UWorld Facts Flashcards
1
Q
PAS+ stain liver
A
A1AT
2
Q
Prussian blue stain liver
A
Hereditary hemochromatosis
3
Q
PSC leads to…
A
Cholangiocarcinoma
4
Q
Which hepatitis virus can lead to fulminant hepatitis? HBV or HCV
A
HBV
5
Q
What toxin is associated with H. pylori?
A
Vaculoating toxin
6
Q
Uremia leads to what type of pericarditis.
A
Fibrinous
7
Q
Acanthosis nigricans is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with which cancer?
A
Gastric ca
8
Q
Central necrosis in a tumor is 2/2
A
ischemia and infarction
9
Q
Subendocardial infarcts are 2/2
A
Hypotension
10
Q
Number 1 cause of death in severe burn patients
A
Sepsis
11
Q
Radiation at 300 rads will cause
A
BM toxicity
12
Q
Radiation at 1000 rads will cause
A
Severe GIT toxicity
13
Q
PTLD is associated with which virus?
A
EBV
14
Q
In hemorrhagic disease of the newborn, which type of cell is most likely to be seen as nucleated on peripheral smear?
A
RBC
15
Q
What is Richter syndrome?
A
Transformation of DLBL into an acute leukemia
16
Q
Where is Nissl substance found?
A
RER of neurons
17
Q
What (pediatric) disease is a/w fever, bilateral conjunctivitis, LAD, strawberry tongue?
A
Kawasaki’s disease; treat with ASA
18
Q
Venous blood drains superficial to deep or vice versa?
A
Superficial to deep
19
Q
Which virus integrates into DNA: HBV or HCV?
A
HBV (DNA virus with RT activity)
20
Q
FAS activates the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway of apoptosis?
A
Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis
21
Q
Chancre vs. Condyloma lata vs. Gumma
A
Primary, Secondary, Tertiary syphillis
22
Q
What infection is implicated in granuloma inguinale?
A
Klebsiella
23
Q
Donovan bodies
A
Klebsiella; granuloma inguinale
24
Q
Candida in lymphopenic vs. neutropenic patients: superficial vs. disseminated infections
A
Neutropenic: diseminated
Lymphopenic: superficial
25
Acute rejection following kidney transplant
Dense mononuclear infiltrate of T cells vs. donor MHC
26
CD34
Endothelial cell surface marker
27
M. tb Langerhan giant cells are induced by what types of cells?
CD4+ T cell
28
What factors are important for SMC chemotaxis and interstitial collagen production in atherosclerosis?
TGF-beta; PDGF
29
Adrenal medulla releases 80% NE or E?
Epinepherine
30
An influezna vaccine would be most effective against neuramidase or hemagglutinin?
Hemagluttanin
31
In cryptorchidism, which cells become anergic: Sertoli or Leydig cells?
Sertoli cells [less inhibin released, high FSH]
32
Radio-opaque or Radiolucent: cholesterol stones
Radiolucent
33
Radio-opaque or Radiolucent: pigment stones
Radio-opaque
34
Radio-opaque or Radiolucent: all kidney stones (besides urate)
Radio-opaque
35
Radio-opaque or Radiolucent: urate kidney stones
Radiolucent
36
NF-2
B/L Schwannoma and meningoma
37
Hypopigmented spots, intellecutal disability, facial angiofibromas, astrocytomas and seizures. Disease & inheritance.
Tuberous sclerosis (AD)
38
Marco-orchidism
Fragile X syndrome
39
Pigmented iris hamartomas (Lisch's nodules)
NF-1
40
Retinal hemangioblastomas
VHL
41
Selective COX-2 inhibitors are dangerous because ...
They selectively decrease the amount of PGI2 formed from COX-1 and thus offset the ratio of PGI1 (anti-thrombotic) to TXA2 (pro-thrombotic).
* Increased thrombosis
42
AD hereditary disorder that predisposes patients to a number of neoplasms in breast, brain, soft tissue, bone, adrenal cortex
Li Fraumeni syndrome
43
AR disorder that results in accumulation of a lipid that appears brown when stained with toluidine blue
Metachromatic leukodystrophy
44
XLR disorder that can manifest as angiokeratomas and burning pain in the extremities
Fabry's disease (alpha-galactosidase)
45
Excessive niacin supplementation can cause...
Facial flushing
46
The underlying pathophysiology in fetal alcohol syndrome
Inhibition of cell migration
47
When asked to calculate the incidence, what must you take into account?
The number of people that already have the disease
48
2 SD from the mean includes what % of the population?
95%
49
1 SD from the mean includes what % of the population?
69%
50
3 SD from the mean includes what % of the population?
99.7
51
What is the leading cause of death among people 65 years old and older?
Heart disease
52
A case control study uses OR or RR?
OR
53
An initial test for a disease should have high sensitivity or specificity?
Sensitivity
54
The leading cause of cancer mortality among men and women
Lung cancer
55
Leading causes of cancer morbidity by sex
Men: Prostate
Women: Breast
56
Most common cause of death in people 15-24 years old. Second and third most common causes?
Unintentional injury
1. MVC
2. Homicide
3. Suicide
57
What type of bias occurs when patients in a study are not randomly assigned to a treatment group?
Selection bias
58
An example of this type of bias would be enrolling patients with metastatic breast cancer in a trial 6 months after diagnosis instead of immediately
Late-look bias [those with more severe disease died before detection]
59
An example of this bias would be a new cancer screening test that detects an incurable form of cancer 3 months before the patient becomes symptomatic.
* Lead time bias
| The patient's survival would be "increased" by 3 months with the test; only because the disease was detected earlier.
60
What are the 3 most common causes of cancer death in men in the US?
Lung, prostate, colon
61
What parmetric statistical test can test the mean values of 3 different populations?
ANOVA
62
What type of statistical test is used to analyze the mean of one group at 2 different times?
Dependent t-test
63
What type of statistical test is used to analyze the mean in 2 groups at one time?
Independent t-test
64
What type of test is used to compare 2 categorical variables?
Chi-2 test
65
What type of test is used when the distribution is abnormal, as occurs with known confounders, systematic error, small sample size or true coincident error?
Wilcoxon's test
66
In Gaussian distribution, the ___________ is always between the _________ & the _____________
Median is always between the mean and the mode.
67
T/F PPV is dependent on disease prevalence.
True
68
The key enzyme in fatty acid synthesis
ACC
69
What kind of diet is recommended for PDH deficiency?
Ketogenic diet; lysine & leucine
70
Ketogenic AA's
Lysine and Leucine
71
Ketogenic & Glucogenic AA's
Phe, Isoleucine, Tryptophan
72
The first step of heme synthesis requires what cofactor?
ALAS; require B6 (induced by ETOH, barbituates and hypoxia) -- stopped by heme
73
Lead inhibits which two enzymes in the synthesis of heme?
ALADH & Ferrochelatase
74
Porphyria cutanea tarda involves which enzyme?
Uroporphyrinogen DC
75
ECM cross-linking of elastin involves what enzyme/co-factor?
Lysyl oxidase (Cu)
76
What are the differences between collagen and elastin?
Elastin: no hydroxylation, no triple helix
77
Aldose reductase vs. Aldolase B
Aldose reductase: involved in sorbitol metabolism
| Aldolase B: involved in fructose metabolism
78
Can galactose form lactose?
Yes; UDP-galactose --lactose synthase--> lactose --beta-galactosidase--> galactose
79
What is the enzyme only present in the liver that can metabolize glycerol into glycolytic and GNG precursors?
Glycerol kinase
80
A cell with a well-developed SER must be involved in...
Steroid synthesis
81
HOMEOBOX genes
Highly conserved DNA sequences that are transcription factors important to morphogenesis
82
What lysosomal degradation disease results in burning neuropathic pain and renal failure? What is the enzyme deficient and substrate that builds up?
Fabry's disease
| * alpha-galactosidase; ceremide trihexide builds up
83
What are the 5 intracellular signalling molecules involved in growth factor signalling?
```
MAP Kinase
MTOR
IP3
cAMP
JAK/STAT
```
84
Enzymes requiring B1 as a co-factor
PDH, alpha-KG DH, transketolase
85
What disease results from a defective absorption of neutral AA's, i.e. tryptophan?
Hartnup's disease (NAD, serotonin, melatonin)
86
Tocopherol is another name for what vitamin?
Vitamin E
87
The first 2 enzymes involved in the breakdown of RBC heme.
Heme oxygenase; biliverdin reductase
88
Cancer therapeutic irradiation leads to tumor shrinkage through...
DNA ds breaks
89
What vitamin deficiency results in perifollicular hemorrrhages and coiled (corkscrew) hairs?
Vitamin C
90
TK or no TK: GH and prolactin
No tyrosine kinase
91
Pyruvate carboxylase requires which co-factor?
Biotin
92
rRNA is synthesized in the...
Nucleolus
93
Mamillary body necrosis in an alcoholic is a result of deficiency of what vitamin?
Vitamin B1 (Wernicke Korsakoff)
94
What is used as an anti-dote to poisoning with a substance that causes cutaneous flushing, nausea/vomiting, headache, confusion and weakness?
CN; Amyl nitrate
95
HNPCC is an ____ (inheritance) condition that results from defective
AD; MMR
96
What condition results from an inability to repair UV damaged DNA? What is the inheritance?
XP; AR
97
What is the starting material for purine synthesis vs. pyrimidine synthesis?
Purine: ribose-5-phosphase and PRPP
Pyr: CP
98
What AA's and co-factor are required for purine synthesis?
Glycine, glutamine, aspartate; THF
99
Azathioprine/6-MP inhibits which enzyme?
PRPP aminotransferase
100
MMF inhibits which enzyme?
IMP DH
101
What deficiency leads to accumulation of carbamoyl phosphate and orotic aciduria, megaloblastic anemia and hyperammonemia? What about no hyperammonenmia?
Hyerammonemia: OTC deficiency
| No hyperammonemia: Orotic aciduria (UMP synthase)
102
Hydroxyurea inhibits which enzyme?
Ribonucleotide reductase (UMP to UDP in pyrimidine syntheiss)
103
5-FU inhibits which enzyme?
Thymidylate synthase
104
Trimethoprim/MTX inhibits which enzyme?
DHFR
105
Why does ADA deficiency result in decreased pyrimidine synthesis?
Excess ATP inhibits ribonucleotide reductase
106
Which CTX drugs must be adjusted if used in conjunction with allopurinol?
AZA/6-MP
107
Probenicid and high/low dose salicylates can increase/decrease uric acid excretion?
High doses; increase
108
In addition to allopurinol, which drug can also inhibit xanthine oxidase?
Febuxostat
109
Which drug binds to and stabilizes tubulin to inhibit polymerization, ultimately results in impaired WBC chemotaxis and degranulation?
Colchicine
110
S blot
DNA
111
N blot
mRNA
112
W blot
Protein
113
In addition to tyrosine and L-dopa, BH4 is used to synthesize...
Tryptophan, serotonin and NO
114
What disease results from the inability to metabolize breakdown products of tyrosine?
Alkaptonuria (homogentisic acid oxidase)
115
Which vitamin is needed as a co-factor for dopa DC vs. dopamine hydroxylase?
Vitamin B6; Vitamin C
116
Arginine is a precursor to...
NO, urea, ornithine, creatine
117
Populations that consume corn are pre-disposed to...
Pellagra (Niacin is bound)
118
Where does ribose-5-phosphate come from?
HMP-shunt
119
The 2 enzymes involved in oxidative/irreversible HMP shunt?
G6PD, 6-phosphogluconate
120
T/F Cells can synthesize ribose from F-6-P and Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate even if oxidative HMP shunt is not working
True
121
HbA2 has which chains?
Alpha 2, Delta 2
122
The carboxylation of proprionyl coA uses which co-factor?
Biotin
123
The isomerization of methyl-malonyl coA to _________________ involves which co-factor?
B12; succs coA
124
The start codon...
AUG
125
The 3 stop codons...
UGA, UAG, UAA
126
When alanine is converted to pyruvate, who gets the amino group? What is the enzyme?
Amino group to alpha-ketogluterate which is then turned into glutamate (with B6); enzyme = alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
127
Excess egg whites can lead to a deficiency of what vitamin?
Biotin (B7)
128
Pyruvate --?--> Oxaloacetate
B7 (biotin)
129
What enzymes are involved in the following reactions: pyruvate carboxylase, acetyl coA carboxylase, proprionyl coA carboxylase?
B7 (biotin)
130
Breast milk does not include which vitamins?
Vitamin D, K
131
Which vitamin is used in transamination and decarboxylation reactions?
Vitamin B6
132
Because ETOH increases the amount of ______, GNG cannot take place
NADH
- - pyruvate --> lactate
- - OAA --> malate
133
The receptor for thyroid hormones is ....
Nuclear
134
Collagen synthesis: problems with hydroxylation vs. glycosylation.
Hydroxylation: Vitamin C
Glycosylation: OI
135
Differences between promoters and enhancers?
Promoters: TATA, CAAT boxes (25, 70-80 up-stream)
Enhancers: all over
136
OAA to PEP requires what cofactor?
GTP
137
HMP shunt takes place in cytoplasm or mitochondria?
Cytoplasm
138
Cholesterol synthesis takes place in cytoplasm or mitochondria?
Cytoplasm
139
Which apolipoprotein activates LPL?
Apo C2
140
Which apolipoportein is necessary for VLDL and chylomicron remnant uptake?
Apo E
141
Which apolipoportein is necessary for LCAT / cholesterol esterification?
Apo A1
142
Which bacteria contains a toxin that is lecithinase, also called alpha toxin?
C. perfringins
143
What is the treatment for Chagas disease?
Nifurtimox
144
What is the treatment for helminthe infections?
Mebendazole
145
Onccoceriasis is treated with...
Ivermectin
146
African sleeping sickness or Leishmaniasis is treated with...
Pentamidine
147
Which strain of E. coli does not ferment sorbitol and does not have a glucuronidase?
E. coli 0157:H7
148
Which strain of E. coli has a verotoxin?
SLT (inactivate 60s ribosome)
149
What is the difference between the two toxins of traveler's diarrhea?
E. coli: ST GMP
| E. coli: LT AMP
150
Which ETEC toxin is the cholera like toxin?
LT (heat labile)
151
Which strain of salmonella is associated with rose colored spots on the abdomen?
S. typhi
152
Which type of bacteria has a flagellar antigen: Enterococcus or Enterobacter
Enterobacter
153
Oval budding yeast with pseudohyphae
Candida
154
Fungus that branches at right angles.
Mucormycosis
155
To treat RBC malaria...
| To treat liver malaria...
Chloroquine/Mefloquin
| Primaquine
156
Schistosoma is transmitted via...
Snails
157
Echinococus is transmitted from...
Dogs
158
T/F Stronglyoides can cause a transiet pneumonia
True
159
Erythema infectiosum
Parvovirus B19
160
Hot tub folliculitis
Pseudomonas
161
Is pseudomonas motile?
Yes
162
The number one cause of acute bacterial GE
Campylobacter
163
How is Shigella transmitted?
Dirty hands, fomites
164
Who are the spore formers at high temperatures?
Clostridium and Bacillus
165
3 major viral causes of the common cold
Rhinovirus, Adenovirus, Coronavirus
166
2 vaginal conditions with pH > 4.5
BV, Trichomonas
167
The first viral antigen to rise in serum following HBV infection
HBsAg
168
Fungus: Multi-nucleated spherules
Coccoidies
169
Fungus: Ovoid cells within macrophages
Histoplasma
170
Fungus: Budding yeast with thick capsule
Crypto
171
Fungus: Pseudohyphae with blasto condidia
Candidia
172
Fungus: Septate hyphae with acute angle branching
Aspergillus
173
Fungus: Budding germ tubes at 37 degrees
Aspergillus
