IV. Airplane Systems Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of flaps?

A

Increase both lift and drag. Permits a slower airspeed and a steeper angle of descent during a landing approach. In some cases, they may also be used to shorten the takeoff distance (short field procedure).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the main types of flaps systems that are found on aircraft?

A

Plain flaps, split flaps, slotted flaps, and Fowler flaps.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some examples of leading edge lift devices?

A

Slots— directs high-energy air from under the wing to the airflow above the wing, accelerating upper airflow. Helps develop lift at substantially higher angles of attack.

Slats—A miniature airfoil mounted on the leading edge of a wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What instruments operate from the pitot/static system?

A

Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, and airspeed indicator.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the alternate static system used for?

A

In the event of an external static port blockage.
Alternate source is inside the cabin of the aircraft and will measure a higher pressure than the actual outside air pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are some limitations that affect a pressure altimeter?

A

a. Non-Standard Temperature
b. Non-Standard Pressure
* Remember: High to low or hot to cold, look out below!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Define “indicated altitude.”

A

The altitude read directly from the altimeter after it is set to the current altimeter setting.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define “pressure altitude”.

A

The height above the standard datum plane indicated when the altimeter setting window is adjusted to 29.92.

We use it to compute density altitude, true altitude, true airspeed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define “true altitude”.

A

The true vertical distance of the aircraft above sea level. Airport, terrain, and obstacle elevations found on aeronautical charts are true altitudes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define “density altitude”.

A

Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature variations.
The altitude the airplane feels like it’s flying at.

Directly related to an aircraft’s takeoff, climb, and landing performance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does the airspeed indicator operate?

A

Measures the difference between impact pressure from the pitot head and undisturbed atmospheric pressure from the static source.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Define “true airspeed.”

A

True airspeed (TAS)—CAS corrected for altitude and nonstandard temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two fundamental properties of a gyroscope?

A

Rigidity in space—A gyroscope remains in a fixed position in the plane in which it is spinning.

Precession—The tilting or turning of a gyro in response to a deflective force. The reaction to this force does not occur at the point where it was applied; it occurs at a point 90° later in the direction of rotation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the various magnetic compass errors?

A

Remember acronym “VD-MONA”:

Variation
deviation (electric disturbance)
magnetic dip
osscilation
northerly turning error
acceleration/deceleration errors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What will the manifold pressure gauge indicate when the engine isn’t running? After starting, what will it indicate?

A

When the engine isn’t running, the manifold pressure gauge will indicate ambient atmospheric pressure.

During normal operation, the manifold pressure gauge will indicate the pressure in the intake manifold, which is created by the engine’s intake stroke. This pressure varies based on the engine’s power settings and throttle position.

For example, during idle or low-power settings, the manifold pressure will be relatively low, indicating a lower pressure in the intake manifold.
During high-power settings, such as takeoff or climbing, the manifold pressure will increase as more air is drawn into the engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 4 strokes of a piston engine?

A

Intake, compression, power, exhaust.

17
Q

What is fuel injection?

A

Fuel is injected into the system either directly into the cylinders or just ahead of the intake valves. Most designs incorporate an engine-driven fuel pump, fuel/air control unit, fuel manifold valve, discharge nozzles, auxiliary fuel pump, and fuel pressure/flow indicators.

18
Q

What are some advantages of fuel injection?

A

a. Reduction in evaporative icing.
b. Better fuel flow.
c. Faster throttle response.
d. Precise control of mixture.
e. Better fuel distribution.
f. Easier cold weather starts.

19
Q

What are some disadvantages associated with fuel-injected engines?

A

a. Difficulty in starting a hot engine.
b. Vapor locks during ground operations on hot days.
c. Problems associated with restarting an engine that quits because of fuel starvation.

20
Q

What is an alternate induction air system and when is it used?

A

Allow induction airflow to continue should the primary induction air opening become blocked (usually by ice).
Automatically opens on the C172S.

21
Q

What is the condition known as vapor lock?

A

Avgas vaporizes in the fuel line and blocks the flow to the engine. This typically occurs on warm days.

22
Q

What are turbochargers?

A

Basically a compressor and a turbine.
Exhaust gas rotates the turbine, which turns the compressor sending pressurized air into the engine.

Maintains sea level engine power as altitude is increased.

23
Q

What are the two main types of fixed-pitch propellers?

A

Climb propeller—has a lower pitch, therefore less drag. Results in higher RPM and more horsepower being developed by the engine; increases performance during takeoffs and climbs, but decreases performance during cruise.

Cruise propeller—has a higher pitch, therefore more drag. Results in lower RPM and less horsepower capability; decreases performance during takeoffs and climbs, but increases efficiency during cruising flight.

24
Q

What is the purpose of a constant speed propeller?

A

Allows the propeller to adjust the blade angle to maintain a constant engine speed. Increases the airplane’s efficiency in various flight conditions.

25
Q

What is a propeller governor?

A

Controls the flow of engine oil to or from a piston in the propeller hub. The engine oil pushes a piston forward that twists the propeller blades toward a high pitch/low RPM condition.

26
Q

With a constant speed prop, which condition induces the most stress on the engine?

A

High manifold pressure and low RPM can induce damaging detonation.
Use the cruise charts in the AFM/POH

27
Q

If a loss of oil pressure in a constant speed propeller occurs, what effect will this have on the propeller pitch and RPM?

A

Propeller will default to a low-pitch, high RPM setting in the event of a loss of oil pressure. This allows the aircraft to still be flown at high power settings if the engine is still operating.

28
Q

Describe the different colors of fuel.

A

80 (obsolete) = Red
100 (obsolete) = Green
100LL = Blue
Jet A = Colorless or straw

29
Q

Are fuel quantity indicators required to be accurate?

A

§23.2430 says that fuel systems must provide the flightcrew with a means to determine the total usable fuel available.

30
Q

What are two types of oil a pilot might use in the operation of a piston-powered aircraft?

A

Mineral oil— normally used after an engine overhaul or to break in a new engine.

Ashless dispersant— additive picks up contamination and carbon particles and keeps them suspended so that buildups and sludge do not form in the engine.

31
Q

What function does the voltage regulator have?

A

Controls the rate of charge to the battery by stabilizing the generator or alternator electrical output.
Makes sure the battery isn’t overcharging.

32
Q

What type of ignition system does your airplane have?

A

Two engine-driven magnetos, and two spark plugs per cylinder.

33
Q

What are the main aeromedical risks associated with the cabin heater system in the C172?

A

Carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning—colorless and odorless gas produced by incomplete combustion. If there is a leak (cracked shrouding), CO can enter the aircraft cabin, leading to CO poisoning.

34
Q

What are the three main components of aircraft oxygen systems?

A

a. A storage system (containers).
b. A delivery system.
c. Mask or nasal cannula.

35
Q

What are three types of oxygen systems?

A

a. Diluter-demand.
b. Pressure-demand.
c. Continuous-flow.

36
Q

Describe how a pressurized aircraft works.

A

the cabin, flight compartment, and baggage compartments are a sealed unit

On aircraft powered by turbine engines, bleed air from the engine compressor section is used to pressurize the cabin, and piston-powered aircraft may use air supplied from each engine turbocharger.

Air is slowly released from the fuselage by a regulator called an outflow valve.

37
Q

What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of airframe ice?

A

a. Pneumatic boots
b. Hot air (common on turboprops)
c. Electric heat
d. Fluid (TKS)

38
Q

What are static dischargers?

A

Reduce radio receiver interference from static electricity that builds up from rain hitting the aircraft.