Veterinary Pharma - Clinical Pharmacology B Flashcards
The recommended dosage of a drug for a 10-kg dog is 4mg/kg. The drug is formulated as a 2% solution. How many ml of drug should be administered?
a.1 ml
b.2ml
c.0.2ml
d.0.1ml
2ml
10kg x 4mg/kg / 20mg/ml
Which of the following emetic drugs stimulate the 9th cranial
nerve?
a.Hydrogen Peroxide
b.Syrup of Ipecac
c.Apomorpine
d.Xylazine
Hydrogen peroxide
(b)Syrup of ipecac- emetine is stomach irritant
(c)Apomorphine – dopamine agonist
(d)Xylazine – a2 adrenergic agonist
Which of the following anti-emetic drug are used in chemotherapy patients to manage vomiting?
a.Metoclopramide
b.Maropitant
c.Ondansetron
d.Acepromazine
Ondansetron
Cytotoxic drugs and radiation damage the GI mucosa causing release of serotonin. Serotonin antagonists like ondansetron inhibits serotonin type 3 receptors in the CTRZ
Dogs receiving chronic NSAID therapy will benefit from this drug:
a.Omeprazole
b.Cimetidine
c.Misoprostol
d.Sucralfate
Misoprostol
This is a Prostaglandin E1 analogue. It has cytoprotective effect from stimulation of bicarbonate and mucus secretion, increased
mucosal blood flow, decreased vascular permeability, and increased cellular proliferation and migration.
A horse with uveitis that needs long-term medication of NSAIDs will need which of this medications?
a.Ranitidine
b.Famotidine
c.Omeprazole
d.All of the above
All of the above
Gastric protection to NSAID induced ulcers
Cats with megacolon can benefit from this prokinetic drug:
a.Metoclopramide
b.Cisapride
c.Domperidone
d.Erythromycin
Cisapride
It is a serotonin 5-HT4 agonist with some 5-HT3
antagonist activity. Is more potent and has broader prokinetic activity than metoclopramide , increasing motility of the colon, esophagus, stomach and small intestine
The major adverse effect of furosemide is:
a.Hypoglycemia
b.Hypokalemia
c.Hypophosphatemia
d.Hypochloremia
Hypokalemia
Furosemide can cause dehydration, volume depletion, hyponatremia and hypokalemia. Hypokalemia induced by furosemide diuresis. Potentiates digitalis toxicity. Can also cause ototoxicity when combined with ototoxic drugs. Diuretic of choice for CHF
Diuretic that acts in the distal renal tubule and collecting ducts with mild diuretic effect and acts as aldosterone antagonist:
a.Torasemide
b.Hydrochlorthiazide
c.Benazepril
d.spironolactone
Spironolactone
Aldosterone antagonist and potassium-sparring diuretics
This drug is used in the emergency treatment of acute glaucoma:
a.Methazolamide
b.Prostaglandin
c.Timolol
d.Mannitol
Mannitol
Dehydration of the vitreous allows the lens and iris to move posteriorly, opening the iridocorneal angle
Which among these drugs can be added to the diet or
supplement of dogs and cats to increase the pH of urine
a.Ammonium chloride
b.DL-methionine
c.Potassium citrate
d.All of the above
Ammonium chloride
80-150mg/kg/day divided BID-TID. Used in dissolution of oxalate crystals
To reduce the incidence and severity of exercise-induced epistaxis in horse, the best drug to prescribe is:
a.Pentoxyphylline
b.Vitamin K
c.Bronchodilators
d.Furosemide
Furosemide
MOA is unclear. Other alternatives have not demonstrated therapeutic benefit
To control the fly larvae in a poultry farm, which of the following ectoparasiticide can be given as feed premix:
a.Lufenuron
b.Coumaphos
c.DEET (Diethyl-m-toluamide)
d.Cyromazine
Cyromazine
Insect growth regulator: Targets the juvenile hormones
that is responsible for maturation of larval stages of
insects. Same MOA of lufenuron (for fleas of dogs and cats). DEET is insect repellant
This drug is used as alternative treatment to Cushing’s disease
a.Methimazole
b.Trilostane
c.Mitotane
d.Ketoconazole
Ketoconazole
It inhibits cortisol synthesis and has been used to treat canine hyperadrenocorticism at 10mg/kg/day
A dog has Addison’s disease, which is not part of the treatment regimen?
a.Adrenolytic agent
b.Replacement of fluids
c.Steroid supplementation
d.Mineralcorticoid replacement therapy
Adrenolytic agent
Used to treat hyperadrenocorticism
A dog was diagnosed of hypothyroidism. Which of the following is not true?
a.Levothyroxine is prescribed
b.Total dosage max is 0.04mg/kg
c.Med should be given with food
d.The most important indicator of success is
clinical improvement
Med should be given with food
Levothyroxine 0.02-0.04mg/kg once or divided BID and should be given on an empty stomach
A patient has confirmed hyperthyroidism, which of the following is not recommended to prescribe
a.L-thyroxine
b.Radioiodine
c.Methimazole
d.Carbimazole
L-thyroxine
For hypothyroidism treatment
A dog is diagnosed of Addison’s disease. Which is indicated:
a.Mitotane
b.Trilostane
c.Desoxycoticosterone pivalate (DOCP)
d.Surgical removal of tumor
Desoxycoticosterone pivalate (DOCP)
Long-acting injectable mineralocorticoid given every 25 -28days. No glucocorticoid activity
Dog with MDR-1 mutation can possibly have adverse reactions to which drug?
a.Apomorphine
b.Acepromazine
c.Ivermectin
d.All of the above
All of the above
Also to doxorubicin, milbemycin, selamectin, vincristine, erythromycin, loperamide, butorphanol
Dog with inappetence can be given which of the following appetite stimulant?
a.Megestrol acetate
b.Prednisone
c.Mirtazapine
d.All of the above
All of the above
Mirtazapine is given once a day in dog, 2x in cat. Megestrol acetate has antiestrogen and glucocorticoid activity (used in people with cancer and cachexia related to HIV). Prednisone increase gluconeogenesis and antagonize insulin for an overall hyperglycemic effect
Which of the following drugs can be given intravenously to stimulate appetite in cats?
a.Diazepam
b.Oxazepam
c.Cyproheptadine
d.Mirtazapine
Diazepam
0.005 – 0.4 mg/kg IV. Benzodiazepine binds to GABA A receptors in the parabrachial nucleas resulting to voracious activity
This drug is generally reserved for treatment of uncontrollable status epilepticus in dogs and cats when first line of drugs fail:
a.Diazepam
b.Propofol
c.Phenobarbital
d.Sodium Pentobarbital
Sodium Pentobarbital
2-15mg/kg to effect for anesthesia
The drug of choice to control status epilepticus and stop seizures in small and large animals
a.Diazepam
b.Phenobarbital
c.Sodium pentobarbital
d.Levetiracetam
Diazepam
Should not be placed longer time in plastic syringes
Which of the following is considered a second-line or add-on antiepileptic drugs for dogs
a.Phenobarbital
b.Bromide
c.Levetiracetam
d.Diazepam
Levetiracetam
20mg/kg TID. Others considered are gabapentin and clonazepam
Which of the following classes of drugs lowers the seizure threshold and may induce extrapyramidal motor effects?
a.Phenothiazines
b.Benzodiazepines
c.Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
d.Tricyclics
Phenothiazines
These effects are associated with dopaminergic receptors.
Atenolol is given in dogs with sinus tachycardia, and treatment of supraventricular and ventricular arrythmias. What is the mechanism of action?
a.B1 adrenergic receptor blocking
b.Fast sodium channel blocking
c.Potassium channel blocking
d.Slow calcium channel blocking
B1 adrenergic receptor blocking
This is a class 2 antiarrythmic drug. Class 1 = fast sodium channel blocking, Class 3 = Potassium channel blocking, Class 4 = Slow calcium channel blocking
This drug prevents the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II:
a.Enalapril
b.Amlodipine
c.Nitroglycerine
d.Hydralazine
Enalapril
Enalapril is metabolized in the liver and converted into active form: enalaprilat. It is excreted in the urine.
Which drug is used to reverse the action of xylazine?
a.Detomidine
b.Medetomidine
c.Atipamezole
d.Naloxone
Atipamezole
This is a alpha 2 adrenergic antagonist, along with Yohimbine
Epinephrine is mixed with local anesthetics. What is the effect of epinephrine in this mixture:
a.Promoting wound healing at the site of injection
b.Decreasing the pain associated with injection
c.Prolonging the duration of action of lidocaine
d.Increasing the likelihood of systemic uptake and lidocaine toxicity
Prolonging the duration of action of lidocaine
Epinep causes vasoconstriction at the site of local injection. Decreased uptake also decreases the likelihood of systemic toxicity. Though it may impair wound healing.
You will be performing mast-cell tumor removal in a dog. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate as pre-medication?
a.Aspirin
b.Prostaglandin F2a
c.Epinephrine
d.Cimetidine
Cimetidine
Patients with mast-cell tumors have high endogenous histamine levels and are prone to gastric hyperacidity and gastric ulcers. H2 blocker is most appropriate among choices
What is the mechanism of action of Oclacitinib
a.Janus Kinase 1 and 3 inhibitor
b.Inhibit transcription of IL-2
c.Inhibition of purine synthesis
d. DNA alkylating agent
Janus Kinase 1 and 3 inhibitor
Cyclosporine- IL2 inhibition
Azathioprine – purine systhesis inhibition
Cyclophosphamide - DNA alkylating agent
Which among this analgesic drugs is a partial mu-receptor agonist?
Tramadol
Hydromorphone is full mu-receptor agonist (morphine)
Meloxicam – Cox-2 preferential NSAID
Firoxocib – Cox-2 selective NSAID
You give a parasympathomimetic drug, what would be the effect on the gastrointestinal tract of the patient?
a.Decreased motility and sphincter constriction
b.Increased motility and sphincter relaxation
c.Increased motility and sphincter constriction
d.Decreased motility and sphincter relaxation
Increased motility and sphincter relaxation
Parasympathomimetic drugs favor digestion because of parasympathetic nervous system stimulation. This happens with administration of atropine.
Which of the following drugs can be used in dogs but not in food animals?
a. Furazolidone
b. Diethylstilbestrol
c. Chloramphenicol
d.All of the above
All of the above
Nitrofurans – potential carcinogen
Diethylstilbestrol – potential carcinogen
Chloramphenicol – idiosyncratic aplastic anemia
This drug appears beneficial in cats for reducing fear responses associated with handling and examination:
a.Mirtazapine
b.Gabapentin
c.Cannabidiol
d.Diazepam
Gabapentin
MOA is not fully understood, suspected to be related to decrease in calcium influx à inhibition of excitatory neurotransmitters
Dogs receiving ketoconazole are most likely to have:
a.Hepatic disease
b.Neurological disease
c.Renal disease
d.Ophthalmic disease
Hepatic disease
Hepatotoxicity manifesting as cholangiohepatitis and increases liver enzymes may be idiosyncratuc in nature or a dose-related phenomenon
The drug of choice for pulmonary arterial hypertension:
a.Furosemide
b.Pimobendan
c.Benazepril
d.Sildenafil
Sildenafil
Aka Viagra. This is a phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitor; vasodilator. 1-3mg/kg q12hr PO
This is an NSAID with antineoplastic properties
a.Piroxicam
b.Carprofen
c.Meloxicam
d.Flunixin
Piroxicam
0.3mg/kg PO q24hr. Treats transitional cell carcinoma and prostatic cancer
Which does not belong to the group:
a.Terbutaline
b.Isoproterenol
c.Epinephrine
d.Betanechol
Betanechol
It is parasymphatomimetic. The rest are symphatomimetic respiratory drugs
Which does not belong to the group:
a.Amlodipine
b.Diltiazem
c.Benazepril
d.verapamil
Benazepril
It is a ACE inhibitor. Others are calcium channel blocking agents.
Which does not belong to the group:
a.Acetazolamide
b.Torasemide
c.Chlorthiazide
d.Nitroprusside
Nitroprusside
All are diuretics. Nitroprusside is vasodilator, antihypertensive
Which does not belong to the group:
a.Bisacodyl
b.Sorbitol
c.Mineral oil
d.Loperamide
Loperamide
Others are laxatives. Loperamide is antidiarrheal
Which does not belong to the group:
a.Chlorpromazine
b.Apomorphine
c.Xylazine
d.Tranexamic Acid
Chlorpromazine
This is an antiemetic. Others are emetics
Which does not belong to the group:
a.Kaolin/Pectin
b.Bismuth subsalicylate
c.Atropine
d.Psyllium
Psyllium
Others are antidiarrheals, Psyllium is laxative
Which does not belong to the group:
a.Aspirin
b.Vitamin K
c.Heparin
d.Clopidogrel
Vitamin K
Others are anticoagulants, Vitamin K is coagulation factor stimulator.
Which does not belong to the group:
a.Dexmedetomidine
b.Isoflurane
c.Lidocaine
d.Thiopental
Dexmedetomidine
Others are anesthetics, Dexmedetomidine is a sedative/tranquilizer
The withdrawal time of Procaine Pen-G in pigs is?
a. 6 days
b.7 days
c.8 days
d.10 days
7 days
Sheep = 9 days
Cattle = 10 days (30 days at 20,000 IU/kg)
Albendazole was administered to a goat on July 1. The goat is safe for slaughter on:
a.July 11
b.July 22
c.August 1
d.September 1
July 11
In goat and sheep safe after 7-10days. Cattle and carabao 28days
The withdrawal time of ceftiofur is:
a.0 day
b.1 day
c.7 days
d.14 days
0 days
Withdrawal period for Levamisole ?
a.0 days
b.14days
c.30 days
d.60 days
30 days
Withdrawal period for Oxytetracycline LA in pigs?
a.0 days
b.7days
c.14 days
d.28 days
14 days
Cattle = 28 days
