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Vascular board review (myultrasoundtutor) > Vascular Mock Exam > Flashcards

Vascular Mock Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What vessel is most likely affected by right sided heart failure

a) hepatic veins
b) aorta
c) portal vein
d) common carotid artery

A

a) hepatic veins

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2
Q

How is the ECA vessel identification best confirmed

a) visualization of branches
b) documentation of high resistance flow
c) temporal tap response
d) medial location

A

a) visualization of branches

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3
Q

What are aneuryms most often caused by

a) marfans syndrome
b) trauma
c) infection
d) atherosclerosis

A

d) atherosclerosis

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4
Q

What treatment removes plaque

a) embolectomy
b) stenting
c) endarterectomy
d) angioplasty

A

c) endarterectomy

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5
Q

What is a significance of a PSV at the proximal SFA of a 242 cm/s if the distal CFA PSV is 90 cms/s

a) >70% diameter reduction
b) > 50% diameter reduction
c) > 75% diameter reduction
d) >60% diameter reduction

A

b) > 50% diameter reduction

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6
Q

What clinical finding is most indicative for chronic peripheral arterial disease

a) pain in the calf at rest, relieved upon dependency
b) pain and muscle fatigue with activity, relieved with rest
c) skin discoloration in calf and ankles
d) pain in the limb while dependent, relieved upon elevation

A

b) pain and muscle fatigue with activity, relieved with rest

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7
Q

In the lower extremity arterial system, what is the most common site of atherosclerosis

a) distal SFA
b) proximal deep femoral artery
c) distal popliteal artery
d) common femoral arterial bifurcation

A

a) distal SFA

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8
Q

What is the hemodynamic result with an ineffective calf muscle pump

a) decreased venous return
b) decreased venous pressure
c) increased venous pressure
d) increased venous return

A

c) increased venous pressure

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9
Q

Which vessel is most likely to have retrograde flow in the presence of an ICA occlusion

a) ophthalmic artery
b) common carotid artery
c) contralateral ICA
d) vertebral artery

A

a) ophthalmic artery

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10
Q

Where would a dampened waveform be found in the presence of a flow altering stenosis

a) distal to the stenosis
b) proximal to the stenosis
c) within the aorta
d) at the narrowest diameter

A

a) distal to the stenosis

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11
Q

What state is associated with valvular incompetence

a) venous hypertension
b) decrease venous pressure
c) system hypertension
d) decrease venous pressure

A

a) venous hypertension

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12
Q

Where should pressure be applied during a pseudo compression procedure

a) neck of pseudo
b) native artery
c) distal limb
d) body of pseduo

A

a) neck of pseudo

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13
Q

What is the pulsatility index used to calculate

a) resistance
b) velocity
c) cycles per second
d) pressure

A

a) resistance

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14
Q

What vessels form the confluence of the main portal vein

a) right and left portal vein
b) hepatic artery and portal vein
c) hepatic vein and IVC
d) splenic vein and SMV

A

d) splenic vein and SMV

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15
Q

Where would a tardus parvus waveform most likely be noted in the presence of renal artery stenosis

a) renal vein
b) segmental artery
c) aorta
d) proximal renal artery

A

b) segmental artery

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16
Q

What does it mean if both an arterial and a venous doppler signal are seen on the same side of the baseline at the level of the porta hepatis

a) arteriovenous malformation
b) portal hypertension
c) portal insufficiency
d) normal finding

A

d) normal finding

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17
Q

What best describes the normal peripheral arterial doppler contour

a) sharp systolic peak, continuous diastolic flow with dicrotic notching
b) high acceleration time with no diastolic component
c) prominent phasicity with respiration
d) sharp systolic peak and prominent diastolic flow reversal

A

d) sharp systolic peak and prominent diastolic flow reversal

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18
Q

Where are the terminal branhes of the renal artery

a) aorta
b) segemental artery
c) interlobar artery
d) renal vein

A

b) segemental artery

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19
Q

Detection of a solid mass in the IVC should prompt a thorough investigation of what structures

a) pancreas
b) adrenal gland
c) kidneys
d) liver

A

c) kidneys

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20
Q

What vessel is deep to the IVC

a) aorta
b) right renal artery
c) right renal vein
d) left renal vein

A

b) right renal artery

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21
Q

What is the best scanning technique for visualization of the distal subclavian artery

a) infraclavicular
b) supraclavicular
c) suprasternal
d) axillary

A

a) infraclavicular

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22
Q

Where is the most common location for venous stasis ulcers

a) superior to medial malleolus
b) superior to lateral malleolus
c) tips of toes
d) heels and plantar soles

A

a) superior to medial malleolus

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23
Q

What happens to transmural pressure as venous volume decreases

a) variable
b) unchanged
c) increases
d) decreases

A

d) decreases

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24
Q

What waveform abnormality would be documented distal to arterial obstructive disease

a) increased resistance
b) tardus parvus
c) aliasing
d) pulsus bisferiens

A

b) tardus parvus

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25
Q

What is the branch of the ECA that is most easily identified by duplex

a) lingual artery
b) inferior thyroid artery
c) ophthalmic artery
d) superior thyroid artery

A

d) superior thyroid artery

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26
Q

Where could the disease be located if the CFA demonstrates an acceleration time of 138 msec

a) SFA
b) deep femoral artery
c) internal iliac arterty
d) external iliac artery

A

d) external iliac artery

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27
Q

What is the hydrostatic pressure at the ankle in a supine patient

a) 0mmHg
b) -50 mmHg
c) 100 mmHg
d) 140 mmHg

A

a) 0mmHg

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28
Q

Which of the following is a likely complication of an in situ saphenous vein graft

a) varicose veins
b) psuedo
c) retained valves
d) neointimal hyperplasia

A

c) retained valves

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29
Q

What clinical finding best corresponds with decreased arterial perfusion

a) induced rubor upon elevation and pallor when dependent
b) pain in calf when at rest and supine
c) muscle pain and fatigue upon physical activity
d) brawny discoloration and swelling in lower calf

A

c) muscle pain and fatigue upon physical activity

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30
Q

What is a normal response to exercise in the arterial system

a) increased resistance, increased flow velocity
b) increased resistance, increased flow volume
c) decrease resistance, increase flow volume
d) decreased resistance, decreased diastolic velocity

A

c) decrease resistance, increase flow volume

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31
Q

Which scanning technique most accurately describes transcranial doppler

a) 2 MHz PW transducer at a 0 degree angle
b) 4 MHz Phased array at a 0 degree angle
c) 8 MHz PW transducer at 0 degree angle
d) 2 MHz CW transducer at 0 degree angle

A

a) 2 MHz PW transducer at a 0 degree angle

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31
Q

What is the significance of a speak systolic velocity of 250 cm/s found within the celiac artery

a) > 60% diameter reduction
b) >75% diameter reduction
c) > 70% diameter reduction
d) within normal limits

A

c) > 70% diameter reduction

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32
Q

What is the most common vessel in the upper extremity to develop obstructive disease

a) right axillary artery
b) left brachial artery
c) brachiocephalic artery
d) left subclavian artery

A

d) left subclavian artery

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33
Q

What diagnostic test provides the most anatomic information

a) angiography
b) plethysmography
c) segmental pressure
d) duplex

A

a) angiography

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34
Q

What will cause venous flow in the lower extremities to halt

a) exhalation
b) inhalation
c) release of proximal compression
d) distal compression

A

b) inhalation

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35
Q

What does photoplethysmography document

a) capillary reflections
b) capillary volume
c) systolic volume
d) hydrostatic pressure

A

a) capillary reflections

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36
Q

Where is the most common location for renal artery stenosis

a) proximal renal artery
b) segmental artery
c) distal renal artery
d) mid renal artery

A

a) proximal renal artery

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37
Q

Which of the following is likely to be part of a medical plan for chronic peripheral arterial disease

a) elevation of affected limb
b) oral coumadin
c) hyperbaric chamber
d) exercise

A

d) exercise

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38
Q

What is consistent with findings of antegrade elevated flow velocities in the PCA as compared to the MCA

a) posterior to anterior collaterlization
b) crossover collateralization
c) basilar artery stenosis
d) external to internal collateralization

A

a) posterior to anterior collaterlization

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39
Q

Which of the following is considered a primary cause of venous insufficiency

a) previous DVT
b) pregnancy
c) hypoplastic valves
d) obesity

A

c) hypoplastic valves

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40
Q

A PVR waveform demonstrates a sharp peak, absent dicrotic notch and a downslope that bows away from the baseline. How would this be interpreted

a) mildly abnormal
b) moderately abnormal
c) severely abnormal
d) normal

A

a) mildly abnormal

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41
Q

After tourniquet is placed for further testing utilizing venous PPG, what vessel system is considered abnormal if the VRT normalizes

a) superficial veins
b) capillaries
c) soleal sinuses
d) deep veins

A

a) superficial veins

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42
Q

What is the normal flow direction of the MCA on TCD

a) antegrade
b) caudal
c) bidirectional
d) retrograde

A

a) antegrade

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43
Q

What describes acceleration time

a) early diastole to end diastole
b) peak systole to peak diastole
c) onset systole to peak
d) peak systole to late diastole

A

c) onset systole to peak

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44
Q

What best describes the cause of a higher incidence of the deep venous thrombosis of the left leg rather than the right leg

a) extrinsic trauma of left venous system due to position of vessels
b) venous stasis of left iliac vein due to anatomical location
c) venous stasis due to increased vessel size on left
d) intrinsic trauma of left iliac vein due to repetitive stress

A

b) venous stasis of left iliac vein due to anatomical location

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45
Q

What an cause transient elevated velocities of the celiac artery

a) fibromuscular dysplasia
b) median arcuate ligament compression
c) chronic mesenteric ischemia
d) fixed arterial obstructive disease

A

b) median arcuate ligament compression

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46
Q

What will normally cause venous flow in the lower extremities to augment

a) proximal compression
b) inhalation
c) release of proximal compression
d) reverse trendelenburg

A

c) release of proximal compression

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47
Q

What console adjustment can be made to correct aliasing

a) decrease PRF
b) raise baseline
c) increase frequency
d) increase PRF

A

d) increase PRF

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48
Q

What is the greatest clinical concern of an abdominal aortic aneurysm greater than 5 cm

a) risk of rupture
b) risk of dissection
c) risk of thrombosis
d) risk of embolization

A

a) risk of rupture

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49
Q

What is considered normal for the resistance index of the renal artery

a) > 1.0
b) < 0.9
c) < 0.7
d) > 0.65

A

c) < 0.7

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50
Q

What is the most common result of deep venous thrombosis

a) post-phlebitic syndrome
b) primary varicose veins
c) distal embolism
d) pulmonary embolism

A

a) post-phlebitic syndrome

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51
Q

Which technique would be most informative in a patient complaining of claudication

a) treadmill testing
b) digital PPG with cold stress
c) venous duplex exam
d) reactive hyperemia

A

a) treadmill testing

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52
Q

Where is the most common location for obstructive disease of a fistula graft

a) venous outflow
b) inflow artery
c) distal artery
d) body of graft

A

a) venous outflow

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53
Q

What characterizes a typical doppler waveform distal to a hemodynamically significant stenosis

a) loss of end diastolic flow
b) increased pulsatility index
c) absent doppler signal
d) tardus parvus

A

d) tardus parvus

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54
Q

How long does it take for thrombin to work for pseudo closure

a) 5 hours
b) 5-10 seconds
c) 30 minutes
d) 5-10 minutes

A

b) 5-10 seconds

55
Q

Which symptom is most likely related to vertebrobasilar insufficiency

a) syncope
b) behavior changes
c) vertigo
d) dysphasia

A

c) vertigo

56
Q

A high resistance waveform is normally documented in which of the following vessels

a) post-prandial SMA
b) infrarenal aorta
c) celiac trunk
d) splenic artery

A

b) infrarenal aorta

57
Q

Which of the following procedures require the use of a valvutome

a) reversed saphenous vein graft
b) hemodialysis access graft
c) aortic endograft
d) in situ saphenous vein graft

A

d) in situ saphenous vein graft

58
Q

A young, athletic patient complaining of leg pain with exercise is most likely to have what abnormality

a) popliteal entrapment
b) popliteal obstructive disease
c) distal vasospastic disease
d) popliteal aneurysm

A

a) popliteal entrapment

59
Q

WRONG ( NOT B or C)
Which of the following scenarios could cause a low resistance pattern in the ECA

a) collateraliztion via the posterior communicating arteries
b) distal occlusion of the ECA
c) collaterization via the opthalamic artery
d) occlusion of the proximal subclavian artery

A
60
Q

What artifact is most likely to appear similar to a clot in the IVC

a) mirror image
b) side lobes
c) reverberation
d) acoustic enhancement

A

c) reverberation

61
Q

What characteristics should normally be documented within the inflow artery of a hemodilysis access graft

a) decreased resistance, increased velocity
b) increased resistance, increased velocity
c) decreased resistance, decreased velocity
d) increased resistance, decreased velocity

A

a) decreased resistance, increased velocity

62
Q

What is the normal doppler waveform pattern of the post-prandial SMA

a) decreased end diastolic velocity
b) low resistance
c) prominent diastolic flow reversal
d) high resistance

A

b) low resistance

63
Q

What best describes the etiology of a pulsatile waveform documented at the level of the IJV

a) close proximity to the heart
b) congestive heart failure
c) fluid overload
d) proximal venous obstruction

A

a) close proximity to the heart

64
Q

WRONG ( NOT B or C or D)
Which of the following vessels would be a candidate for balloon angioplasty if disease was present

a) renal artery
b) posterior tibial artery
c) aorta
d) ICA

A
65
Q

Which of the following valves represent a normal ejection fraction of the calf muscle pump

a) 40%
b) 58%
c) 65%
d) 30%

A

c) 65%

66
Q

What is the significance of a loss of the end diastolic component in the CCA

a) distal stenosis of the ECA
b) proximal occlusion of the CCA
c) proximal stenosis of CCA
d) occlusion of the ICA

A

d) occlusion of the ICA

67
Q

What type of endoleak is described as retrograde branch leaks

a) type 1
b) type 3
c) type 4
4) type 2

A

4) type 2

68
Q

What is the proximal anastomosis of the autologous fistula graft

a) radial artery
b) radial vein
c) common femoral artery
d) cephalic vein

A

a) radial artery

69
Q

What is the normal flow pattern of the portal vein

a) hepatofugal
b) pulsatile
c) bidirectional
d) hepatopedal

A

d) hepatopedal

70
Q

What is the greatest clinical concern of a patient experiencing severe abdominal and back pain

a) IVC thrombotic embolism
b) pseduoaneurysm
c) aortic aneurysm rupture
d) aortic aneurysm thrombosis

A

c) aortic aneurysm rupture

71
Q

WRONG ( NOT C)
Which finding require immediate notification of the physician

a) total occlusion of the ICA
b) presence of an intimal flap within the aorta
c) saccular aortic aneurysm measuring 5 cm
d) portal hypertension with splenomegaly

A
72
Q

What is the most commonly used vein for autologous conduit arterial bypass graft

a) GSV
b) cephalic vein
c) SSV
d) femoral vein

A

a) GSV

73
Q

Where does the cephalic vein drain into

a) subclavain vein
b) axillary vein
c) brachial vein
d) brachiocephalic vein

A

a) subclavain vein

74
Q

WRONG ( NOT B or C or D)
What artery is a landmark for the origination of the external iliac artery

a) hypogastric artery
b) common femoral artery
c) Aorta
d) common iliac artery

A
75
Q

What is indicated by ABI’s of 1.4

a) medial calcinosis
b) popliteal entrapment
c) within normal limits
d) moderate obstructive disease

A

a) medial calcinosis

76
Q

What quantitative criteria for the peak systolic velocity of the SMA indicates >70% diameter reduction

a) >200 cm/s
b) >180 cm/s
c) >125 cm/s
d) >275 cm/s

A

d) >275 cm/s

77
Q

Where is the most common location for thrombus to originate

a) peforating veins
b) superficial veins
c) venous confluence
d) valve cusps or sinuses

A

d) valve cusps or sinuses

78
Q

Which of the following can cause an increased resistance doppler signal in a normally low resistance vessel

a) proximal obstructive disease
b) arteriovenous fistula
c) extrinsic compression
d) distal obstruction

A

d) distal obstruction

79
Q

What is Budd-Chiari syndrome

a) thrombosis of upper extremities veins
b) enlargement of the hepatic veins
c) occlusion of the hepatic veins
d) terminal aorta obstruction

A

c) occlusion of the hepatic veins

80
Q

What flow patterns are noted proximal to an arteriovenous fistula

a) increased diastolic flow and low resistance
b) decreased systolic flow and increased diastolic velocity
c) increased resistance and increased systolic velocity
d) bidirectional flow and increased pulsatility

A

a) increased diastolic flow and low resistance

81
Q

Which of the following complications is most likely related to a patient with cirrhosis

a) chronic mesenteric ischemia
b) renal artery stenosis
c) medial calcinosis
d) portal hypertension

A

d) portal hypertension

82
Q

What is the most likely cause of non-pitting calf edema without discoloration or change with limb elevation

a) lymphedema
b) congestive heart failure
c) chronic venous insufficiency
d) acute DVT

A

a) lymphedema

83
Q

What vessel is the distal anastomosis of a Brescia-Cimino graft

a) radial artery
b) basilic vein
c) cepahlic vein
d) brachial artery

A

c) cepahlic vein

84
Q

What diagnosis is consistent with elevated resistance patterns found in the post-prandial SMA and increased velocity IMA

a) chronic mesenteric ischemia
b) acute mesenteric ischemia
c) arteriovenous malformation
d) compression of the median arcuate ligament

A

a) chronic mesenteric ischemia

85
Q

Severe occlusive disease of the right ICA could result in which of the following symptoms

a) bilateral parethesia
b) right amaurosis fugax
c) right sided paresthesia
d) homonymous hemianopia

A

b) right amaurosis fugax

86
Q

What would most likely cause enlargement of the IVC

a) portal hypertension
b) splenomegaly
c) right sided heart failure
d) chronic liver disease

A

c) right sided heart failure

87
Q

Calculate the diameter reduction in a vessel with a lumen of 9mm that demonstrates a narrowing of 2mm

a) 90%
b) 7%
c) 78%
d) 22%

A

c) 78%

88
Q

What patient group is most likely to develop Takayasu arteritis

a) elderly women
b) young athletic women
c) young women
d) men that are heavy smokers

A

c) young women

89
Q

What is occuring in the upper extremity veins during expiration

a) venous filling and expansion
b) venous emptying and drainage
c) flow is halting and emptying
d) flow is filling and flowing fowards

A

a) venous filling and expansion

90
Q

What is the most likely to cause restenosis of the ICA after endarterectomy

a) intimal flap
b) fibromuscular dysplasia
c) neointimal hyperplasia
d) plaque regression

A

c) neointimal hyperplasia

91
Q

What will result if a pneumatic cuff is too narrow for the diameter of the limb

a) pressures will be falsely high
b) pressures will be unable to be obtained
c) pressures will be unaffected
d) pressure will be falsely low

A

a) pressures will be falsely high

92
Q

WRONG ( NOT B or C or D)
What clinical factor is related to artificially high segmental pressures

a) chronic renal disease
b) smoking
c) high cardiac output
d) congestive heart failure

A
93
Q

What disease process would most likely present with an absent bruit

a) arteriovenous fistula
b) 75% diameter reduction
c) tortuous vessels
d) arterial occlusion

A

d) arterial occlusion

94
Q

In the presence of a renal allograft, the donor renal artery is anastomosed to which vessel

a) external iliac artery
b) aorta
c) interna iliac artery
d) segmental artery

A

a) external iliac artery

95
Q

What is a landmark that can be used for proper placement of the radiofrequency electrode catheter

a) epigastric artery
b) superficial epigastric vein
c) superficial saphenous accessory vein
d) profunda femoris

A

b) superficial epigastric vein

96
Q

Where does the left subclavian artery originate

a) aortic arch
b) left brachiocephalic artery
c) left common carotid artery
d) left axillary artery

A

a) aortic arch

97
Q

What would make manual compression of a pseudoaneurysm contraindicated

a) skin infection
b) multiple communicating channels
c) large pseudo
d) neck < 10 mm in diameter

A

b) multiple communicating channels

98
Q

What vessel is most likely to be identified on the lateral side of the upper extremity while performing a duplex exam

a) basilic vein
b) axillary vein
c) cephalic vein
d) ulnar artery

A

c) cephalic vein

99
Q

What is Leriche syndrome

a) terminal aorta obstruction in male patients
b) venous thrombosis in patients with thoracic outlet syndrome
c) compression of the left renal vein by the SMA and aorta
d) Extrinsic compression of the right common iliac vein

A

a) terminal aorta obstruction in male patients

100
Q

What vessel is normally documented antegrade at 70mm depth on TCD through the transtemporal approach

a) MCA
b) PCA
c) ACA
d) ICA

A

b) PCA

101
Q

What vein is a tributary to the popliteal vein

a) posterior tibial perforators
b) femoral vein
c) SSV
d) soleal sinuses

A

c) SSV

102
Q

With segmental pressures a 20 mmHg difference in one brachial pressure to the other suggests a

a) > 50% stenosis of the vessel distal to the cuff
b) > 50% stenosis of the subclavian artery or vessel under the lower cuff
c) absence of upper extremity arterial disease
d) > 50% stenosis of the subclavian artery or vessel under the higher cuff

A

b) > 50% stenosis of the subclavian artery or vessel under the lower cuff

103
Q

The PSV is 20 cm/s and the EDV is 10 cm/s. What is the pulsatility index

a) 0.3
b) 2.0
c) 0.5
d) 0.6

A

d) 0.6

104
Q

What vessel is occluded if the bypass graft is placed from the right femoral artery to the left femoral artery

a) right common femoral artery
b) right common iliac artery
c) left internal iliac artery
d) left external iliac artery

A

d) left external iliac artery

105
Q

Which of the following may present with residual valve stenosis post procedurally

a) in situ saphenous vein graft
b) reversed saphenous vein graft
c) hemodialysis access fistula graft
d) synthetic bypass graft

A

a) in situ saphenous vein graft

106
Q

Which artery accompanies normally paired deep veins

a) popliteal
b) deep femoral
c) superficial femoral
d) brachial

A

d) brachial

107
Q

Upon performance of a modified Allen test, the waveform appears flattened during compression of the radial artery. What is the significance of these findings

a) steal syndrome
b) radial artery dependency
c) patent palmar arch
d) ulnar artery dependency

A

b) radial artery dependency

108
Q

What vessels are affected by Buergers disease

a) digital arteries
b) arterioles
c) larger arteries
d) hepatic veins

A

a) digital arteries

109
Q

What is the significance of a dicrotic notch in a low resistance waveform

a) aortic valve closure
b) proximal arterial obstruction
c) distal occlusion
d) vasospastic disease

A

a) aortic valve closure

110
Q

What artifact is most likely to mimic the appearance of an arterial dissection

a) posterior shadowing
b) mirror image
c) reverberation
d) posterior enhancement

A

c) reverberation

111
Q

What is the first branch of the abdominal aorta

a) brachiocephalic artery
b) SMA
c) common hepatic artery
d) celiac artery

A

d) celiac artery

112
Q

What best explains the most likely source of blue toe syndrome

a) embolic event
b) arterial dissection
c) phlegmasia cerulea dolens
d) arterial thrombosis

A

a) embolic event

113
Q

What is the treatment for compartment syndrome

a) fasciotomy
b) rib resection
c) angioplasty
d) manual compression

A

a) fasciotomy

114
Q

What best describes the results of an effective calf muscle pump

a) increase venous pressure and decrease venous volume
b) decrease venous pressure and increase venous volume
c) decrease venous pressure and increase venous return
d) increase venous pressure and increase venous pooling

A

c) decrease venous pressure and increase venous return

115
Q

What is the normally expected finding after performance of laser ablation for venous insufficiency

a) thrombosed superficial and thrombosed CFV
b) patent superficial vein and patent CFV
c) competent valves within the superficial system
d) thrombosed superficial vein and patent CFV

A

d) thrombosed superficial vein and patent CFV

116
Q

What occurs in the obstructed limb when reactive hyperemia is performed

a) hyperemia is delayed in the arterial system
b) hyperemia is improved in the arterial system
c) both arterial and venous hyperemia is obstructed
d) both arterial and venous hyperemia is enhanced

A

a) hyperemia is delayed in the arterial system

117
Q

Upon performance of treadmill exercise, which result allows for distinguishing between single level and multilevel disease

a) a significant drop less than 50% indicates single level disease
b) a return to resting pressure within 6 minutes indicates single level disease
c) a return to resting pressure after 6 minutes indicates single level disease
d) a significant drop of more than 50% indicates multilevel disease

A

b) a return to resting pressure within 6 minutes indicates single level disease

118
Q

A segmental pressure study is ordered for a patient with a bypass graft. If it is uncertain where the bypass is located, what is the most appropriate action

a) check with referring physician prior to performing exam
b) refuse to perform the exam until a new order is received
c) obtain approval by supervising sonographer
d) perform the exam as ordered

A

a) check with referring physician prior to performing exam

119
Q

What is the purpose of the adson manuever

a) evaluate for arterial compression of thoracic outlet syndrome
b) evaluate for valvular incompetence in patients with post phlebitic syndrome
c) evaluate for venous augmentation to rule out proximal obstruction
d) evaluate the patency of the palmar arch for radial artery harvesting

A

a) evaluate for arterial compression of thoracic outlet syndrome

120
Q

A baseball pitcher presents with acute pain and swelling of the right upper extremity. What is the most likely diagnosis

a) paget-schroetter syndrome
b) may-thurner syndrome
c) thoracic outlet syndrome
d) SVC syndrome

A

a) paget-schroetter syndrome

121
Q

WRONG (NOT A or C or D)
Which of the following is a contributing factor to thrombus formation

a) hyperlipidemia
b) diabetes
c) pregnancy
d) smoking

A
122
Q

What is consistent with antegrade doppler signals of the ACA on transcranial imaging

a) cross-over collateralization
b) posterior to anterior collateralization
c) external to internal collateralization
d) normal finding

A

a) cross-over collateralization

123
Q

What is the most important diagnostic feature of documenting a pseudoaneurysm

a) intimal tear
b) communicating channel
c) ying-yang color sign
d) bidirectional doppler pattern

A

b) communicating channel

124
Q

What term describes temporary monocular vision loss

a) transient ischemic attack
b) unilateral hemianopia
c) diplopia
d) amaurosis fugax

A

d) amaurosis fugax

125
Q

What is a ascending venogram used for

a) saphenous vein mapping
b) pulmonary embolism
c) obstructive DVT
d) valvular incompetence

A

c) obstructive DVT

126
Q

Which of the following scenarios would the renal artery to aorta ratio not be reliable

a) renal artery stenosis
b) abdominal aortic aneurysm
c) common iliac disease
d) chronic renal failure

A

b) abdominal aortic aneurysm

126
Q

What probe is best for imaging a large abdominal aortic aneurysm on a thin patient

a) 3 MHz curvilinear array
b) 9 MHz linear sequential array
c) 2.5 MHz phased array
d) 6 MHz curvilinear array

A

d) 6 MHz curvilinear array

127
Q

A patient in the emergency room has a positive D-dimer. What exam will most likely be ordered

a) carotid duplex
b) descending venogram
c) abdominal aorta duplex
d) venous duplex

A

d) venous duplex

127
Q

What information is displayed on the y axis of the spectral analysis

a) individual frequency shifts
b) estimated frequency shifts
c) volume shifts
d) time

A

a) individual frequency shifts

128
Q

In color doppler mode no color signal is detected, what step can you take to improve the sensitivity to the slow flow

a) lower wall filter
b) increase velocity scale
c) increase wall filter
d) decrease transducer frequency

A

a) lower wall filter

129
Q

What is the critical concern in a patient with an acutely swollen, painful and pale limb

a) phlegmasia alba dolens
b) acute DVT
c) phlegmasia cerulea dolens
d) acute arterial occlusion

A

a) phlegmasia alba dolens

130
Q

In what vessel would the distal anastomosis of a TIPSS be located

a) right hepatic vein
b) portal vein
c) middle hepatic vein
d) infrarenal IVC

A

a) right hepatic vein

131
Q

What is the correct criteria for diagnosing renal artery stenosis

a) renal to aorta ratio > 3.5 indicates > 60% stenosis
b) prestenotic to stenotic ratio of 2:1 indicates > 50% diameter reduction
c) renal to aorta ratio of 4:1 indicates > 75% diameter reduction
d) peak systolic velocity of >125 cm/s indicates 50-79% stenosis

A

a) renal to aorta ratio > 3.5 indicates > 60% stenosis

132
Q

Which ABI is most consistent with a patient that complains of pain in the feet at night?

a) 0.4
b) 0.6
c) 0.9
d) 1.3

A

a) 0.4

Vascular board review (myultrasoundtutor) (23 decks)

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