Veterinary Pharma - Clinical Pharmacology A Flashcards

(50 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following is the bacterial site of action for penicillin
drugs?
a.30S ribosomal subunit
b.DNA gyrase enzyme
c.Transpeptidase enzyme
d.50s ribosomal subunit

A

Transpeptidase enzyme

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2
Q

A 10kg dog is diagnosed of Staphylococci urinary tract infection.
What is the total daily dose of Co-amoxiclav should the dog receive?
a.300mg
b.375mg
c.500mg
d.750mg

A

300mg

(10kg x 25mg/kg ) 3 times a day = 750mg

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3
Q

Which of the following is the bacterial site of action for polymixin
drugs?
a.30S ribosomal subunit
b.DNA gyrase enzyme
c.Transpeptidase enzyme
d. Lipopolysaccharides

A

Lipopolysaccharides

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4
Q

Which of the following is the bacterial site of action for
cephalosphorins drugs?
a.30S ribosomal subunit
b.DNA gyrase enzyme
c.Transpeptidase enzyme
d.50s ribosomal subunit

A

Transpeptidase enzyme

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5
Q

Concerning cephalosporins, which of the following statement is least
accurate?
a.They are bactericidal
b.They penetrate gram-negative bacteria than penicillins
c.They are more susceptible to B-lactamases than penicillins
d.They interfere with peptidoglycan synthesis

A

They are more susceptible to B-lactamases than penicillins

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6
Q

Which of the following is the bacterial site of action for quinolones
drugs?
a.30S ribosomal subunit
b.DNA gyrase enzyme
c.Transpeptidase enzyme
d.50s ribosomal subunit

A

DNA gyrase enzyme

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7
Q

A 3kg cat is prescribed with enrofloxacin. What is the total daily
dose should the cat?
a. 15mg
b.20mg
c.30mg
d.50mg

A

15mg

(3kg x 5mg/kg ) 1x a day = 15mg

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8
Q

Which drug is used against Mycobacteria that may cause orange color urine, saliva, tears, and sweat:
a. Isoniazid
b.Rifampin
c. Carbenicillin
d.Ceftazidime

A

Rifampin

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9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sulfonamides?
a. False folate analogue
b.Thiamine analogue
c.Purine analogue
d.Pyrimidine analogue

A

False folate analogue

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10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?
a.Bind to 50s ribosomal subunit and inhibit peptidyltransferase
activity
b.Reversible binding to 50s ribosomal subunit and inhibition of
ribosomal translocation
c.Bind to 30s resulting in interference with aminoacyl tRNA binding to
A site
d.Inhibition of DNA synthesis by disruption of DNA gyrase

A

Bind to 30s resulting in interference with aminoacyl tRNA binding to
A site

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11
Q

A 10kg dog was diagnosed of Heartworm infection. What is the
total dose of doxycycline should the dog receive per day?
a.50mg
b.100mg
c.200mg
d.500mg

A

200mg

(10kg x 10mg/kg ) 2 times a day = 200mg

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12
Q

Which of the following antibiotics bind to 50s ribosomal subunit?
a.Macrolide
b.Lincosamides
c. Chloramphenicol
d.All of the above

A

All of the above

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13
Q

A patient was diagnosed of Giardiasis. You decided to treat using metronidazole. What is the action of metronidazole?
a. Disrupt protein/DNA synthesis due to toxic radical
formations
b.Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to 30s ribosomal
subunit
c. Inhibits DNA gyrase, preventing bacterial DNA synthesis
d.Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

A

Disrupt protein/DNA synthesis due to toxic radical formations

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14
Q

A 5kg cat was diagnosed of Giardiasis. What is the total dose of
metronidazole should the cat receive per day?
a. 100mg
b.125mg
c.250mg
d.500mg

A

250mg

(5kg x 25mg/kg ) 2 times a day = 250mg

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15
Q

An adult non-pregnant cat is diagnosed of feline chlamydial
conjunctivitis, what is the drug of choice?
a. Doxycycline
b.Erythromycin
c.Azithromycin
d.Co-amoxiclav

A

Doxycycline

Erythromycin and azithromycin are used in pregnant and young cats. Co-amoxiclav is an alternative drug only

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16
Q

A cat with rickettsial infection was given an antibiotic that resulted to retinal damage. What drug is most likely to cause this in cats?
a. Doxycycline
b.Enrofloxacin
c. Clindamycin
d.Co-amoxiclav

A

Enrofloxacin

> 5mg/kg/day causes retinopathy in cats

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17
Q

Which among these drugs is most nephrotoxic?
a.Ampicillin
b.Enrofloxacin
c. Erythromycin
d.Gentamicin

A

Gentamicin

It is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause nephrotoxicity

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18
Q

Horses with equine distemper is treated with:
a.Procaine penicillin
b.Dexamethasone
c. Furosemide
d.Azithromycin

A

Procaine penicillin

22000 IU/kg IM bid

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19
Q

Injectable tilmicosin is contraindicated in:
a. sheep
b.rabbit
c.pigs
d.cow

A

Pigs

May be fatal if injected by any route in swine, horses,
or goats. Can be fatal in human. Oral concentrate can be given in swine

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20
Q

The main indication of this drug is for the treatment of swine
dysentery and mycoplasmal arthritis:
a.tylosin
b.tiamulin
c.tilmicosin
d.norfloxacin

A

Tiamulin

Tiamulin is active against gram-positive bacteria, mycoplasmas, and anaerobes. It is clinically effective in the treatment of swine
dysentery and mycoplasmal arthritis.

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21
Q

Tiamulin should not be given concurrently with:
a.Tylosin
b.Amoxicillin
c. Monensin
d.Tilmicosin

A

Monensin

In poultry, tiamulin interferes with monensin and
salinomycin metabolism, and if the drugs are fed
together, they become toxic

22
Q

Avian chlamydiosis was diagnosed in a flock, what will be the antibiotic of choice?
a. Chlortetracycline
b.Oxytetracycline
c. Doxycycline
d.All of the above

A

All of the above

Tetracyclines are the antibiotic of choice 400-750g/ton of feed for 2 weeks; no calcium supplementation. For elimination of organism: 45 days medicated feed

23
Q

A flock was diagnosed of Mycoplasmosis, which of the following will not be effective in treating this condition:
a.Tylosin
b.Tetracyclines
c.Penicillins
d.None of the above

A

Penicillins

All antibiotic that acts on cell wall will not be effective since mycoplasma has no cell wall. Tylosin and Tetracyclines are commonly used to reduce egg transmission or as prophylactic treatment

24
Q

You are prescribing doxycycline to a dog. What is recommended
to be given simultaneously with doxycycline?
a. Iron
b.Calcium
c.Zinc
d.None of the above

A

None of the above

Doxycycline and tetracyclines in general are poorly
absorbed orally with cations

25
A dog with keratoconjunctivitis sicca need to be prescribed with antibiotic. Which should be the least of your options: a.Enrofloxacin b.Amoxicillin c. Cephalexin d.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole Contraindicated to KCS. May cause idiosyncratic reactions (blood dyscrasias, hepatotoxicity, arthropathy, skin eruptions) - hematuria
26
Tylosin is contraindicated in which animals? a. Dogs b.Cats c. Cattle d.Horse
Horse May cause colitis
27
Which of the following drugs will not be effective in anaerobic infections? a. Clindamycin b.Chloramphenicol c. Gentamicin d.Metronidazole
Gentamicin Bactericidal but requires an oxygen-rich atmosphere to be effective; therefore obligate anaerobic bacteria are resistant
28
Calf diphtheria is diagnosed in a young cattle. Which drug is indicated: a.Tylosin b.Tilmicosin c. Ceftiofur d.Oxytetracycline
Oxytetracycline 20mg/kg every 72hr (Oxytet LA). Procaine penicillin is the drug of choice
29
To prevent shipping fever pneumonia, metaphylaxis of which antibiotic is widely used? a.Oxytetracycline b. Tilmicosin c.Tulathromycin d.All of the above
All of the above Long acting antibotics given “on arrival” to cattle at high risk. Also gamithromycin, tildipirosin
30
Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is endemic in your area, which of the following drugs can be effective in managing cases: a.Tylosin b.Procaine penicillin c. Chloramphenicol d. Metronidazole
Tylosin 10mg/kg IM bid 6 injections. Also danofloxacin 2.5mg/kg/day for 3 days
31
At MIC concentrations, which antibiotic is more likely to be bactericidal? a.Potentiated Trimethoprim/sulfonamides b.Spectinomycin c.Tetracycline d.Lincosamide
Potentiated Trimethoprim/sulfonamides
32
At MIC concentrations, which antibiotic is more likely to be bacteriostatic? a. Chloramphenicol b. Amikacin c. Ceftiofur d.rifampin
Chloramphenicol
33
Which does not belong to the group: a.Tilmicosin b.Tylosin c. Erythromycin d.Clindamycin
Clindamycin It is a lincosamide. The rest are macrolides
34
Which antibiotic is safe to give in pregnant animal: a.Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole b.Cefazolin c. Doxycycline d.Metronidazole
Cefazolin All have teratogenic side effects
35
A cat was prescribed with antibiotic and after few days showed cerebello-vestibular neurologic signs. What is most likely the antibiotic prescribed? a.Ampicillin b.Enrofloxacin c. Clindamycin d.metronidazole
Metronidazole
36
Which among these anthelmintics has capability to disrupt intracellular microtubular transport system? a.pyrantel b.febendazole c. ivermectin d.praziquantel
Febendazole (a)Pyrantel – activates nicotinic receptors (spastic paralysis) (c)Ivermectin – binds to glutamate-gated chloride ion channels (flaccid paralysis) (d)Praziquantel – interacts with phospholipid of integument; increases Ca ion influx
37
All except one can be used to treat whipworm infections? a.Milbemycin b.Febantel c. Moxidectin d.Pyrantel
Pyrantel All other drugs have actions against Tricuris vulpis
38
This anthelminthic is excreted in milk and is not recommended when milk is intended for human consumption: a. ivermectin b.albendazole c.pyrantel d.levamisole
Ivermectin Ivermectin and doramectin are excreted in milk and are not recommended when milk is intended for human consumption; - commensurate with their long period of activity, they have significant withholding periods before slaughter (eg, 35 days), which vary with the formulations (and local regulations). - Eprinomectin has no withdrawal period
39
Levamisole is not recommended to which species: a.Horse b.Cattle c.Poultry d.Pig
Horse Low margin of safety in horse two metabolites of levamisole—aminorex and pemoline—are stimulants and therefore categorized as banned substances in racehorses
40
You decided to treat ascarids infection in your chickens. What is the mechanism of action of piperazine? a.Binds to glutamate-gated chloride channels of nematode and arthropod nerve cells b.Depolarizes nicotinic receptors leading to paralysis c.Binds to GABA-gated chloride channels of nematode and arthropod nerve cells d.Inhibits tubulin formation
Binds to GABA-gated chloride channels of nematode and arthropod nerve cells -glutamate-gated ion channel = macrocyclic lactone -cholinergic agonists = imidothiazole and tetrahydropyrimidines -tubulin formation inhibition = benzimidazole
41
Which of the following dewormers inhibits acetylcholinesterase? a.Morantel b.Coumaphos c.Butamisole d.Netobimin
Coumaphos
42
Which of the following dewormers will not be effective against canine hookworm: a. Febendazole b.Moxidectin c.Praziquantel d.Pyrantel
Praziquantel
43
Which of the following dewormers is not approved for treatment of Toxocara cati infection in cats: a.Milbemycin oxime b.Praziquantel + Pyrantel c.Selamectin d.Ivermectin
Ivermectin
44
Which does not belong to the group? a.Acyclovir b.Lysine c.Oseltamivir d.Doxorubicin
Doxorubicin It is an antineoplastic drug. The rest are antiviral drugs
45
This is an alkylating antineoplastic drug: a. cyclophosphamide b.vincristine c.doxorubicin d.glucocorticoids
Cyclophosphamide Alkylating agents: cyclophosphamide & chlorambucil
46
What is the mechanism of action of vincristine: a. antimetabolite b.Mitotic inhibitor c. Hormonal agent d.cytotoxic anthracycline antibiotic
Mitotic inhibitor alkylating agents cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil antimetabolites fluorouracil methotrexate mitotic inhibitors vinca alkaloids (vincristine) antineoplastic antibiotics doxorubicn hormonal agents glucocorticoid miscellaneous cisplatin
47
Which of the following drugs is used as anti-feline herpes virus: a.Acyclovir b.Lysine c.Oseltamivir d.Remdesivir
Lysine It is an amino acid prescribed to suppress the shedding and reduce the severity of clinical signs associated with FHV-1 infections in cats. 250-500mg/cat SID-BID
48
Which of the following drugs has been suggested as adjunct treatment for canine parvoviral infections: a.Acyclovir b.Lysine c.Oseltamivir d.Remdesivir
Oseltamivir Extra-label use. Neuraminidase inhibitor
49
You are prescribing griseofulvin to a patient with fungal disease. Which is the best recommendation: a.Give it with fatty food b.Give it on empty stomach c. Give renal supplements d. Safe for pregnant
Give it with fatty food Griseofulvin can cause hepatic failure. Can cause bone marrow depression in kittens and cats with FIV
50
What is the mechanism of action of amphotericin B: a. Disrupts cell’s mitotic spindle b.Interferes with ergosterol synthesis c. Disrupts RNA and protein synthesis d.keratolytic
Interferes with ergosterol synthesis Other drugs that interferes with ergosterol are the azoles (ketoconazole, itraconazole), nystatin, terbinafine. (a)Disrupt mitotic spindle = griseofulvin. (b)Disrupt RNA and protein synthesis = flucytosine. (d)Keratolytic = benzoic acid, salicylic acid