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4 Reviewer A - Veterinary Pharmacology > Veterinary Pharma - General Pharmacology A > Flashcards

Veterinary Pharma - General Pharmacology A Flashcards

1
Q

A conjugated drug is usually:
a.Active
b.Inactive
c.Unchanged
d.All of the above

A

Inactive

Conjugation reaction comprise the phase II of drug biotransformation. These reactions result in polar, usually more water soluble compound that is most often therapeutically inactive

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2
Q

What does graded-dose response mean?
a.A dose needed to produce an effect
b.Individual animals either respond to the dose or none at all
c.An increase in the dose would produce an increase in response
d.Effects seen on an animal is independent of the dose given

A

An increase in the dose would produce an increase in response

The graded dose response refers to the rate of change in the intensity of a certain biologic system proportional to the change in drug concentration. Quantal dose response is an all or nothing relationship

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3
Q

Drug potency refers to:
a.Measure of how much drug is required to elicit a given response
b.Maximal response produced by a drug
c. Dose that produces an effect in 50% of the population
d.None of the above

A

Measure of how much drug is required to elicit a given response

Potency refers to the dose that must be administered to produce a particular
effect of given intensity.

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4
Q

The conjugation of a sulfate group to a drug:
a.Activates the drug
b.Makes the drug polar
c. Is a phase I biotransformation reaction
d.Occurs at the same rate in adults and in neonates

A

Makes the drug polar

Sulfation is a part of phase II drug biotransformation. Phase II biotransformation makes a drug polar and increases its solubility in water

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5
Q

Which of the following drugs require an S2 license?
a.Ursodeoxycholic acid
b.Finasteride
c. Levothyroxine
d.Fentanyl

A

Fentanyl

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6
Q

A drug can do the following except:
a.A drug may be a poison
b.A drug may induce a pharmacological or a physiological effect
c.A drug may confer qualitative effects
d.A drug may be toxic to one organism but not to another

A

A drug may confer qualitative effects

Drugs cannot create new bodily functions. They can only modify pre
existing bodily functions

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7
Q

The following statements accurately describe pharmacodynamics except:
a.Temporal changes in the concentration of drugs within the body
b.Pinpoints the sites at which drugs produce their effects
c. Describes how biologic effects are produced
d.Identifies the influences that affect the safety and efficacy of drugs

A

Temporal changes in the concentration of drugs within the body

This describes pharmacokinetics

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8
Q

Drugs cannot easily pass through the following except:
a.Blood brain barrier
b.Blood testicular barrier
c.Placenta
d.None of the above

A

None of the above

All are specialized barriers

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9
Q

What is the most dangerous route of administration?
a. IM
b.IV
c.SC
d.IP

A

IV

Drugs administered via IV produce their
effects almost immediately. All of the drug is also absorbed

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10
Q

This animal species can eat deadly nightshade
a.Cats
b.Pigs
c.Rabbits
d.Dogs

A

Rabbits

Atropine produces no adverse effects on rabbits because of the presence of atropinase. The drug is hydrolyzed in their plasma

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11
Q

A basic drug was administered orally. What would happen once the drug has reached the stomach?
a. Drug ionization is enhanced
b.Drug ionization is suppressed
c.A and B
d.NOTA

A

Drug ionization is enhanced

Weak bases ionize/dissociate in acidic portions of the GI tract. This decreases their ability to diffuse through the lipid portion of membranes.

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12
Q

The following would delay the transport of the drug from the stomach to the intestine except:
a.Parasympathetic stimulation
b.Exercise
c.Stress
d.The presence of food in the stomach

A

Parasympathetic stimulation

Parasympathetic input increases the rate of gastric emptying.

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13
Q

This animal species have a high susceptibility to sulfonamide toxicity
a. Dogs
b.Cats
c.Pigs
d.Horses

A

Dogs

Acetylation occurs in the reticuloendothelial cells in the liver. Examples of drugs that undergo acetylation include: sulfonamides, clonazepam, and procainamide

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14
Q

Which of the following drugs is excreted in the urine unchanged?
a. Lipid-soluble drugs
b.Hydrophobic drugs
c. Hydrophilic drugs
d.None of the above

A

Hydrophilic drugs

Hydrophilic drugs are often excreted in the urine unchanged. Hydrophobic drugs may be reduced to a more water soluble form before being excreted

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15
Q

Atropine acts at which receptor?
a.A1
b.B1
c.Nicotinic
d.Muscarinic

A

Muscarinic

Atropine is an anti-muscarinic

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16
Q

At which site are you going to administer a local anesthetic drug if you wish to perform a caudal epidural anesthesia in Cattle?
a. 1st and 2nd coccygeal vertebra
b.Lumbosacral
c.Sacrococcygeal
d.2nd and 3rd coccygeal

A

1st and 2nd coccygeal vertebra

Caudal epidural in Horses – 1st and 2nd
coccygeal junction
High epidural -Lumbosacral junction

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17
Q

This drug may cause irreversible inhibition of plasma
pseudocholinesterase activity
a.Carbaryl
b.Penicillin
c.Malathion
d.Phenylbutazone

A

Malathion

Malathion is an organophosphate. An anticholinesterase agent, they irreversibly bind to acetylcholinesterase via phosphorylation

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18
Q

The rumen may serve as an ion trap for which type of drugs?
a.Basic
b.Acidic
c.Neutral
d.NOTA

A

Basic

Basic drugs ionize freely in an acidic environment thus, limiting their absorption in this compartment

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19
Q

What type of drug interaction occurs if metoclopramide is given with loperamide?
a.Antagonism
b.Potentiation
c.Synergism
d.Additive effect

A

Antagonism

Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent, Loperamide is an opioid.

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20
Q

Which of the following NSAID’s is the most effective at alleviating visceral pain especially those that are related to colic?
a.Celecoxib
b.Flunixin meglumine
c. Firocoxib
d.Phenylbutazone

A

Flunixin meglumine

In horses, flunixin alleviates colic but may mask behavioral and cardiopulmonary signs of endotoxemia and or intestinal devitalization

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21
Q

Which of the following does not require an S2 license?
a.Phenobarbital
b.Codeine
c.Thiofentanyl
d.Malathion

A

Malathion

22
Q

What is the mode of activity of omeprazole?
a.Neutralize HCl
b.Increases Histamine release
c. Inhibits the H+/K+- ATPase on parietal cells
d.Provides coating on the gastric mucosa

A

Inhibits the H+/K+- ATPase on parietal cells

Omeprazole binds irreversibly at the secretory surface of parietal cells to the enzyme H+/K+- ATPase. There, it inhibits the transport of Hydrogen ions into the stomach

23
Q

The following are contraindications of Metoclopramide except:
a.GI hemorrhage
b.Perforation
c.Obstruction
d.NOTA

A

None of the above

Along with hypersensitivity, all choices are contraindications of metoclopramide

24
Q

Which drug does not belong to the group?
a.Tramadol
b.Tolfenamic acid
c. Carprofen
d.Meloxicam

A

Tramadol

Tramadol is an opioid analgesic. All other
choices are NSAID’s

25
Q

A bitch is suffering from dystocia. Upon closer inspection, it has been noted that the fetus is at an abnormal position. which of the following events will most likely occur after oxytocin administration?
a.Hypersensitivity
b.Enhancement of uterine contractions
c.Uterine rupture
d.Uterine prolapse

A

Uterine rupture

Uterine contractions while the fetus is at
an abnormal position will lead to uterine
inertia followed by uterine rupture

26
Q

During euthanasia, loss of physiologic
function should occur in which sequence in order to minimize the fear and distress experienced by the animal?
I. Loss of motor function
II. Respiratory and cardiac arrest
III. Loss of brain function
IV. Loss of consciousness

a. I,II,III,IV
b.III,IV,II,I
c. IV,III,I,II
d. IV, I, II, III

A

IV, I, II, III

If any of these events precede the loss of
consciousness, the animal will be aware of the events that will happen during slaughter

27
Q

The following are physiological factors that affect drug absorption except:
a.Food
b.Diarrhea
c.Micronization
d.Gastrointestinal pH

A

Micronization

This reduces the dissolution time of drugs in the guts

28
Q

What is the main toxic compound of chocolate?
a. 3, 7 dimethylxanthine
b. 1, 3, 7 dimethylxanthine
c. 5, 7 trimethylxanthine
d. 1, 3, 7 trimethylxanthine

A

3, 7 dimethylxanthine

The main toxic components of chocolate is theobromine (3, 7 dimethylxanthine) and caffeine (1, 3, 7 trimethylxanthine)

29
Q

A lactating cow ingested avocado leaves. Which of the following clinical signs will most likely appear?
a.Sloughing of the hoof
b.Myocardial necrosis
c.Nephritis
d.Sterile mastitis

A

Sterile mastitis

Ingestion of avocado (persin) results to myocardial necrosis in non-lactating animals. Lactation provides a degree of protection against myocardial injury when small amounts are ingested

30
Q

These are drugs that stimulate the flow of saliva:
a. Sialogogues
b. Cholalogogues
c. Astringents
d. Carminatives

A

Sialogogues

31
Q

Where does furosemide produce its effects?
a. Proximal convoluted tubule
b. Loop of henle
c. Distal convoluted tubule
d. Collecting duct

A

Loop of henle

Furosemide belongs to the loop diuretics. They act on the loop of henle.

32
Q

Which of the following situations is an example of extra-label drug use?
a. Using feline medications on toms
b. Using canine medications on puppies
c. Administering a drug via IM even if its labeled for SC
d. NOTA

A

Administering a drug via IM even if its labeled for SC

Extra-label drug use refers to the usage of drugs that is not in accordance with its intended purpose

33
Q

The following are routes of administration of rabies vaccine except:
a. Subcutaneous
b. Intramuscular
c. Per Os
d. All are used as routes

A

All are used routes

34
Q

What course of action is the most appropriate when prescribing to 10 or more animal units of the same species on the same location?
a. A simple prescription should be sufficient
b. A simple prescription and a S2 license is necessary
c. A veterinary Drug Order is needed
d. A Veterinary Drug Order and a VPCR letter is necessary

A

A Veterinary Drug Order and a VPCR letter is necessary

As of DA AO 39, Series of 1991

35
Q

You are presented with a patient having dry, unproductive cough. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate?
a. Antitussives
b. Expectorants
c. Mucolytics
d. Antibacterials

A

Antitussives

Expectorants and mucolytics are used to increase the output of bronchial secretions and enhance clearance. Antitussives are indicated to relieve the discomfort associated with non-productive coughing

36
Q

In which animal species does propofol induce oxidative injuries?
a. Feline
b. Canine
c. Bovine
d. Ovine

A

Feline

Propofol can cause Heinz body formation, slowed recoveries, anorexia, lethargy, and malaise in cats.

37
Q

The following are therapeutic uses of glucocorticoids except:
a. For adrenal insufficiency
b. Anti-inflammatory
c. Immunosuppression
d. None of the above

A

None of the above

The three choices are general uses of glucocorticoids. Dose ranges have been derived to cater these pharmacologic effects

38
Q

Which of the following enzymes is responsible drug biotransformation that occurs in the mitochondria?
a. Butyrylcholinesterase
b. Monoamine oxidase
c. Acetylcholinesterase
d. Glucuronidase

A

Monoamine oxidase

Butyrylcholinesterase – plasma
Glucuronidase – intestinal microbial organism
Acetylcholinesterase – Neurons and NMJ

39
Q

Which of the following B receptor agonists is best suited for long-term use against inflammatory airway disease?
a. Epinephrine
b. Isoproterenol
c. Terbutaline
d. None of the above

A

Terbutaline

Isoproterenol helps against IAD. Its cardiac effects however, make it unsuitable for long term use

40
Q

A 6-year old dog suffering from CHF has been prescribed furosemide as an adjunctive therapeutic. Compute for the dose (the dog is 7 kg and the concentration of the drug is 30 mg/tab)
a. 2 tabs per administration
b. 1 tab per administration
c. 1⁄2 tab per administration
d. 1 1⁄2 tabs per administration

A

1/2 tab per administration

TDD= (BW x dosage)/Concentration
As an adjunct for CHF – 2 mg/kg = 0.466

41
Q

An agent that is inactive upon administration and must undergo metabolism to become active
a. Dualist
b. Precursors
c. Prodrug
d. Conjugates

A

Prodrug

Prodrugs become active only after undergoing first pass effect. An example of which is Febantel

42
Q

What happens to drugs that reach the kidneys after they undergo biotransformation?
a. Their lipid solubility is increased
b. They become more hydrophobic
c. Their ability to be reabsorbed is increased
d. Their ability to be reabsorbed is decreased

A

Their ability to be reabsorbed is decreased

After biotransformation, drugs generally become polar. Their solubility in water also increases. This in turn reduces their ability to be reabsorbed and their volume of distribution.

43
Q

The following are effects of enterohepatic recycling except:
a. Increases a drug’s half life
b. Consists of biliary excretion then reabsorption in the
intestines
c. Delays drug elimination
d. None of the above

A

None of the above

Drugs may be excreted in the bile. After which, the excreted drug reaches the duodenum and will be absorbed. The drug absorbed may reach the systemic circulation

44
Q

After 2 half-lives, how much is left in the body from a 50 mg drug injected via IV?
a. 25 mg
b. 12.5 mg
c. 37.5 mg
d. 50 mg

A

12.5mg

After 1 half life, 50% of the drug has been eliminated from the body. After 2 half lives, 75% of the drug has been eliminated from the body

45
Q

The following statements regarding efficacy is true except:
a. It is also known as intrinsic activity
b. Antagonists lack intrinsic activity
c. Drugs with high efficacy will produce a maximal effect only if they are able to bind to all target receptors
d. All of the abobve

A

Drugs with high efficacy will produce a maximal effect only if they are able to bind to all target receptors

Drugs/ agonists with high efficacy will produce a maximal effect even if only a small number of receptors have been occupied

45
Q

What is the ability of a drug to elicit a response once it binds to a receptor?
a. Potency
b. Affinity
c. Efficacy
d. NOTA

A

Efficacy

Efficacy or intrinsic activity is the ability of a drug to elicit a response when it binds to a receptor.

46
Q

A type of drug reaction in which the effects are unpredictable and dose independent
a. Toxicosis
b. Lethal synthesis
c. Anaphylaxis
d. None of the above

A

Anaphylaxis

47
Q

The following statements about tiletamine-zolazepam are true except:
a. It may cause hypothermia
b. Athetoid movements may be observed
c. It is recommended for use in lagomorphs
d. It does not abolish palpebral, pedal, and pharyngeal reflexes

A

It may cause hypothermia

It is not recommended in lagomorphs because it is implicated as a cause of nephrosis

48
Q

Coffee may be considered as the following except:
a. Drug
b. Food
c. Nutraceutical
d. None of the above

A

Coffee may be used as a mild diuretic and as a CNS stimulant

49
Q

The fetus of this animal species is highly susceptible to the effects of drugs
a. Pigs
b. Cattle
c. Monkeys
d. Dogs

A

Monkeys

Pigs –Epitheliochorial
Cattle –Synepitheliochorial
Dogs –Endotheliochorial
Monkeys -emochorial

4 Reviewer A - Veterinary Pharmacology (15 decks)

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