Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

4 Reviewer A - Veterinary Pharmacology > Veterinary Pharma - Clinical Pharmacology A > Flashcards

Veterinary Pharma - Clinical Pharmacology A Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is the bacterial site of action for penicillin
drugs?
a.30S ribosomal subunit
b.DNA gyrase enzyme
c.Transpeptidase enzyme
d.50s ribosomal subunit

A

Transpeptidase enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A 10kg dog is diagnosed of Staphylococci urinary tract infection.
What is the total daily dose of Co-amoxiclav should the dog receive?
a.300mg
b.375mg
c.500mg
d.750mg

A

300mg

(10kg x 25mg/kg ) 3 times a day = 750mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is the bacterial site of action for polymixin
drugs?
a.30S ribosomal subunit
b.DNA gyrase enzyme
c.Transpeptidase enzyme
d. Lipopolysaccharides

A

Lipopolysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is the bacterial site of action for
cephalosphorins drugs?
a.30S ribosomal subunit
b.DNA gyrase enzyme
c.Transpeptidase enzyme
d.50s ribosomal subunit

A

Transpeptidase enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Concerning cephalosporins, which of the following statement is least
accurate?
a.They are bactericidal
b.They penetrate gram-negative bacteria than penicillins
c.They are more susceptible to B-lactamases than penicillins
d.They interfere with peptidoglycan synthesis

A

They are more susceptible to B-lactamases than penicillins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is the bacterial site of action for quinolones
drugs?
a.30S ribosomal subunit
b.DNA gyrase enzyme
c.Transpeptidase enzyme
d.50s ribosomal subunit

A

DNA gyrase enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 3kg cat is prescribed with enrofloxacin. What is the total daily
dose should the cat?
a. 15mg
b.20mg
c.30mg
d.50mg

A

15mg

(3kg x 5mg/kg ) 1x a day = 15mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which drug is used against Mycobacteria that may cause orange color urine, saliva, tears, and sweat:
a. Isoniazid
b.Rifampin
c. Carbenicillin
d.Ceftazidime

A

Rifampin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sulfonamides?
a. False folate analogue
b.Thiamine analogue
c.Purine analogue
d.Pyrimidine analogue

A

False folate analogue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?
a.Bind to 50s ribosomal subunit and inhibit peptidyltransferase
activity
b.Reversible binding to 50s ribosomal subunit and inhibition of
ribosomal translocation
c.Bind to 30s resulting in interference with aminoacyl tRNA binding to
A site
d.Inhibition of DNA synthesis by disruption of DNA gyrase

A

Bind to 30s resulting in interference with aminoacyl tRNA binding to
A site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A 10kg dog was diagnosed of Heartworm infection. What is the
total dose of doxycycline should the dog receive per day?
a.50mg
b.100mg
c.200mg
d.500mg

A

200mg

(10kg x 10mg/kg ) 2 times a day = 200mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following antibiotics bind to 50s ribosomal subunit?
a.Macrolide
b.Lincosamides
c. Chloramphenicol
d.All of the above

A

All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A patient was diagnosed of Giardiasis. You decided to treat using metronidazole. What is the action of metronidazole?
a. Disrupt protein/DNA synthesis due to toxic radical
formations
b.Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomal
subunit
c. Inhibits DNA gyrase, preventing bacterial DNA synthesis
d.Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

A

Disrupt protein/DNA synthesis due to toxic radical formations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A 5kg cat was diagnosed of Giardiasis. What is the total dose of
metronidazole should the cat receive per day?
a. 100mg
b.125mg
c.250mg
d.500mg

A

250mg

(5kg x 25mg/kg ) 2 times a day = 250mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An adult non-pregnant cat is diagnosed of feline chlamydial
conjunctivitis, what is the drug of choice?
a. Doxycycline
b.Erythromycin
c.Azithromycin
d.Co-amoxiclav

A

Doxycycline

Erythromycin and azithromycin are used in pregnant and young cats. Co-amoxiclav is an alternative drug only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A cat with rickettsial infection was given an antibiotic that resulted to retinal damage. What drug is most likely to cause this in cats?
a. Doxycycline
b.Enrofloxacin
c. Clindamycin
d.Co-amoxiclav

A

Enrofloxacin

> 5mg/kg/day causes retinopathy in cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which among these drugs is most nephrotoxic?
a.Ampicillin
b.Enrofloxacin
c. Erythromycin
d.Gentamicin

A

Gentamicin

It is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Horses with equine distemper is treated with:
a.Procaine penicillin
b.Dexamethasone
c. Furosemide
d.Azithromycin

A

Procaine penicillin

22000 IU/kg IM bid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Injectable tilmicosin is contraindicated in:
a. sheep
b.rabbit
c.pigs
d.cow

A

Pigs

May be fatal if injected by any route in swine, horses,
or goats. Can be fatal in human. Oral concentrate can be given in swine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The main indication of this drug is for the treatment of swine
dysentery and mycoplasmal arthritis:
a.tylosin
b.tiamulin
c.tilmicosin
d.norfloxacin

A

Tiamulin

Tiamulin is active against gram-positive bacteria, mycoplasmas, and anaerobes. It is clinically effective in the treatment of swine
dysentery and mycoplasmal arthritis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Tiamulin should not be given concurrently with:
a.Tylosin
b.Amoxicillin
c. Monensin
d.Tilmicosin

A

Monensin

In poultry, tiamulin interferes with monensin and
salinomycin metabolism, and if the drugs are fed
together, they become toxic

22
Q

Avian chlamydiosis was diagnosed in a flock, what will be the antibiotic of choice?
a. Chlortetracycline
b.Oxytetracycline
c. Doxycycline
d.All of the above

A

All of the above

Tetracyclines are the antibiotic of choice 400-750g/ton of feed for 2 weeks; no calcium supplementation. For elimination of organism: 45 days medicated feed

23
Q

A flock was diagnosed of Mycoplasmosis, which of the following will not be effective in treating this condition:
a.Tylosin
b.Tetracyclines
c.Penicillins
d.None of the above

A

Penicillins

All antibiotic that acts on cell wall will not be effective since mycoplasma has no cell wall. Tylosin and Tetracyclines are commonly used to reduce egg transmission or as prophylactic treatment

24
Q

You are prescribing doxycycline to a dog. What is recommended
to be given simultaneously with doxycycline?
a. Iron
b.Calcium
c.Zinc
d.None of the above

A

None of the above

Doxycycline and tetracyclines in general are poorly
absorbed orally with cations

25
Q

A dog with keratoconjunctivitis sicca need to be prescribed with
antibiotic. Which should be the least of your options:
a.Enrofloxacin
b.Amoxicillin
c. Cephalexin
d.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

Contraindicated to KCS. May cause idiosyncratic reactions (blood dyscrasias, hepatotoxicity, arthropathy, skin
eruptions) - hematuria

26
Q

Tylosin is contraindicated in which animals?
a. Dogs
b.Cats
c. Cattle
d.Horse

A

Horse

May cause colitis

27
Q

Which of the following drugs will not be effective in anaerobic infections?
a. Clindamycin
b.Chloramphenicol
c. Gentamicin
d.Metronidazole

A

Gentamicin

Bactericidal but requires an oxygen-rich atmosphere to be effective; therefore obligate anaerobic bacteria are resistant

28
Q

Calf diphtheria is diagnosed in a young cattle. Which drug is
indicated:
a.Tylosin
b.Tilmicosin
c. Ceftiofur
d.Oxytetracycline

A

Oxytetracycline

20mg/kg every 72hr (Oxytet LA). Procaine penicillin is the drug of choice

29
Q

To prevent shipping fever pneumonia, metaphylaxis of which antibiotic is widely used?
a.Oxytetracycline
b. Tilmicosin
c.Tulathromycin
d.All of the above

A

All of the above

Long acting antibotics given “on arrival” to cattle at high risk. Also gamithromycin, tildipirosin

30
Q

Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is endemic in your area, which of the following drugs can be effective in managing cases:
a.Tylosin
b.Procaine penicillin
c. Chloramphenicol
d. Metronidazole

A

Tylosin

10mg/kg IM bid 6 injections. Also danofloxacin 2.5mg/kg/day for 3 days

31
Q

At MIC concentrations, which antibiotic is more likely to be
bactericidal?
a.Potentiated Trimethoprim/sulfonamides
b.Spectinomycin
c.Tetracycline
d.Lincosamide

A

Potentiated Trimethoprim/sulfonamides

32
Q

At MIC concentrations, which antibiotic is more likely to be
bacteriostatic?
a. Chloramphenicol
b. Amikacin
c. Ceftiofur
d.rifampin

A

Chloramphenicol

33
Q

Which does not belong to the group:
a.Tilmicosin
b.Tylosin
c. Erythromycin
d.Clindamycin

A

Clindamycin

It is a lincosamide. The rest are macrolides

34
Q

Which antibiotic is safe to give in pregnant animal:
a.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
b.Cefazolin
c. Doxycycline
d.Metronidazole

A

Cefazolin

All have teratogenic side effects

35
Q

A cat was prescribed with antibiotic and after few days showed cerebello-vestibular neurologic signs. What is most likely the antibiotic prescribed?
a.Ampicillin
b.Enrofloxacin
c. Clindamycin
d.metronidazole

A

Metronidazole

36
Q

Which among these anthelmintics has capability to disrupt
intracellular microtubular transport system?
a.pyrantel
b.febendazole
c. ivermectin
d.praziquantel

A

Febendazole

(a)Pyrantel – activates nicotinic receptors (spastic paralysis)
(c)Ivermectin – binds to glutamate-gated chloride ion channels (flaccid paralysis)
(d)Praziquantel – interacts with phospholipid of integument; increases Ca ion influx

37
Q

All except one can be used to treat whipworm infections?
a.Milbemycin
b.Febantel
c. Moxidectin
d.Pyrantel

A

Pyrantel

All other drugs have actions against Tricuris vulpis

38
Q

This anthelminthic is excreted in milk and is not recommended when milk is intended for human consumption:
a. ivermectin
b.albendazole
c.pyrantel
d.levamisole

A

Ivermectin

Ivermectin and doramectin are excreted in milk and
are not recommended when milk is intended for
human consumption;
- commensurate with their long period of activity, they
have significant withholding periods before slaughter
(eg, 35 days), which vary with the formulations (and
local regulations).
- Eprinomectin has no withdrawal period

39
Q

Levamisole is not recommended to which species:
a.Horse
b.Cattle
c.Poultry
d.Pig

A

Horse

Low margin of safety in horse
two metabolites of levamisole—aminorex and
pemoline—are stimulants and therefore categorized
as banned substances in racehorses

40
Q

You decided to treat ascarids infection in your chickens. What is the mechanism of action of piperazine?
a.Binds to glutamate-gated chloride channels of nematode and
arthropod nerve cells
b.Depolarizes nicotinic receptors leading to paralysis
c.Binds to GABA-gated chloride channels of nematode and arthropod nerve cells
d.Inhibits tubulin formation

A

Binds to GABA-gated chloride channels of nematode and arthropod nerve cells

-glutamate-gated ion channel = macrocyclic lactone
-cholinergic agonists = imidothiazole and tetrahydropyrimidines
-tubulin formation inhibition = benzimidazole

41
Q

Which of the following dewormers inhibits acetylcholinesterase?
a.Morantel
b.Coumaphos
c.Butamisole
d.Netobimin

A

Coumaphos

42
Q

Which of the following dewormers will not be effective against canine hookworm:
a. Febendazole
b.Moxidectin
c.Praziquantel
d.Pyrantel

A

Praziquantel

43
Q

Which of the following dewormers is not approved for treatment of Toxocara cati infection in cats:
a.Milbemycin oxime
b.Praziquantel + Pyrantel
c.Selamectin
d.Ivermectin

A

Ivermectin

44
Q

Which does not belong to the group?
a.Acyclovir
b.Lysine
c.Oseltamivir
d.Doxorubicin

A

Doxorubicin

It is an antineoplastic drug. The rest are antiviral drugs

45
Q

This is an alkylating antineoplastic drug:
a. cyclophosphamide
b.vincristine
c.doxorubicin
d.glucocorticoids

A

Cyclophosphamide

Alkylating agents:
cyclophosphamide & chlorambucil

46
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vincristine:
a. antimetabolite
b.Mitotic inhibitor
c. Hormonal agent
d.cytotoxic anthracycline antibiotic

A

Mitotic inhibitor

alkylating agents
cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil
antimetabolites
fluorouracil
methotrexate
mitotic inhibitors
vinca alkaloids (vincristine)
antineoplastic antibiotics
doxorubicn
hormonal agents
glucocorticoid
miscellaneous
cisplatin

47
Q

Which of the following drugs is used as anti-feline herpes virus:
a.Acyclovir
b.Lysine
c.Oseltamivir
d.Remdesivir

A

Lysine

It is an amino acid prescribed to suppress the
shedding and reduce the severity of clinical
signs associated with FHV-1 infections in cats. 250-500mg/cat SID-BID

48
Q

Which of the following drugs has been suggested as adjunct treatment for canine parvoviral infections:
a.Acyclovir
b.Lysine
c.Oseltamivir
d.Remdesivir

A

Oseltamivir

Extra-label use. Neuraminidase inhibitor

49
Q

You are prescribing griseofulvin to a patient with fungal disease.
Which is the best recommendation:
a.Give it with fatty food
b.Give it on empty stomach
c. Give renal supplements
d. Safe for pregnant

A

Give it with fatty food

Griseofulvin can cause hepatic failure. Can cause bone marrow depression in kittens and cats with FIV

50
Q

What is the mechanism of action of amphotericin B:
a. Disrupts cell’s mitotic spindle
b.Interferes with ergosterol synthesis
c. Disrupts RNA and protein synthesis
d.keratolytic

A

Interferes with ergosterol synthesis

Other drugs that interferes with ergosterol are the
azoles (ketoconazole, itraconazole), nystatin,
terbinafine. (a)Disrupt mitotic spindle = griseofulvin. (b)Disrupt RNA and protein synthesis = flucytosine. (d)Keratolytic = benzoic acid, salicylic acid

4 Reviewer A - Veterinary Pharmacology (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions