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Step 1 Prep > UWorld Facts > Flashcards

UWorld Facts Flashcards

1
Q

PAS+ stain liver

A

A1AT

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2
Q

Prussian blue stain liver

A

Hereditary hemochromatosis

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3
Q

PSC leads to…

A

Cholangiocarcinoma

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4
Q

Which hepatitis virus can lead to fulminant hepatitis? HBV or HCV

A

HBV

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5
Q

What toxin is associated with H. pylori?

A

Vaculoating toxin

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6
Q

Uremia leads to what type of pericarditis.

A

Fibrinous

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7
Q

Acanthosis nigricans is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with which cancer?

A

Gastric ca

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8
Q

Central necrosis in a tumor is 2/2

A

ischemia and infarction

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9
Q

Subendocardial infarcts are 2/2

A

Hypotension

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10
Q

Number 1 cause of death in severe burn patients

A

Sepsis

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11
Q

Radiation at 300 rads will cause

A

BM toxicity

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12
Q

Radiation at 1000 rads will cause

A

Severe GIT toxicity

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13
Q

PTLD is associated with which virus?

A

EBV

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14
Q

In hemorrhagic disease of the newborn, which type of cell is most likely to be seen as nucleated on peripheral smear?

A

RBC

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15
Q

What is Richter syndrome?

A

Transformation of DLBL into an acute leukemia

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16
Q

Where is Nissl substance found?

A

RER of neurons

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17
Q

What (pediatric) disease is a/w fever, bilateral conjunctivitis, LAD, strawberry tongue?

A

Kawasaki’s disease; treat with ASA

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18
Q

Venous blood drains superficial to deep or vice versa?

A

Superficial to deep

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19
Q

Which virus integrates into DNA: HBV or HCV?

A

HBV (DNA virus with RT activity)

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20
Q

FAS activates the intrinsic or extrinsic pathway of apoptosis?

A

Extrinsic pathway of apoptosis

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21
Q

Chancre vs. Condyloma lata vs. Gumma

A

Primary, Secondary, Tertiary syphillis

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22
Q

What infection is implicated in granuloma inguinale?

A

Klebsiella

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23
Q

Donovan bodies

A

Klebsiella; granuloma inguinale

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24
Q

Candida in lymphopenic vs. neutropenic patients: superficial vs. disseminated infections

A

Neutropenic: diseminated
Lymphopenic: superficial

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25
Q

Acute rejection following kidney transplant

A

Dense mononuclear infiltrate of T cells vs. donor MHC

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26
Q

CD34

A

Endothelial cell surface marker

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27
Q

M. tb Langerhan giant cells are induced by what types of cells?

A

CD4+ T cell

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28
Q

What factors are important for SMC chemotaxis and interstitial collagen production in atherosclerosis?

A

TGF-beta; PDGF

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29
Q

Adrenal medulla releases 80% NE or E?

A

Epinepherine

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30
Q

An influezna vaccine would be most effective against neuramidase or hemagglutinin?

A

Hemagluttanin

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31
Q

In cryptorchidism, which cells become anergic: Sertoli or Leydig cells?

A

Sertoli cells [less inhibin released, high FSH]

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32
Q

Radio-opaque or Radiolucent: cholesterol stones

A

Radiolucent

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33
Q

Radio-opaque or Radiolucent: pigment stones

A

Radio-opaque

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34
Q

Radio-opaque or Radiolucent: all kidney stones (besides urate)

A

Radio-opaque

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35
Q

Radio-opaque or Radiolucent: urate kidney stones

A

Radiolucent

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36
Q

NF-2

A

B/L Schwannoma and meningoma

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37
Q

Hypopigmented spots, intellecutal disability, facial angiofibromas, astrocytomas and seizures. Disease & inheritance.

A

Tuberous sclerosis (AD)

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38
Q

Marco-orchidism

A

Fragile X syndrome

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39
Q

Pigmented iris hamartomas (Lisch’s nodules)

A

NF-1

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40
Q

Retinal hemangioblastomas

A

VHL

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41
Q

Selective COX-2 inhibitors are dangerous because …

A

They selectively decrease the amount of PGI2 formed from COX-1 and thus offset the ratio of PGI1 (anti-thrombotic) to TXA2 (pro-thrombotic).
* Increased thrombosis

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42
Q

AD hereditary disorder that predisposes patients to a number of neoplasms in breast, brain, soft tissue, bone, adrenal cortex

A

Li Fraumeni syndrome

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43
Q

AR disorder that results in accumulation of a lipid that appears brown when stained with toluidine blue

A

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

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44
Q

XLR disorder that can manifest as angiokeratomas and burning pain in the extremities

A

Fabry’s disease (alpha-galactosidase)

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45
Q

Excessive niacin supplementation can cause…

A

Facial flushing

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46
Q

The underlying pathophysiology in fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Inhibition of cell migration

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47
Q

When asked to calculate the incidence, what must you take into account?

A

The number of people that already have the disease

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48
Q

2 SD from the mean includes what % of the population?

A

95%

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49
Q

1 SD from the mean includes what % of the population?

A

69%

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50
Q

3 SD from the mean includes what % of the population?

A

99.7

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51
Q

What is the leading cause of death among people 65 years old and older?

A

Heart disease

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52
Q

A case control study uses OR or RR?

A

OR

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53
Q

An initial test for a disease should have high sensitivity or specificity?

A

Sensitivity

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54
Q

The leading cause of cancer mortality among men and women

A

Lung cancer

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55
Q

Leading causes of cancer morbidity by sex

A

Men: Prostate
Women: Breast

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56
Q

Most common cause of death in people 15-24 years old. Second and third most common causes?

A

Unintentional injury

  1. MVC
  2. Homicide
  3. Suicide
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57
Q

What type of bias occurs when patients in a study are not randomly assigned to a treatment group?

A

Selection bias

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58
Q

An example of this type of bias would be enrolling patients with metastatic breast cancer in a trial 6 months after diagnosis instead of immediately

A

Late-look bias [those with more severe disease died before detection]

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59
Q

An example of this bias would be a new cancer screening test that detects an incurable form of cancer 3 months before the patient becomes symptomatic.

A
  • Lead time bias

The patient’s survival would be “increased” by 3 months with the test; only because the disease was detected earlier.

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60
Q

What are the 3 most common causes of cancer death in men in the US?

A

Lung, prostate, colon

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61
Q

What parmetric statistical test can test the mean values of 3 different populations?

A

ANOVA

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62
Q

What type of statistical test is used to analyze the mean of one group at 2 different times?

A

Dependent t-test

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63
Q

What type of statistical test is used to analyze the mean in 2 groups at one time?

A

Independent t-test

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64
Q

What type of test is used to compare 2 categorical variables?

A

Chi-2 test

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65
Q

What type of test is used when the distribution is abnormal, as occurs with known confounders, systematic error, small sample size or true coincident error?

A

Wilcoxon’s test

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66
Q

In Gaussian distribution, the ___________ is always between the _________ & the _____________

A

Median is always between the mean and the mode.

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67
Q

T/F PPV is dependent on disease prevalence.

A

True

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68
Q

The key enzyme in fatty acid synthesis

A

ACC

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69
Q

What kind of diet is recommended for PDH deficiency?

A

Ketogenic diet; lysine & leucine

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70
Q

Ketogenic AA’s

A

Lysine and Leucine

71
Q

Ketogenic & Glucogenic AA’s

A

Phe, Isoleucine, Tryptophan

72
Q

The first step of heme synthesis requires what cofactor?

A

ALAS; require B6 (induced by ETOH, barbituates and hypoxia) – stopped by heme

73
Q

Lead inhibits which two enzymes in the synthesis of heme?

A

ALADH & Ferrochelatase

74
Q

Porphyria cutanea tarda involves which enzyme?

A

Uroporphyrinogen DC

75
Q

ECM cross-linking of elastin involves what enzyme/co-factor?

A

Lysyl oxidase (Cu)

76
Q

What are the differences between collagen and elastin?

A

Elastin: no hydroxylation, no triple helix

77
Q

Aldose reductase vs. Aldolase B

A

Aldose reductase: involved in sorbitol metabolism

Aldolase B: involved in fructose metabolism

78
Q

Can galactose form lactose?

A

Yes; UDP-galactose –lactose synthase–> lactose –beta-galactosidase–> galactose

79
Q

What is the enzyme only present in the liver that can metabolize glycerol into glycolytic and GNG precursors?

A

Glycerol kinase

80
Q

A cell with a well-developed SER must be involved in…

A

Steroid synthesis

81
Q

HOMEOBOX genes

A

Highly conserved DNA sequences that are transcription factors important to morphogenesis

82
Q

What lysosomal degradation disease results in burning neuropathic pain and renal failure? What is the enzyme deficient and substrate that builds up?

A

Fabry’s disease

* alpha-galactosidase; ceremide trihexide builds up

83
Q

What are the 5 intracellular signalling molecules involved in growth factor signalling?

A 
MAP Kinase
MTOR
IP3
cAMP
JAK/STAT
84
Q

Enzymes requiring B1 as a co-factor

A

PDH, alpha-KG DH, transketolase

85
Q

What disease results from a defective absorption of neutral AA’s, i.e. tryptophan?

A

Hartnup’s disease (NAD, serotonin, melatonin)

86
Q

Tocopherol is another name for what vitamin?

A

Vitamin E

87
Q

The first 2 enzymes involved in the breakdown of RBC heme.

A

Heme oxygenase; biliverdin reductase

88
Q

Cancer therapeutic irradiation leads to tumor shrinkage through…

A

DNA ds breaks

89
Q

What vitamin deficiency results in perifollicular hemorrrhages and coiled (corkscrew) hairs?

A

Vitamin C

90
Q

TK or no TK: GH and prolactin

A

No tyrosine kinase

91
Q

Pyruvate carboxylase requires which co-factor?

A

Biotin

92
Q

rRNA is synthesized in the…

A

Nucleolus

93
Q

Mamillary body necrosis in an alcoholic is a result of deficiency of what vitamin?

A

Vitamin B1 (Wernicke Korsakoff)

94
Q

What is used as an anti-dote to poisoning with a substance that causes cutaneous flushing, nausea/vomiting, headache, confusion and weakness?

A

CN; Amyl nitrate

95
Q

HNPCC is an ____ (inheritance) condition that results from defective

A

AD; MMR

96
Q

What condition results from an inability to repair UV damaged DNA? What is the inheritance?

A

XP; AR

97
Q

What is the starting material for purine synthesis vs. pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Purine: ribose-5-phosphase and PRPP
Pyr: CP

98
Q

What AA’s and co-factor are required for purine synthesis?

A

Glycine, glutamine, aspartate; THF

99
Q

Azathioprine/6-MP inhibits which enzyme?

A

PRPP aminotransferase

100
Q

MMF inhibits which enzyme?

A

IMP DH

101
Q

What deficiency leads to accumulation of carbamoyl phosphate and orotic aciduria, megaloblastic anemia and hyperammonemia? What about no hyperammonenmia?

A

Hyerammonemia: OTC deficiency

No hyperammonemia: Orotic aciduria (UMP synthase)

102
Q

Hydroxyurea inhibits which enzyme?

A

Ribonucleotide reductase (UMP to UDP in pyrimidine syntheiss)

103
Q

5-FU inhibits which enzyme?

A

Thymidylate synthase

104
Q

Trimethoprim/MTX inhibits which enzyme?

A

DHFR

105
Q

Why does ADA deficiency result in decreased pyrimidine synthesis?

A

Excess ATP inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

106
Q

Which CTX drugs must be adjusted if used in conjunction with allopurinol?

A

AZA/6-MP

107
Q

Probenicid and high/low dose salicylates can increase/decrease uric acid excretion?

A

High doses; increase

108
Q

In addition to allopurinol, which drug can also inhibit xanthine oxidase?

A

Febuxostat

109
Q

Which drug binds to and stabilizes tubulin to inhibit polymerization, ultimately results in impaired WBC chemotaxis and degranulation?

A

Colchicine

110
Q

S blot

A

DNA

111
Q

N blot

A

mRNA

112
Q

W blot

A

Protein

113
Q

In addition to tyrosine and L-dopa, BH4 is used to synthesize…

A

Tryptophan, serotonin and NO

114
Q

What disease results from the inability to metabolize breakdown products of tyrosine?

A

Alkaptonuria (homogentisic acid oxidase)

115
Q

Which vitamin is needed as a co-factor for dopa DC vs. dopamine hydroxylase?

A

Vitamin B6; Vitamin C

116
Q

Arginine is a precursor to…

A

NO, urea, ornithine, creatine

117
Q

Populations that consume corn are pre-disposed to…

A

Pellagra (Niacin is bound)

118
Q

Where does ribose-5-phosphate come from?

A

HMP-shunt

119
Q

The 2 enzymes involved in oxidative/irreversible HMP shunt?

A

G6PD, 6-phosphogluconate

120
Q

T/F Cells can synthesize ribose from F-6-P and Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate even if oxidative HMP shunt is not working

A

True

121
Q

HbA2 has which chains?

A

Alpha 2, Delta 2

122
Q

The carboxylation of proprionyl coA uses which co-factor?

A

Biotin

123
Q

The isomerization of methyl-malonyl coA to _________________ involves which co-factor?

A

B12; succs coA

124
Q

The start codon…

A

AUG

125
Q

The 3 stop codons…

A

UGA, UAG, UAA

126
Q

When alanine is converted to pyruvate, who gets the amino group? What is the enzyme?

A

Amino group to alpha-ketogluterate which is then turned into glutamate (with B6); enzyme = alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

127
Q

Excess egg whites can lead to a deficiency of what vitamin?

A

Biotin (B7)

128
Q

Pyruvate –?–> Oxaloacetate

A

B7 (biotin)

129
Q

What enzymes are involved in the following reactions: pyruvate carboxylase, acetyl coA carboxylase, proprionyl coA carboxylase?

A

B7 (biotin)

130
Q

Breast milk does not include which vitamins?

A

Vitamin D, K

131
Q

Which vitamin is used in transamination and decarboxylation reactions?

A

Vitamin B6

132
Q

Because ETOH increases the amount of ______, GNG cannot take place

A

NADH

    • pyruvate –> lactate
    • OAA –> malate
133
Q

The receptor for thyroid hormones is ….

A

Nuclear

134
Q

Collagen synthesis: problems with hydroxylation vs. glycosylation.

A

Hydroxylation: Vitamin C
Glycosylation: OI

135
Q

Differences between promoters and enhancers?

A

Promoters: TATA, CAAT boxes (25, 70-80 up-stream)
Enhancers: all over

136
Q

OAA to PEP requires what cofactor?

A

GTP

137
Q

HMP shunt takes place in cytoplasm or mitochondria?

A

Cytoplasm

138
Q

Cholesterol synthesis takes place in cytoplasm or mitochondria?

A

Cytoplasm

139
Q

Which apolipoprotein activates LPL?

A

Apo C2

140
Q

Which apolipoportein is necessary for VLDL and chylomicron remnant uptake?

A

Apo E

141
Q

Which apolipoportein is necessary for LCAT / cholesterol esterification?

A

Apo A1

142
Q

Which bacteria contains a toxin that is lecithinase, also called alpha toxin?

A

C. perfringins

143
Q

What is the treatment for Chagas disease?

A

Nifurtimox

144
Q

What is the treatment for helminthe infections?

A

Mebendazole

145
Q

Onccoceriasis is treated with…

A

Ivermectin

146
Q

African sleeping sickness or Leishmaniasis is treated with…

A

Pentamidine

147
Q

Which strain of E. coli does not ferment sorbitol and does not have a glucuronidase?

A

E. coli 0157:H7

148
Q

Which strain of E. coli has a verotoxin?

A

SLT (inactivate 60s ribosome)

149
Q

What is the difference between the two toxins of traveler’s diarrhea?

A

E. coli: ST GMP

E. coli: LT AMP

150
Q

Which ETEC toxin is the cholera like toxin?

A

LT (heat labile)

151
Q

Which strain of salmonella is associated with rose colored spots on the abdomen?

A

S. typhi

152
Q

Which type of bacteria has a flagellar antigen: Enterococcus or Enterobacter

A

Enterobacter

153
Q

Oval budding yeast with pseudohyphae

A

Candida

154
Q

Fungus that branches at right angles.

A

Mucormycosis

155
Q

To treat RBC malaria…

To treat liver malaria…

A

Chloroquine/Mefloquin

Primaquine

156
Q

Schistosoma is transmitted via…

A

Snails

157
Q

Echinococus is transmitted from…

A

Dogs

158
Q

T/F Stronglyoides can cause a transiet pneumonia

A

True

159
Q

Erythema infectiosum

A

Parvovirus B19

160
Q

Hot tub folliculitis

A

Pseudomonas

161
Q

Is pseudomonas motile?

A

Yes

162
Q

The number one cause of acute bacterial GE

A

Campylobacter

163
Q

How is Shigella transmitted?

A

Dirty hands, fomites

164
Q

Who are the spore formers at high temperatures?

A

Clostridium and Bacillus

165
Q

3 major viral causes of the common cold

A

Rhinovirus, Adenovirus, Coronavirus

166
Q

2 vaginal conditions with pH > 4.5

A

BV, Trichomonas

167
Q

The first viral antigen to rise in serum following HBV infection

A

HBsAg

168
Q

Fungus: Multi-nucleated spherules

A

Coccoidies

169
Q

Fungus: Ovoid cells within macrophages

A

Histoplasma

170
Q

Fungus: Budding yeast with thick capsule

A

Crypto

171
Q

Fungus: Pseudohyphae with blasto condidia

A

Candidia

172
Q

Fungus: Septate hyphae with acute angle branching

A

Aspergillus

173
Q

Fungus: Budding germ tubes at 37 degrees

A

Aspergillus

Step 1 Prep (15 decks)

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