use
Alternatives available
Fuel Requirements
Takeoff and Landing distance data (TOLD)

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5
Q

What are the fuel requirements for a VFR cross country flight during the day/night?

A

Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing. Then…
DAY: 30 minutes
NIGHT: 45 minutes
*assuming normal cruise speed

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6
Q

What are the fuel requirements for an IFR cross country flight?

A
  • Enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing.
  • Fly from that airport to an alternate airport…
  • And fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruise speed
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7
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility a cloud clearance required for VFR flight in:
Class C, D, or E airspace?

A

BELOW 10K MSL
3SM Vis, 1,000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal

ABOVE 10K MSL
5SM Vis, 1,000 above, 1,000 below, 1SM horizontal

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8
Q

What is the minimum flight visibility a cloud clearance required for VFR flight in:
Class G uncontrolled airspace?

A

BELOW 1200ft AGL
Day: 1SM clear of clouds
Night: 3SM 152

ABOVE 1200 AGL, BELOW 10K MSL
Day: 1SM 152
Night: 3SM 152

ABOVE 10K MSL
5SM 111

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9
Q

When conducting IFR, what are the minimum altitudes required over surrounding terrain?

A

Mountainous Terrain – At least 2,000ft above the highest obstacle

Other than mountainous terrain – 1,000ft above highest obstacle

*Horizontal distance of 4nm from course

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10
Q

List two examples of when you would NOT be required to carry an ELT onboard.

A

a. Ferrying aircraft for installation or repair of ELT
b. Aircraft engaged in training flights within a. 50nm radius of an airport.

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11
Q

In general, when are you required to operate with a Mode C transponder with ADS-B out?

A

a. Inside Class A, B, C airspace (mode C veil)
b. Above and within the lateral boundaries of Class B, C up to 10,000ft MSL
c. Class E at and above 10,000ft MSL within the lower 48
d. Flying into, within or across ADIZ

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12
Q

Is a pilot allowed to drop objects from an aircraft in flight?

A

Pilots are prohibited from dropping an object from an aircraft that creates a hazard to persons or property.

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13
Q

What are the different types of Special Use Airspace?

A

Remember: MCPRAWN!!
Military Operations Area
Controlled Firing Area
Prohibited Area
Restricted Area
Alert Area
Warning Area
National Security Area
*Ronald McDonald likes shrimp!

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14
Q

What is the arrangement of the position lights on an aircraft?

A

Red: left wingtip
Green: right wingtip
White: on the tail

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15
Q

When are the position lights required to be on?

A

From sunset to sunrise.

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16
Q

What is the definition of “night” for logging night flying time?

A

Time between the end of evening civil twilight, and the beginning of morning civil twilight.

17
Q

What is the definition of “night” when determining currency for carrying passengers at night?

A

One hour after sunset, to one hour before sunrise.

18
Q

What is the definition of “night” when determining requirement to operate with position and anti-collision lights on?

A

Sunset to sunrise.

19
Q

Rotating Beacon: White and Green

A

Lighted Land Airport

20
Q

Rotating Beacon: White and yellow

A

Lighted Water Airport

21
Q

Rotating Beacon: Green, Yellow, White

A

Lighted Heliport

22
Q

Rotating Beacon: White, White, Green

A

Lighted Military Airport

23
Q

How does a pilot activate a radio-controlled lighting system?

A

Key the microphone 7 times for maximum intensity.

Intensity can be adjusted by 7, 5, or 3 clicks.

Lights will remain on for 15 minutes.

24
Q

What are some of the risks to flying VFR at night verses during the day?

A

a. Decreased visibility to see traffic, and terrain
b. Decreased ability to see and choose emergency landing location
c. Inability to see clouds
d. Optical illusions
e. Aeromedical effects on vision
f. Fatigue

25
Q

What are the regulations concerning use of supplemental oxygen?

A

BETWEEN 12,500-14,000
- Crew required for duration that is more than 30 minutes

BETWEEN 14K-15K
- Crew required the entire time at those altitudes

ABOVE 15K
- Every occupant must be provided with supplemental oxygen

ABOVE FL250
- At least a 10 minute supply for each occupant

ABOVE FL350
- At least one pilot is wearing and using an oxygen mask

26
Q

What additional navigational equipment is required when operating above FL240?

A

DME or suitable RNAV system.

27
Q

When is immediate notification to the NTSB required?

A

NTSB-830 (P-FACTION)
Property damage > $25k
Fire - in flight
Accident
Collision - in flight
Turbine failure
Illness of crew member
Overdue Aircraft
No control - Control failure

28
Q

After an accident or incident has ocured, how soon must a report be filed with the NTSB?

A

a. Within 10 days after an accident
b. When, after 7 days, an overdue aircraft is still missing

29
Q

Define aircraft accident.

A

From the time any person boards the aircraft with the intention of flight, and all persons have disembarked – in which any person suffers death, serious injury, or the aircraft receives substantial damage.

30
Q

Define “serious injury”.

A

NTSB-830
a. Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, commencing within 7 days from the injury
b. Results in bone fracture (excluding simple fractures: fingers, toes, noes)
c. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle or tendon damage
d. Involves any internal organ
e. Involves second or third degree burn over 5% of the body.

31
Q

Define the term “Substantial Damage.”

A

Damage or failure that adversely affects the structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics of the aircraft - requiring major repair or replacement of the damaged component.