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MRCS - Part A > Vascular > Flashcards

Vascular Flashcards

1
Q

From which artery does the thyroid ima artery arise?

A

Brachiocephalic

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2
Q

Which 2 vessels join together to form the portal vein?

A

Superior Mesenteric Vein and Splenic Vein

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3
Q

Which blood vessels do the superior, middle and inferior adrenal arteries originate from?

A

Superior - Inferior splenic artery
Middle - Aorta
Inferior - Renal artery

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4
Q

What artery is closely related to the axillary nerve?

A

Posterior circumflex humeral artery

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5
Q

What structures accompanies the aorta as it passes through the diaphram?

A

Thoracic duct
Azygous and hemiazygous veins

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6
Q

Which vessel is the dorsalis pedis artery a continuation of?

A

anterior tibial artery

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7
Q

Which vessels are the trunks and cords of the brachial plexus related to?

A

Trunks - subclavian
Cords - axillary

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8
Q

Which artery is closely related to the junction of the long saphenous vein with the femoral vein?

A

Deep external pudendal artery

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9
Q

What artery does the superior thyroid artery branch from?

A

External carotid artery

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10
Q

What are the 8 branches of the external carotid artery?

A

Superior thyroid artery
Ascending pharyngeal artery
Lingual artery
Facial artery
Occipital artery
Posterior auricular artery
Maxillary artery
Superficial temporal artery

Some Anatomists Like Freaking Out Poor Medical Students

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11
Q

Where does the obturator artery arise from?

A

Anterior division of internal iliac artery

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12
Q

What is the most common carotid body tumour?

A

Paraganglionoma

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13
Q

What are the branches of the abdominal aorta - and are they paired or unpaired?

A

Inferior phrenic - Paired
Coeliac - Unpaired
SMA - Unpaired
Middle suprarenal - Paired
Renal - Paired
Gonadal - Paired
Lumbar - Paired
IMA - Unpaired
Median sacral - Unpaired
Common iliac - terminal and paired

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14
Q

What is the pathology of an aortic aneurysm?

A

The primary event is loss of elastic fibres in the media with subsequent degradation of collagen fibres

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15
Q

What is Leriche Syndrome?

A

Due to atherosclerotic occlusive disease of abdominal aorta +/- iliac arteries
Triad:
1. Claudication of the buttocks and thighs
2. Atrophy of the musculature of the legs
3. Impotence (due to paralysis of the L1 nerve)

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16
Q

What complication can occur when a PTFE graft is used without a miller cuff?

A

Neo-intimal hyperplasia

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17
Q

What are the features of Takayasu’s arteritis ?

A

Most commonly affects young asian females
Inflammation in the walls of the largest arteries in the body: the aorta and its main branches
Pulseless peripheries are a classical finding
Treatment is with systemic steroids

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18
Q

What is cystic medial necrosis?

A

seen in marfan’s disease
a disease of large arteries, especially the aorta, caused by collagen linking defects leading to deposition of basophilic ground substance in the media, creating cyst-like lesions that weaken the artery wall

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19
Q

What lab test is used to monitor patients with unfractionated heparin?

A

APTT

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20
Q

What factors does protein C inhibit?

A

VIIIa
Va

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21
Q

Which factors help convert factor X into Xa?

A

IXa
VIIIa
VIIa
IIIa

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22
Q

Which factor is affected in haemophilia A, B and C?

A

A - VIII
B - IX
C - XI

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23
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of haemophilia A and B?

A

X linked recessive

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24
Q

What happens to APTT, PT and bleeding time in haemophilia?

A

APTT is increased
PT is normal
Bleeding time is normal

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25
Q

What factors influence APTT?

A

VIII
IX
XI
XII

26
Q

Why is APTT increased in von willebrand disease?

A

The prolongation is secondary to low levels of FVIII because one of the normal functions of vWF is to protect FVIII from degradation

27
Q

What happens to APTT, PT and bleeding time in vitamin K deficiency?

A

APTT - increased
PT - increased the most
Bleeding time - normal

28
Q

What happens to APTT, PT and bleeding time in von willebrand disease?

A

APTT - increased
PT - normal
Bleeding time is increased

29
Q

What is the most common adverse event with fresh frozen plasma?

A

Urticaria

30
Q

What is the most common adverse event with packed red blood cells?

A

Pyrexia

31
Q

Which coagulation factors are consumed most quickly in DIC?

A

V and VIII and platelets

32
Q

Which coagulation factors are likely to be deficient in liver disease?

A

1, 2, 5, 7, 9, 10, 11

33
Q

What produces factor VIII?

A

Endothelial cells of the liver

34
Q

What is the reversal agent for heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate

35
Q

What is adductor canal compression syndrome?

A

Compression of the femoral artery by the musculotendinous band from adductor magnus muscle.
Causes ischaemic symptoms on exertion in young males.

36
Q

What is the difference between adductor canal compression and popliteal artery entrapment?

A

Popliteal artery pulse disappears on full extension where as it is present in adductor canal compression.

37
Q

How does heparin cause hyperkalaemia?

A

Through aldosterone secretion

38
Q

What organism is most likely associated with gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens
Subcutaneous emphysema is present

39
Q

What do stipple cells indicate?

A

Lead poisoning/haemoglobinopathies

40
Q

What cell types are found on blood film post splenectomy?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies
Pappenheimer bodies
Poikilocytes (Target cells)
Erythrocyte containing siderotic granules
Heinz bodies

41
Q

What nerve lies within the carotid sheath between the internal jugular vein and the carotid artery?

A

Vagus nerve

Other nerves in carotid sheath include:
Ansa cervicalis
Hypoglossal
Accessory
Sympathetic fibres

42
Q

At what vertebral level does the aorta bifurcate into the common iliac arteries?

A

L4

43
Q

What is leriche syndrome?

A

Atherosclerotic disease and occlusion of abdominal aorta +/- iliac arteries resulting in reduced blood flow to the pelvic viscera and the following triad:
1. Impotence
2. Claudication of buttocks and thighs
3. Atrophy of thigh muscles

44
Q

At what vertebral level does the common iliac vein join the IVC?

A

L5

45
Q

What are the features of chronic obliterative arterial disease?

A

Painful ulcers associated with a low ABPI
+/- pitting oedema due to IHD and heart failure

46
Q

What is the management of a patient with an iliac occlusion, normal contralateral vessels but with significant co-morbidities?

A

Femoro-femoral cross over graft

47
Q

What nerves cross anteriorly to the carotid sheath?

A

Hypoglossal and ansa cervicalis

48
Q

What cell type mediates graft versus host disease in blood transfusions?

A

Lymphocytes

49
Q

Where is the majority of iron found in the body?

A

Haemoglobin 70%

50
Q

What are the branches of the internal iliac artery?

A

Posterior division
- Iliolumbar artery
- Lateral sacral artery
- Superior gluteal artery
Anterior division
- Superior vesicular artery
- Obturator artery
- Inferior vesicular artery
- Uterine artery
- Middle rectal artery
- Internal pudendal artery

51
Q

What are the branches of the internal pudendal artery?

A

Perineal artery
Inferior rectal artery
Posterior labial/scrotal artery
Artery to bulb of vestibule/penis
Dorsal artery of clitoris/penis
Deep artery of clitoris/penis

52
Q

Where does the inferior epigastric artery originate?

A

External iliac artery

53
Q

What is the argon plasma coagulation system used for?

A

Splenic bleeding

54
Q

What are the branches of the subclavian?

A

V ertebral artery
I nternal thoracic
T hyrocervical trunk

C ostalcervical trunk
D orsal scapular

VIT C&D

55
Q

What are the tributaries of the inferior vena cava?

A

Iliacs
Lumbar
Testicular - or ovarian. Right only however. Left gonadal veins drain into the left renal vein
Renal
Suprarenal
Hepatic veins

56
Q

At what vertebral level does the IVC start?

A

L5

57
Q

What boundary of the epiploic foramen of winslow does the IVC form?

A

Posterior

58
Q

What is the normal venous pressure of the portal vein and IVC

A

IVC 8-12 mmHg
Portal vein 5-7 mmHg

59
Q

Where do the short gastric arteries arise from and through what structure do they travel?

A

Splenic artery
Gastrosplenic ligament

60
Q

What vessel travels anterior to the SMA?

A

Splenic vein

MRCS - Part A (16 decks)

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