Veterinary Pharma - General, Clinical & Toxicology Flashcards

1
Q

A lactating cow ingested avocado leaves. Which of the following clinical signs will most likely appear?
a.Sloughing of the hoof
b.Myocardial necrosis
c.Nephritis
d.Sterile mastitis

A

Sterile mastitis

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2
Q

Cats are particularly sensitive to the effects of many insecticides. Which of the following insecticides is most appropriate for use in or around cats?
a.Benzene hexachloride
b.Carbophenothion
c.Imidacloprid
d.Permethrin

A

Imidacloprid

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3
Q

Atenolol is given in dogs with sinus tachycardia, and treatment of supraventricular and ventricular arrythmias. What is the mechanism of action?
a.B1 adrenergic receptor blocking
b.Fast sodium channel blocking
c.Potassium channel blocking
d.Slow calcium channel blocking

A

B1 adrenergic receptor blocking

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4
Q

This is an NSAID with antineoplastic properties
a.Piroxicam
b.Carprofen
c.Meloxicam
d.Flunixin

A

Piroxicam

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5
Q

Which does not belong to the group?
a.Kaolin/Pectin
b.Bismuth subsalicylate
c.Atropine
d.Psyllium

A

Psyllium

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6
Q

Which does not belong to the group?
a.Acetazolamide
b.Torasemide
c.Chlorthiazide
d.Nitroprusside

A

Nitroprusside

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7
Q

A dog was diagnosed of hypothyroidism. Which of the following is not true?
a.Levothyroxine is prescribed
b.Total dosage max is 0.04mg/kg
c.Med should be given with food
d.The most important indicator of success is clinical improvement

A

Med should be given with food

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8
Q

What is the first indicator of local anesthetic toxicity?
a.Skeletal muscle twitching
b.Tonic-clonic convulsions
c.Hypotension
d.Cardiac arrythmias

A

Skeletal muscle twitching

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9
Q

Tylosin is contraindicated in which animals?
a.Dogs
b.Cats
b.Cattle
d.Horse

A

Horse

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10
Q

You are prescribing griseofulvin to a patient with fungal disease. Which is the best recommendation:
a.Give it with fatty food
b.Give it on empty stomach
c.Give renal supplements
d.Safe for pregnant

A

Give it with fatty food

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11
Q

What is the mechanism of action of amphotericin B:
a.Disrupts cell’s mitotic spindle
b.Formation of pores upon irreversible binding to ergosterol
c.Disrupts RNA and protein synthesis
d.keratolytic

A

Formation of pores upon irreversible binding to ergosterol

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12
Q

A common side effect of oxymorphone administration in the dog is ___.
a.Panting
b.Vomition
c.Defecation
d.Hypotension

A

Panting

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13
Q

A patient has confirmed hyperthyroidism, which of the following is not recommended to prescribe
a.L-thyroxine
b.Radioiodine
c.Methimazole
d.Carbimazole

A

L-thyroxine

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14
Q

Withdrawal period for Levamisole ?
a.0 days
b.14days
c.30 days
d.60 days

A

30 days

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15
Q

Which of the following drugs can be used in dogs but not in food animals?
a.Furazolidone
b.Diethylstilbestrol
c.Chloramphenicol
d.All of the above

A

All of the above

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16
Q

Metaldehyde is the active ingredient in molluscicides, which are used to control snails and slugs. It is primarily used in humid, coastal regions where these mollusks are more common. Which of the following medications is most appropriate for treatment of metaldehyde poisoning in dogs?
a.4-methylpyrazole
b.Diazepam
c.Phenobarbital
d.Vitamin K1

A

Diazepam

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17
Q

Epinephrine is often added to the local anesthetic agent lidocaine. The epinephrine has the effect of:
a.Shortening the duration of action of the lidocaine
b.Increasing the likelihood of systemic uptake and lidocaine toxicity
c.Decreasing the pain associated with injection
d.Prolonging the duration of action of lidocaine

A

Prolonging the duration of action of lidocaine

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18
Q

A dog living in a bakeshop accidentally ingested raw bread dough. Soon, he started attempting to vomit, to no avail. Which of the following WILL NOT help in treating this intoxication?
a.Attempting emesis with hydrogen peroxide
b.Initiating IV fluid therapy
c.Gastric lavage with warm water
d.Surgical removal

A

Gastric lavage with warm water

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19
Q

This is an alkylating antineoplastic drug:
a.cyclophosphamide
b.vincristine
c.doxorubicin
d. glucocorticoids

A

cyclophosphamide

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20
Q

Which of the following is not expressed by B2 receptors?
a.Heart
b.Urinary Bladder
c.Liver
d.Bronchial smooth muscles

A

Heart

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21
Q

At the Alpha receptors, which of the following drugs/neurotransmitters is the most potent?
a.Epinephrine
b.Norepinephrine
c.Dopamine
d.Isoprenaline

A

Norepinephrine

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22
Q

A horse with uveitis that needs long-term medication of NSAIDs will need which of this medications?
a.Ranitidine
b.Famotidine
c.Omeprazole
d.All of the above

A

Omeprazole

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23
Q

Which of the following is the main determinant for animal recovery from inhalant anesthesia?
a.Vapor Pressure
b.Oil-Gas Partition coefficient
c.Blood-Gas Partition Coefficient
d.Molecular weight

A

Blood-Gas Partition Coefficient

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24
Q

Which of the following statements about amphotericin B is correct?
a.It is an azole antifungal that blocks the synthesis of ergosterol
b.It is the treatment of choice for aspergillosis
c.The lipid-complex formulation is the more toxic formulation
d.A significant side effect is nephrotoxicity

A

A significant side effect is nephrotoxicity

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25
Q

The following are effects of enterohepatic recycling except:
a.Increases a drug’s half life
b.Consists of biliary excretion then reabsorption in the intestines
c.Delays drug elimination
d.None of the above

A

None of the above

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26
Q

An agent that is inactive upon administration and must undergo metabolism to become active
a.Dualist
b.Precursors
c.Prodrug
d.Conjugates

A

Prodrug

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27
Q

What is the antidote for anticoagulant rodenticides?
a.Tranexamic acid
b.Vitamin K1
c.Vitamin K3
d.Aspirin

A

Vitamin K1

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28
Q

A farm dog is brought to a veterinarian because of depression, limping, coughing, and pale mucous membranes. You suspect accidental poisoning. In speaking with the dog’s owner, he tells you he recently was trying to reduce the rodent population in his fields. Based on the clinical signs, what is the most likely rodenticide the dog has been exposed to?
a.Bromethalin
b.Strychnine
c.Warfarin
d.Zinc phosphide

A

Warfarin

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29
Q

Consumption of the fruit, seed, stem, or leaves of avocados can cause toxicity in animals. Ingestion of sufficient quantities of avocado fruit is most likely to cause myocardial necrosis in which of the following species?
a.Cats
b.Chickens
c.Cockatiels
d.Dogs

A

Cockatiels

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30
Q

Which of the following enzymes is responsible drug biotransformation that occurs in the mitochondria?
a.Butyrylcholinesterase
b.Monoamine oxidase
c.Acetylcholinesterase
d.Glucuronidase

A

Monoamine oxidase

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31
Q

Which of the following is not a pharmacologic effect of atropine?
a.Inhibition of sweating and salivary secretions
b.Decreases GI and urinary tract motility
c.Pupillary constriction
d.Inhibition of gastric secretions

A

Pupillary constriction

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32
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to treat organophosphate toxicosis?
a.Propantheline
b.Scopolamine
c.Glycopyrrolate
d.Pralidoxime

A

Pralidoxime

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33
Q

The drug of choice to control status epilepticus and stop seizures in small and large animals:
a.Diazepam
b.Phenobarbital
c.Sodium pentobarbital
d.Levetiracetam

A

Diazepam

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34
Q

Epinephrine is mixed with local anesthetics. What is the effect of epinephrine in this mixture:
a.Promoting wound healing at the site of injection
b.Decreasing the pain associated with injection
c.Prolonging the duration of action of lidocaine
d.Increasing the likelihood of systemic uptake and lidocaine toxicity

A

Prolonging the duration of action of lidocaine

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35
Q

To control the fly larvae in a poultry farm, which of the following ectoparasiticide can be given as feed premix:
a.Lufenuron
b.Coumaphos
c.DEET (Diethyl-m-toluamide)
d.Cyromazine

A

Cyromazine

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36
Q

All animals are susceptible to poisoning by ethylene glycol, but due to its wide availability and common presence in homes, dogs and cats are most often accidently poisoned. Which of the following common household solvents is the source of ethylene glycol toxicity for companion animals?
a.Antifreeze
b.Household bleach
c.Nail polish remover
d.Paint thinner

A

Antifreeze

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37
Q

You are prescribing doxycycline to a dog. What is recommended to be given simultaneously with doxycycline?
a.Iron
b.Calcium
c.Zinc
d.None of the above

A

None of the above

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38
Q

Dogs receiving ketoconazole are most likely to have:
a.Hepatic disease
b.Neurological disease
c.Renal disease
d.Ophthalmic disease

A

Hepatic disease

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39
Q

Upon ingestion of extremely acidic or alkaline household cleaners, what should the first step be?
a.Emesis using 3% hydrogen peroxide
b.Immediate gastric lavage
c.Administer milk or water
d.Administer activated charcoal

A

Administer milk or water

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40
Q

Drugs that affect the autonomic nervous system produce their effects by doing the following except:
a.Mimic the effect of neurotransmitters
b.Interfere with neurotransmitter release
c.Block the attachment of neurotransmitters to receptors
d.Assist with the uptake of neurotransmitters at the synapse

A

Assist with the uptake of neurotransmitters at the synapse

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41
Q

A cat with rickettsial infection was given an antibiotic that resulted to retinal damage. What drug is most likely to cause this in cats?
a.Doxycycline
b.Enrofloxacin
c.Clindamycin
d.Co-amoxiclav

A

Enrofloxacin

42
Q

The withdrawal time of Procaine Pen-G in pigs is:
a.6 days
b.7 days
c.8 days
d.10 days

A

7 days

43
Q

This anthelminthic is excreted in milk and is not recommended when milk is intended for human consumption
a.ivermectin
b.albendazole
c.pyrantel
d.levamisole

A

Ivermectin

44
Q

Which of the following is not a property of a drug receptor?
a.Saturability
b.Specificity
c.Reversibility
d.None of the above

A

None of the above

45
Q

Levamisole is not recommended to which species:
a.Horse
b.Cattle
c.Poultry
d.Pig

A

Horse

46
Q

Which drug is used against Mycobacteria that may cause orange color urine, saliva, tears, and sweat:
a.Isoniazid
b.Rifampin
c.Carbenicillin
d.Ceftazidime

A

Rifampin

47
Q

A bitch is suffering from dystocia. Upon closer inspection, it has been noted that the fetus is at an abnormal position. Which of the following events will most likely occur after oxytocin administration?
a.Hypersensitivity
b.Enhancement of uterine contractions
c.Uterine rupture
d.Uterine prolapse

A

Uterine rupture

48
Q

In terms of binding to plasma proteins, acidic drugs bind to_______, while basic drugs bind to________.
a.Albumin:A1 acid glycoprotein
b.Albumin: Lysine
c.Lysine: Cysteine
d.A1 acid glycoprotein: Albumin

A

Albumin:A1 acid glycoprotein

49
Q

Deficiency of which element in the sow predisposes baby pigs to toxicosis by injectable iron preparations?
a.Copper
b.Zinc
c.Magnesium
d.Selenium

A

Selenium

50
Q

Compared to morphine, which one of the following drugs is the most potent (in terms of analgesic effect?
a.Oxymorphone
b.Meperidine
c.Butorphanol
d.Fentanyl

A

Fentanyl

51
Q

Which of the following is the bacterial site of action for polymixin drugs?
a.30S ribosomal subunit
b.DNA gyrase enzyme
c.Transpeptidase enzyme
d.Lipopolysaccharides

A

Lipopolysaccharides

52
Q

Which of the following drugs will not be effective in anaerobic infection?s
a.Clindamycin
b.Chloramphenicol
c.Gentamicin
d.Metronidazole

A

Gentamicin

53
Q

At MIC concentrations, which antibiotic is more likely to be bacteriostatic?
a.Chloramphenicol
b.Amikacin
c.Ceftiofur
d.rifampin

A

Chloramphenicol

54
Q

Which of the following antibiotics bind to 50s ribosomal subunit
a.Macrolide
b.Lincosamides
c.Chloramphenicol
d.All of the above

A

All of the above

55
Q

Which of the following drugs is antagonist at the mu, kappa, and delta receptors?
a.Naloxone
b.Morphine
c.Oxymorphone
d.Pentazocine

A

Naloxone

56
Q

Why are caged birds especially susceptible to fumes from chlorine bleach?
a.Dermal burns
b.Ocular irritation
c.Nasal irritation
d.Pulmonary irritation

A

Pulmonary irritation

57
Q

The main indication of this drug is for the treatment of swine dysentery and mycoplasmal arthritis
a.tylosin
b.tiamulin
c.tilmicosin
d.norfloxacin

A

tiamulin

58
Q

This is used as an adjunct therapy to atropine for OP poisoning to animals?
a.Dantrolene
b.Naloxone
c.Pralidoxime
d.Yohimbine

A

Pralidoxime

59
Q

Where does furosemide produce its effects?
a.Proximal convoluted tubule
b.Loop of Henle
c.Distal convoluted tubule
d.Collecting duct

A

Loop of Henle

60
Q

This drug may cause irreversible inhibition of plasma pseudocholinesterase activity
a.Carbaryl
b.Penicillin
c.Malathion
d.Phenylbutazone

A

Malathion

61
Q

Which of the following anesthetics lack analgesic properties?
a.Xylazine
b.Chloral hydrate
c.Tiletamine
d.Dexdetomidine

A

Chloral hydrate

62
Q

Which of the following dewormers will not be effective against canine hookworm:
a.Febendazole
b.Moxidectin
c.Praziquantel
d.Pyrantel

A

Praziquantel

63
Q

The withdrawal time of ceftiofur is:
a.0 day
b.1 day
c.7 days
d.14 days

A

0 day

64
Q

The following are contraindications of Metoclopramide except:
a.GI hemorrhage
b.Perforation
c.Obstruction
d.NOTA

A

NOTA

65
Q

The following drug families are non-selective COX inhibitors except:
a.Oxicams
b.Nicotinic acid
c.Acetic acid
d.Coxibs

A

Coxibs

66
Q

What course of action is the most appropriate when prescribing to 10 or more animal units of the same species on the same location?
a.A simple prescription should be sufficient
b.A simple prescription and a S2 license is necessary
c.A veterinary Drug Order is needed
d.A Veterinary Drug Order and a VPCR letter is necessary

A

A Veterinary Drug Order and a VPCR letter is necessary

67
Q

Which of the following drugs is excreted in the urine unchanged?
a.Lipid-soluble drugs
b.Hydrophobic drugs
c.Hydrophilic drugs
d.None of the above

A

Hydrophilic drugs

68
Q

A 6-month-old cat is diagnosed with a tapeworm infestation. Which of the following drugs is the most likely to be effective?
a.Fenbendazole
b.Ivermectin
c.Praziquantel
d.Pyrantel

A

Praziquantel

69
Q

Which of the following antiprozoal drugs is used against 2nd generation of sporozoites?
a.Amprolium
b.Clopidol
c.Robenidine
d.Decoquinate

A

Clopidol

70
Q

Collies and other herding breeds have a higher than usual incidence of toxicosis to which of the following antiparasitic agents?
a.Melarsomine
b.Pyranyel pamoate
c.Ivermectin
d.Imidocarb

A

Ivermectin

71
Q

NSAIDS like Phenylbutazone has anti-inflammatory, analgesic, antipyretic effect. As an analgesic, this group of analgesic inhibit the:
a.Conversion of Phospholipid to Arachidonic Acid
b.Conversion of Arachidonic Acid to Phospholipid
c.Conversion of Arachidonic Acid to Thromboxane
d.Both B and C

A

Both B and C

72
Q

Cyclin amines, such as amantadine and rimantadine, exert their antiviral activity by which of the following mechanism?
a.Blockade of viral fusion and release
b.Incorporation into growing mRNA
c.Inhibition of RNA polymerase
d.Inhibition of viral enzymes

A

Blockade of viral fusion and release

73
Q

Which of the following is the antimicrobial mechanism of action of fluoroquinolone antibiotics?
a.Binding to the bacterial 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibition of peptidyltransferase activity
b.Reversible binding to the bacterial 50s ribosomal subunit and inhibition of ribosomal translocation
c.Binding to the bacterial 30s subunit, resulting in interference with aminoacyl tRNA binding to the acceptor (A) site
d.Inhibition of DNA synthesis by disruption of DNA gyrase activity

A

Inhibition of DNA synthesis by disruption of DNA gyrase activity

74
Q

Which of the following drug acting on the respiratory tract is used in conjunction with oxytetracycline in treating infectious tracheobronchitis in dogs?
a.Acetylcysteine
b.Guiafenesin
c.Dextrometorphan
d.Bromhexine

A

Bromhexine

75
Q

The best route for administration of a drug that forms a very alkaline solution is:
a.Intravenous
b.Intramuscular
c.Subcutaneous
d.Intraperitoneal

A

Intravenous

76
Q

Concerning penicillin G, which of the following statements is most accurate?
a.Its spectrum of activity is limited to gram-negative bacteria
b.It is resistant to B-lactamase and is effective against Staphylococcus species
c.It is rapidly destroyed by gastric juices
d.It is combined with procaine to prevent pain at the injection site

A

It is rapidly destroyed by gastric juices

77
Q

Which of the following is the most effective against immature liver fluke?
a.Diamfenetide
b.Nitroxynil
c.Closantel
d.Rafoxanide

A

Diamfenetide

78
Q

Concerning vancomycin, which of the following statements is most accurate?
a.It is bacteriostatic
b.Its use should be limited to penicillin-resistant Staphylococcus infection
c.Only oral formulations are used clinically
d.It is hepatotoxic

A

Its use should be limited to penicillin-resistant Staphylococcus infection

79
Q

Which of the following drugs can be used to increase the appetite of cats?
a.Droperidol
b.Ketamine
c.Diazepam
d.Primidone

A

Diazepam

80
Q

Omperazole blocks gastric acid secretion by which of the following mechanisms?
a.Competitive blocking gastrin receptors
b.Competitively blocking H2 receptors
c.Noncompetitively blocking acetylcholine receptors
d.Inhibiting the gastric parietal cell H-K-ATPase pump

A

Inhibiting the gastric parietal cell H-K-ATPase pump

81
Q

Sulfonamides may produce any except which of the following side effects?
a.Hypoprothrombinemia
b.Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
c.Aplastic anemia and thrombocytopenia
d.Yellow staining of dental enamel

A

Yellow staining of dental enamel

82
Q

Concerning anesthesia of a foal with uroperitoneum, which statement is most accurate?
a.Potassium-containing fluid should be removed from the peritoneal cavity before medical management of hyperkalemia
b.Hypocloremic metabolic alkalosis is likely
c.Administration of Bicarbonate exacerbates hyperkalemia
d.Rapid drainage of the peritoneal cavity may cause circulatory collapse

A

Rapid drainage of the peritoneal cavity may cause circulatory collapse

83
Q

Drug X undergoes phase-II metabolism by being conjugated with glucoronic acid. Drug X cannot be used in which of the following species because the glucuronide synthetic pathway functions at a very slow rate?
a.Horses
b.Cattle
c.Pigs
d.Cats

A

Cats

84
Q

Which drug would be most appropriate to give before surgical removal of mast-cell tumor in a dog
a.Epinephrine
b.Cimetidine
c.Neostigmine
d.Prostaglandin

A

Cimetidine

85
Q

Which of the following is not concern of Pharmacodynamics?
a.Mechanism of action of drugs
b.Fate of drugs in the body
c.Application of drugs in the prevention and treatment
d.Properties of Drugs that influence its safety and effectiveness

A

Application of drugs in the prevention and treatment

86
Q

A dog being treated with carprofen should be monitored for which of the following side effect?
*
1/1
Secondary infection
Idiosyncratic ototoxicity
Gastric ulcer

Pancreatitis

A
87
Q

In horse, anesthetized with halothane or isoflurane, dobutamine administration may result in:
a.Splenic contraction and bronchoconstriction
b.Markedly increased systemic vascular resistance
c.Reflex bradycardia
d.Negative inotrophy

A

Reflex bradycardia

88
Q

A 9-year-old poodle is in septic shock. Which of the following drugs will most likely help prevent disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
a.Mannitol
b.Etodolac
c.Heparin
d.Protamine

A

Heparin

89
Q

Which of the following inhalant anesthetic causes polyuric renal dysfunction because of the toxic fluoride ion released during its metabolism?
a.Isoflurane
bEnflurane
c.Nitrous Oxide
d.Methoxyflurane

A

Methoxyflurane

90
Q

In which species does aspirin have the longest elimination half-life?
a.Ruminants
b.Horses
c.Cats
d.Dogs

A

Cats

91
Q

When injected, oxytetracycline should be given in which of the following ways?
a.with calcium products
b.Intravenous, very slowly
c.By any convenient route
d.With blood products

A

Intravenous, very slowly

92
Q

What is the main objective of Phase I of biotransformation?
a.Make the drug more water soluble
b.Make the drug more lipid soluble
c.Make the drug less water soluble
d.Make the drug more oil soluble

A

Make the drug more water soluble

93
Q

Dimethyl Sulfoxide (DMSO) is a diuretic under what category?
a.osmotic diuretic
b.Loop Diuretic
c.Potassium-sparring Diuretic
d.Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A

osmotic diuretic

94
Q

In the drug Metronidazole, which of the following statements is least accurate?
a.It is effective against anaerobic bacteria
b.It has extended antimicrobial spectrum against protozoa, trichomonads and amoeba
c.It does not penetrate the central nervous system
d.It is potentially mutagenic and teratogenic

A

It does not penetrate the central nervous system

95
Q

The dilation of pupil after the administration of atropine is a good example of:
a.A drug effect on which the drug has an affinity but without intrinsic activity
b.A drug effect on which the drug has both affinity and intrinsic activity
c.A drug effect on which the drug has intrinsic activity but do not have affinity
d.A drug effect on which the drug has neither affinity nor intrinsic activity

A

A drug effect on which the drug has an affinity but without intrinsic activity

96
Q

Which of the following drugs dilates blood vessels by competitive antagonism of a1-adrenergic receptors?
a.Nitroglycerin
b.Nitroprusside sodium
c.Prazosin
d.Diltiazem

A

Prazosin

97
Q

Which of the following drug is most potent?
a.Drug A effective at 1mg/kg
b.Drug B effective at 0.1 mg/kg
c.Drug C effective at 10 mg/kg
d.Drug D effective at 0.01 mg/kg

A

Drug D effective at 0.01 mg/kg

98
Q

Whitfield’s ointment is used as which of the following?
a.A protective
b.A sunscreen
c.A keratolytic
d.A depilatory

A

A keratolytic

99
Q

If a drug has a biologic half-life of 17 hours in cattle, approximately how long should the drug be withheld before slaughter, so that the meat does not contain drug residue?
a.17 hours
b.7 days
c.34 hours
d.85 hours

A

85 hours

100
Q

Which antacid increases the risk of gastric rupture?
a.Aluminum hydroxide
b.Sodium bicarbonate
c.Magnesium hydroxide
d.Magnesium sulfate

A

Sodium bicarbonate