Pathology 2 Flashcards
Functional unit of ovary
Follicle
3 types of cells in the ovary
Oocyte, Granulosa, Theca
Which hormone stimulates the theca cells?
LH; androgen
Which hormone stimulates the granulosa cells?
FSH; converts androgen to estradiol
The 2 phases of the endometrial cycle
- Proliferative
2. Secretory
The corpus luteum primarily secretes
Progesterone
Bleeding into the corpus luteum
Hemorrhagic luteal cyst
Degeneration of ovarian follicles leads to…
Follicular cysts
Multiple follicular cysts in ovary due to hormone imbalance. Which hormone is increased the most?
PCOD; LH:FSH >2
In response to LH, theca cells produce
Androgen
Describe hirsuitism and obesity seen in PCOD.
Hirsuitism, estrone (peripheral conversion of androgen leads to obesity), negative FSH feedback b/c of high estrone and hence the follicle degenerates
Obese woman with infertility, oligomenorrhea, hirsuitism, insulin resistance (DM2), high risk of endometrial ca
PCOD
3 major categories of ovarian tumors
- Germ cell (oocyte)
- Sex cord stromal (G,T)
- Surface epithelial
Most common type of ovarian tumor
Surface epithelial
Surface epithelial tumors of the ovary are typically derived from…
Coelomic epithelium that lines the ovary
Single cystic ovarian mass with simple, flat lining arising in a pre-menopausal woman
Benign cyst adenoma
What is the name for tumors in between benign and malignant ovarian tumors?
Borderline
BRCA1 mutation carriers most classically p/w what subtype of ovarian carcinoma?
Serous cyst AC (ovary & fallopian tube)
Malignant ovarian ca assoc w/ endometriosis. Any other cancer to look for??
Endometrioid tumor (of ovary & endometrium!)
Malignant ovarian ca that contains urothelium.
Brenner tumor
T/F Surface epithelial tumors generally present late.
True
Useful serum marker for ovarian ca treatment/recurrence
CA-125
Germ cell tumors of the ovary typically present in women of what age?
Reproductive age
5 different types of ovarian germ cell tumors
- Teratoma (fetal)
- Embryonal
- Yolk sac
- Germ cell (dysgerminoma)
- Placental (choriocarcinoma)
Cystic ovarian tumor composed of fetal tissue derived from 2-3 embryologic layers
Cystic teratoma [B/L in 10% of patients]
Most common type of immature tissue in an immature teratoma
Neuroectoderm
The most common type of somatic malignancy that arises from a malignant teratoma
Squamous cell carcinoma of the skin
Cystic teratoma composed primarily of thyroid tissue
Struma ovarii
Ovarin tumor: large cells with clear cytoplasm and central nuclei; testicular counterpart is called __________. What is the serum tumor marker?
Dysgerminoma; Seminoma
Serum tumor marker LDH
Malignant tumor that mimics the yolk sac; most common germ cell tumor in children. Serum AFP is elevated. What tumor and what is seen on histology?
Endodermal sinus tumor
* Schiller-Duval bodies on histology (glomerulus-like structure)
Malignant-like proliferation of placenta-like tissue. Composed of trophoblasts and synctiotrophoblasts without villi.
Choriocarcinoma: small, hemorrhagic tumor with early hematogenous spread. High b-HCG; poor response to CTX
Response to CTX: gestational chorioca vs. germ cell chorioca
Gestational with very + response
Ovarian germ cell tumor with large, primitive cells; aggressive with early mets
Embryonal ca
Sex-cord stromal neoplasm of ovary that often produces estrogen [p/w estrogen excess]
Granulosa-theca cell tumor
Sex-cord stromal tumor of ovary that can produce androgen: hirsutism or virilization. What is the characteristic histology?
Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor: Reinke crystals [pink cells with crystals]
Sex-cord stromal tumor of ovary with fibroblasts. What is the KEY association?
- Fibroma.
- - Pleural effusion and ascites: Meigs syndrome
Kruckenberg tumor
From the stomach (diffuse – signet ring), breast (lobular), colon ca
Mucinous tumor of ovary vs. Kruckenberg
Mucinous: unilateral
Kruckenberg: B/L
Pseudomyxoma peritonei tumor is primarliy from
Appendix with ovarian mets
Implantation of fertilized ovum at site other than uterine wall; key risk factor
Scarring; endometriosis
* Common site: mpulla lumen
Spontaneous abortion presents at what week or before? Classic causes include…
20 weeks
* Chromosomal anomalies, hypercoaguable states (SLE), congenital infection, teratogens
Teratogens can lead to:
Until week 2:
Weeks 3-8:
After week 8:
Until week 2: spontaneous abortion
Weeks 3-8: malformation
After week 8: hypoplasia
Implantation of placenta in lower uterine segment (overlies cervical os)
Placenta previa
Separation of placenta from decidua prior to deliver; p/w 3rd trimester bleeding and fetal insufficiency
Placental abrutption
* Still birth
Placenta previa vs. abruption vs. accreta
Previa: Internal os
Abruption: Separation
Accreta: Myometrium
Improper implantation of placenta into the myometrium with little or no intervening decidua. p/w difficult delivery of the placenta and post-partum bleeding. Requires hysterectomy
Placenta accreta
What is the decidua?
Endometrium under the influence of progesterone
Pregnancy induced HTN, proteinuria and edema. Underlying pathophysiology
Pre-eclampsia; 2/2 abnormality of MF vascular interface in placenta [GEPH]
Pregnancy induced HTN, proteinuria and edema & seizures.
Eclampsia
What is the classic histologic finding in a pregnant woman with pregnancy induced HTN, proteinuria and edema.
Fibrinoid necrosis of placental vessels
Pregnancy induced thrombotic microangiopathy associated with pre-eclampsia
HELLP
Hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets
Risk factors for SIDS (1 month-1 year)
Stomach, smoking in households, prematurity
Abnormal conception characterized by swollen and edematous villi with proliferation of trophoblasts
Hydatidiform mole; uterus expands faster than normal / b-HCG higher than expected
Passing of grape-like masses through vaginal canal in 2nd trimester
Hydatidiform mole
Snow-storm appearance on U/S with absent fetal heart sounds
Hydatidiform mole
Partial vs. Complete mole
- Genetics
- Fetal tissue
- Villous edema
- Trophoblastic proliferation
- Risk for chorica
Complete
- Genetics: all from dad 46
- Fetal tissue: absent
- Villous edema: all!
- Trophoblastic proliferation: complete!!
- Risk for chorica: high risk!
What cells make beta-HCG?
Synciotrophoblasts
What is monitored to ensure adequate hydatidiform mole removal?
Beta-HCG
The key complication to screen for following a choriocarcinoma
Gestational choriocarcinoma
Do you see villi in a choriocarcinoma?
No
Secondary amenorrhea 2/2 loss of basalis of endometrium and subsequent scarring. What is the syndrome and what is the cause?
Syndrome: Asherman
Cause: Overaggressive D & C
Lack of ovulation; results in estrogen-driven proliferative phase w/o progesterone-driven secretory phase; common cause of dysfunctional uterine bleeding during menarche and menopause
Anovulatory cycle
Common cause of acute endometritis
Retain products of conception
Characteristic cell seen in chronic endometritis
Plasma cell
Arises 2/2 retained products, PID, IUD, TB
Hyperplastic protrusion of endometrium that p/w abnormal uterine bleeding. What is the high yield cause?
Endometrial polyp 2/2 AE of Tamoxifen
Endometrial glands AND stroma outside the endometrial lining p/w dysmenorrhea and pelvic pain
Endometriosis
3 theories of endometriosis
- Retrograde menstruation
- Metaplastic (Mullerian duct derivatives)
- Lymphatic dissemination (can see in lung!)
Common sites of involvement of endometriosis: **Ovary Uterine ligaments Pouch of Douglas Bladder wall Bowel serosa (gunpowder lesions) Fallopian tube mucosa
Ovary: chocolate cyst Uterine ligaments: pelvic pain Pouch of Douglas: defacation Bladder wall: urination Bowel serosa: Abdominal pain/adhesions Fallopian tube mucosa: scarring
Endometriosis in the myometrium is called
Adenomyosis
Does endometriosis increase risk of ovarian cancer?
Yes
Hyperplasia of endometrial glands relative to stroma is driven by:
Endometrial hyperplasia: ESTROGEN
- P/W post-menopausal uterine bleeding
Most important predictor for progression to carcinoma in endometrial hyperplasia
Cellular atypia
2 pathways of endometrial carcinoma. What is the classical histology of each?
- Hyperplasia: fat, young
* Endometrioid sub-type - Sproadic: skinny, old
* Atrophic [serous/papillary histology – psammoma bodies]
The sporadic pathway of endometrial cancer is driven by what mutation?
p53 mutations
Can sporadic endometrial cancer lead to psammoma body formation?
Yes
Psammoma body formation (4) cancers
- Papillary ca thyroid
- Meningioma
- Papillary serous ca ovary
- Mesothelioma
Benign proliferation of smooth muscle arising from myometrium in pre-menopausal women who p/w multiple, well-defined white whorly masses
Leiomyoma
Most common symptom of leiomyoma
Asymptomatic (can cause abnormal UB, infertility, pelvic mass)
Malignant proliferation of smooth muscle arising from myometrium; arises de novo in a post-menopausal woman; single lesion with nex/hemorrhage
Leiomyosarcoma
The neck of the uterus is called
The cervix
Endocervix, Exocervix epithelium; transformation zone
Endo: columnar
Exo: squamous
E6, E7 of high risk HPV
p53, Rb
T/F Phosphorylated Rb releases E2F
True
T/F Hyperphosphorylated Rb leads to unregulated cell growth
True
Secondary risk factors for cervical cancer (besides HPV)
Smoking, immunodeficiency
2 important cancers that can be caused by smoking [non-classically]
- Cervical
2. Pancreatic
Can HPV cause cervical AC?
Yes [not picked up by pap smear]
T/F Cervical ca can often p/w hydronephrosis
T
One of the most common causes of death in cervical ca
Renal failure 2/2 hydronephrosis
Abnormal pap smear is followed by…
Colposcopy and bx
2 major limitations of pap smear
- Not at transformation zone [false negative]
2. Does not detect AC
Quadrivalent HPV immunization covers against
HPV 6, 11, 16, 18
Focal persistence of columnar epithelium in the upper vagina is called ____________. What is the major risk factor?
- Vaginal adenosis
2. DES exposure in utero
Vaginal derivatives
Upper 2/3
Lower 1/3
Upper 2/3: Mullerian duct [cervix, uterus]
Lower 1/3: UG sinus
During development, the Mullerian duct’s epithelium (name it) is replaced by (name it)
Originally: columnar
Replaced by: st. squamous
Rare complication of DES-associated vaginal adenosis
Clear cell adenocarcinoma
Key complications DES daughters & mom’s
Daughters:
- Clear cell AC
- Pregnancy/gestational [smooth muscle problems]
Mom’s: BRCA
Malignant mesenchymal proliferation of immature skeletal muscle p/w bleeding & grape-like mass protruding from vagina or penis of child < 5 yo
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma (Sarcoma boytrides)
Embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma histology and IHC
- Rhabdomyoblast with cytoplasmic cross-striations
- Positive IHC for desmin and myogenin
Cancer from lower 1/3 of vagina goes to what LN
Inguinal nodes [UG sinus]
Cancer from upper 2/3 of vagina goes to what LN
Iliac nodes [Mullerian duct]
Cystic dilation of Bartholin gland usually unilateral and in the lower portion of the vaginal vestibule
Bartholin cyst 2/2 inflammation in a woman of repro age
Warty neoplasm 2/2 HPV 6, 11 characterized by koilocytic change
Condyloma accuminatum
How is HPV classfied into high and low risk?
DNA sequencing [6, 11 vs. 16,18, 31, 33]
Thinning of epidermis and fibrosis of dermis; leukoplakia with parchmant-like vulvar skin in post-menopausal .
Lichen sclerosis
Lichen sclerosis: any increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma?
Yes: slightly increased risk
Hyperplasia of vulvar squamous epithelium; leukoplakia with thick, leathery vulvar skin associated with chronic irritation/scratching
Lichen simplex chronicus
Lichen sclerosis vs. Lichen simplex chronicus
Sclerosis: thinning-parchmant, inc. risk
Simplex: thickening-leather, no inc. risk
Does vulvar carcnioma p/w leukoplakia?
Yes
What are the 2 pathways of vulvar carcinoma? What are the risk factors for each?
- HPV
- Non-HPV
* Long-standing lichen sclerosis
Malignant epithelial cell in epidermis of the vulva that p/w erythematous, pruritic, ulcerated skin that represents carcinoma in situ, but not necessarily underlying cancer
Extra-mammary Paget Disease
What is the DDX of extra-mammary Paget disease? What IHC stains can help you tell the difference?
Melanoma: PAS-, keratin-, S100+
Carcinoma: PAS+, keratin+, S100-
Goal of primary hemostasis & secondary hemostasis
Platelet plug; stabilize the plug
The step just prior to primary hemostasis is mediated by
Transient vasoconstriction [neural stimulation & endothelin]
VWF binds to
Sub-endothelial collagen & gp1b (adhesion)
VWF comes from
Platelet itself & endothelilal cells [Weibel Paliade body]
Weibel Paliade body contains
- P-selectin
2. VWF
2 mediators released by de-granulated platelets
- ADP (dense core granules) that promotes gp2b/3a expression
- TXA2 (COX)
ADP induces platelets to express
Gp2B/3a for platelet aggregation
Platelets link to one another through what molecule?
Fibrinogen
Four steps of primary hemostasis
- Vasoconstriction
- Adhesion
- Degranulation
- Aggregation
A pt w a disorder of primary hemostasis p/w
Mucosal (nose, cough, GI, hematura, menstrual) and skin bleeding [petechiae, purpura, eccymoses > 1 cm]; easy bruising
Severe thrombocytopenia can result in this worrisome complication
Intracranial bleeding
Do patients with qualitative disorders of platelets get petechiae?
No; only quantitative
What are the useful laboratory studies in a patient with bleeding?
Platelet count, bleeding time, blood smear, bone marrow bx
Autoimmune production of IgG against platelet antigens [most common cause of thrombocytopenia in children and adults]
ITP [Ab-bound platelets are consumed by splenic macrophages resulting in thrombocytopenia]
ITP in childrens vs. adults
Children: acute 2/2 viral infection/immunization and self-limiting
Adults: women of child-bearing ages; primary or secondary [SLE]; may cause tbopenia in offspring (IgG)
One of the most important secondary causes of ITP in adults
SLE
Lab findings in ITP
Low platelets; normal PT/PTT; increased megakaryocytes on BM bx
3 treatment of ITP (3)
- CS: initial
- IVIG (splenic macrophages start to eat the IVIG to distract them)
- Splenectomy: eliminate source of Ab and site of destruction
Pathologic formation of platelet microthrombi in small vessels
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia (Schistocytes); platelets are consumed
Any difference between a schistocyte and a helmet cell?
No
2 disorders (really one) in which microangiopathic hemolytic anemia is seen
TTP & HUS
Why are platelet thrombi formed in TTP?
Decrease in ADAMSTS13 enzyme: inability to de-polymerize & degrade VWF
Decreased ADAMSTS13 is usually due to
- Acquired Auto-Ab
2. Genetics
HUS is due to
Endothelial damage by drugs or infection
- E. coli 0157:H7 [verotoxin] in kidney and brain [exposure to undercooked beef w/ mucusy diarrhea]; also damages ADAMSTS13
Skin and mucosal bleeding, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, fever, renal insufficiency, and CNS abnormalities
TTP/HUS
TTP: neurological
HUS: renal
Lab finding differences between ITP & TTP/HUS
Same; TBOpenia, normal coag, anemia with schistocytes, megakaryocytes on BM bx
Treatment of TTP
Plasmapheresis and CS
gp1b deficiency & impaired platelet adhesion
Bernard-Soulier
* Mild thrombocytopenia with enlarged platelets
Genetic defect of gp2b/3a [platelet aggregation]
Thrombasthenia of Glanzmann & Nagelli
Genetic defects of platelet adhesion and aggregation
Adhesion: Bernard Soulier
Aggregation: Thrombasthenia of Glanzman Nagelli
ASA irreversibly inactivates
COX; lack of TXA2 impairs platelet aggregation
T/F Uremia disrupts platelet function
True: adhesion & aggregation
Activation of coagulation factors requires:
- Exposure to activating substance
- Phospholipid surface [platelet surface]
- Calcium
Clinical features of 2ndary hemostasis disorders
Deep bleeding into muscles and joints; re-bleeding 2/2 surgical procedures
PT vs. PTT
PT: extrinsic
PTT: intrinsic
Name the factors in both the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation cascades
12, 11, 9, 8 vs. 7 [10, 5, 2, 1]
What activates factor 12?
Sub-endothelial collagen [SEC]
What activates factor 7?
Tissue thromboplastin
Heparin monitored with
PTT
Warfarin monitored with
PT
Genetic XLR of Factor 8
T/F Can arise from a new mutation without any family hx
Hemophilia A
* True
Most common coagulation factor inhibitor
Anti-Factor 8
Mixing study to differentiate between Hemophilia A & Anti-Factor 8 Ab
Mix with normal: Hemophilia results in corrected PTT
Most common inherited coagulation disorder
VWF deficiency (AD)
Inheritance of most common inherited coagulation disorder
AD: VWF deficiency
Abnormal ristocetin test
VWF deficiency
Treatment of VWF deficiency
Desmopressin; increases VWF release from WP bodies of endothelial cells
Vitamin K gamma-carboxylates which coagulation factors?
2, 7, 9, 10, Factors C + S
Vitamin K deficiency occurs in which patient populations?
- Newborns (lack of GI colonization)
- LTM ABX therapy
- Malabsorption
In what organ is epoxide reductase present?
Liver
Effect of liver failure on coagulation is followed using: PT or PTT
PT
Platelet destruction that arises 2/2 heparin therapy is called:
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia: fragments of destroyed platelets may activate remaining platelets leading to thrombosis
Heparin complexes with… on the surface of platelets (Think HIT)
Platelet factor 4
Pathological activation of coagulation cascade: thrombosis and thrombocytopenia
DIC
DIC is 2/2
Obstetric complication, sepsis, AC [mucin], APML, rattlesnake bite
Which type of leukemia can lead to DIC?
APML
Decreased platelets, increased PT, PTT, decreased fibrinogen, microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, elevated fibrin split products
DIC
Product of lysed cross-linked fibrin
D-dimer (fibrin split product)
Two examples of excessive fibrinolysis.
- Radical prostatectomy (release of urokinase that activates plasmin)
- Cirrhosis of liver (reduced production of alpha-2-antiplasmin)
Alpha-2-antiplasmin
Inactivates plasmin (think cirrhosis)
DIC vs. disorder of fibrinolysis
Fibrinolysis: normal platelet count; increased fibrinogen split products; no elevation of d-dimers!
Symptoms very similar to DIC without elevated d-dimers
Disorder of fibrinolysis
Treatment of disorder of fibrinolysis
Aminocaproic acid
Most common location of a thrombus
DVT below the knee
Lines of Zahn & attachment to a vessel wall [what do these help distinguish]
Both features help distinguish a thrombus from a post-mortem clot
Lines of Zahn
RBC, fibrin, RBC, fibrin
Three major risk factors for thrombosis [Virchow’s triad]
- Endothelial damage
- Stasis: stasis or turbulence of blood flow (non-laminar)
- Hypercoagulable state
3 examples of stasis (Virchow’s triad)
- Immobilizaton
- Cardiac wall dysfunction
- Aneurysm
PGI2 and its vasoprotective effect
PGI2 blocks platelet aggregation
Anti-thrombin 3 inactivates
Factor 10 and thrombin
Thrombomodulin
Redirects the function of thrombin to activates protein
3 major causes of endothelial damage (Virchow’s triad)
- Atherosclerosis
- Vasculitis
- High levels of homocysteine
High levels of homocysteine can increase risk for thrombosis. Give several examples
- B12/Folate deficiency
2. Cystathionine beta synthase deficiency; Homocystinuria
Cystathionine beta synthase deficiency
Results in homocystinuria; characterized by vessel thrombosis, mental retardation, lens dislocation and long, slender fingers
6 major causes of hypercoagulable states (Virchow’s triad)
- Lack of protein C/S [Factors 5 & 8]
- Factor 5 Leiden
- Prothrombin 20210A
- AT3 deficiency
- Lupus anti-coagulant
- OCP
Increased risk for warfarin skin necrosis is seen in patients with
Protein C/S deficiency [increased thrombus formation because of uninhibited 2, 7, 9, 10]
The coagulation factors with the very shortest half-life
Proteins C + S [and hence an increased risk for the activation of factors 2, 7, 9, 10]
Mutated form of this factor that lacks the cleavage site for deactivation by proteins C & S
Factor 5 Leiden: most common cause of inherited hypercoagulable state
Inherited point mutation in prothrombin that results in increased gene expression and promotes thrombus formation
Prothrombin 20210A
In patients with an AT3 deficiency, what happens to the PTT when you dose them with heparin
PTT does not rise
An intravascular mass that travels and occludes downstream blood vessels
Embolism
Most common source of an embolus.
Thrombus
The histologic hallmark of an atherosclerotic embolus
Cholesterol cleft in the embolus
What type of embolus is associated w/ long bone fractures? What are the presenting features?
Fat embolus
* Dyspnea & petechiae on the skin overlying the chest
Decompression sickness can lead to…
Gas embolus: Nitrogen precipitates as you ascend; p/w joint and muscle pain [Benz] and respiratory symptoms [Chokes]
The chronic form of gas embolus is called…
Caisson disease: characterized by multifocal ischemic necrosis of the bone
T/F Laparacopic surgery can lead to a gas embolus
T
Why can an AF embolus lead to DIC?
Tissue thromboplastin in the amniotic fluid [squamous cells and keratin debris from fetal skin]
Keratin debris in the blood vessel of the lung of a female
AF embolus
Most common source of DVT
Femoral, iliac or popliteal vein
T/F Most PE is clinically silent
T
What % of PE cause pulmonary infarction?
10%
* Pre-existing CP compromise
T/F D-dimer is elevated in PE
T
What does gross exam of a PE demonstrate?
Hemorrhagic, wedge-shaped infarct
What type of PE leads to sudden death?
Saddle embolus
Chronic pulmonary emboli can lead to…
Pulmonary HTN
Systemic embolism usually arise in the… ? Where is the most common site of occlusion?
Left heart; lower extremities
Hb values for anemia in males vs. females
M: < 13.5
F: < 12.5
MCV values in different anemias
Microcytic: < 80
Normocytic: 80-100
Macrocytic: > 100
T/F Microcytosis is due to an “extra” division 2/2 decreased production of Hb
True: heme or globin
4 major causes of microcytic anemia
- Fe deficiency & 2. ACD
- Sideroblastic anemia
- Thalassemia
Lack of ____ is the most common nutritional deficiency in the world
Fe
Iron is consumed in heme and non-heme. Which is meat derived?
Heme & more readily absorbed
Fe is absorbed in the …
Duodenum; enterocyte
Transporter/key regulatory step in Fe absorption biochemistry
Ferroportin [no way to get rid of Fe] ** major site of absorption **
________________ transports Fe & delivers it to the liver and bone marrow macrophages for storage
Transferrin
Stored IC Fe in liver and macrophages is bound to…
Ferritin
Fe-deficiency anemia
* Infants, children, adults, elderly
Infants: breast feeding
Children: poor diet
Adults: M- PUD; F- Menorrhagia/Pregnancy
Elderly: Colon polyps/carcinoma; hookwork (developing world)
The 2 hookworms associated with Fe-deficiency anemia
Necator, Ancylostoma
Fe2+ or Fe3+: which is more easily absorbed? Why is this clinically relevant?
Fe2+ : maintained by the acidity of the stomach [decreased Fe2+ w/ GASTRECTOMY]
Stages of Fe deficiency
- Storage depleted
- Serum depleted
- Normocytic anemia
- Microcytic, hypochromic anemia
T/F The initial stage of Fe-deficiency anemia is normocytic
True
What is RDW?
The spectrum of size of RBC’s
- Low is normal
- High is abnormal
RDW in Fe-deficiency anemia
Increased
Increase/Decrease: Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin in Fe-deficiency anemia
Increased
Fe-deficiency anemia with esophageal web & atrophic glossitis. P/W Anemia, dysphagia and beefy-red tongue
Plummer-Vinson Syndrome
[redundancy of esophageal mucosa]
Chronic disease results in increased acute phase reactants. Which one of these is associated with ACD?
Hepcidin: sequesters Fe in storage sites; limits Fe transfer from macrophages to erythroid precursors; suppresses EPO production
Increase/Decrease: Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin in ACD
Increased
Treatment of ACD in cancer
EPO
First step in heme synthesis is RLS. What vitamin is a co-factor?
Succ CoA –> ALA
* ALAS / B6 *
Second step in heme synthesis.
ALA –> Porphobilinogen
* ALAD *
Ferrochelatase is located in what part of the cell?
Mitochondria
T/F If protoporphyrin is deficient, Fe remains trapped in mitochondria
True
What is the classical cell seen in sideroblastic anemia? Where is the Fe present?
Ringed-sideroblast [iron-laden mitochondria form a ring around the nucleus of erythroid precursors]
What special stain marks iron?
Prussian blue
Most common congenital defect in sideroblastic anemia?
ALAS deficiency
Acquired casues of sideroblastic anemia
EOTH, lead poisoning [ALAD, ferrochelatase], vitamin B6 deficiency
T/F Sideroblastic anemia is an Fe-overloaded state
True
Carriers of the thalassemia trait are protected against which species of malaria?
Plasmodium falciparum
The 3 normal types of Hb seen in humans.
HbA: Alpha2, beta2
HbF: Alpha2, gamma2
HbA2: Alpha2, delta2
There are how many copies of the alpha gene in Hb? What chromosome? What is the genetic defect in alpha-thal?
4 in Chromosome 16
* Gene deletion
1-4 genes deleted in alpha-thal. What are the clinical features of each.
1: asymptomatic
2: mild anemia with inc. RBC
[cis vs. trans] Cis is worse than trans, particulary for offspring in Asians [seen in Asians]
3: severe anemia (HbH)
cis vs. trans 2x alpha-thal
Cis is worse: Asians [offspring]
Trans: Africa
What is HbH?
Tetramers of beta chains. Seen on 3-gene deletion alpha-thal.
Hb Barts
Hydrops fetalis; tetramer of gamma. Lethal in utero.
Whereas alpha thal is 2/2 gene deletions, beta thal is 2/2
Mutations of genes: Ch. 11
[beta null vs. beta plus]
Mildest form of beta thalassemia
Beta - Beta+ (Mildest form of disease); target cells
The key finding in Hb electrophoresis in beta thalassemia
Increased HbA2, HbF
In beta-thal major, when does baby p/w severe anemia?
A few months after birth
Alpha tetramers are seen in alpha or beta thal?
Beta thal –> ineffective erythropoiesis
Why is there skull and facial bone abnormalities in patients with beta thal, i.e. crew cut X-ray & chipmunk facies?
Expansion of hematopoeisis into marrow of skull and facial bones; extramedullary hematopoesis with HSM; risk of aplastic crisis with parvovirus b19
Aplastic crisis vs. aplastic anemia
Crisis: Parvovirus B19 – erythroid precursors
Are target cells seen in beta thal?
Yes
Why do you see nucleated RBC’s in thal?
If there is extramedullary hematopoeisis & HSM, some of the RBC’s escape
Vitamin B12 passes its methyl group onto…
Homocystiene –> Methionine
How many lobes are there in hyper-segmented neutrophils?
> 5
Folate is obtained from green vegetables and fruits and is absorbed in…
Jejunum
B12 is obtained from animal-derived proteins. It is then cleaved from the proteins & complexes it with ____________ from salivary gland? How and then where is it absorbed?
R-binder
- Pancreatic protease cleaves, then binds with IF; absorbed in ileum
Years to develop B12 deficiency or B9?
B12 (strict vegan)
1 cause of B12 deficiency
Pernicious anemia
Other causes of B12 deficiency aside from pernicious anemia
Pancreatic insufficiency (R-binder proteases)
- Crohn’s or Diphyllobothrium
- Strict vegan
Sub-acute combined degeneration of spinal cord
2/2 methylmalonic acid; B12 deficiency
How do you differentiate between peripheral destruction or underproduction of RBC in normocytic anemia?
Retic count
Why are retics blue on peripheral smear?
RNA within cytoplasm
T/F Retic count is falsely elevated in normocytic anemia.
True (BM has not made any extra RBCs). Needs to be corrected * Mult by HCT/45
Why is 3% the golden percentage when considering normocytic anemia?
3% good marrow response (peripheral destruction)
Hemolyis: IV vs. EV
IV: within BV
EV: RES/macrophages liver, spleen, LN
In extravascular hemolysis, the following are broken down to:
Globin: AA
Heme: Fe, protoporphyrin
Protoporphyrin: UC bilirubin
What binds free Hb in blood?
Haptoglobin
Days after a patient presents with hemoglobinura, he can present with what in his urine?
Hemosiderinuria
* Hb taken up by PCT, destroyed and forms hemosiderin; PCT slough off
Inherited defect of spectrin, ankyrin, or band: RBC cytoskeletal membrane tethering proteins
Hereditary spherocytosis
Increased RDW with HS?
Yes
Increased MCHC with HS?
Yes
* Hb becomes more []’ed as cells get smaller
What is work hypertrophy of the spleen?
As splenic macrophages work to clear RBC’s in conditions, i.e. hereditary spherocytosis
Osmotic fragility test + in what disease?
Hereditary spherocytosis
Howell-Jolly bodies on blood smear
Post splenectomy [fragment of nuclear material remaining]
Treatment of hereditary spherocytosis
Splenectomy
Inheritance and genetic defect of SCA
AR mutation in beta-chain of Hv; normal glutamate (hydrophilic) replaced by valine (hydrophobic)
What is the underlying pathophysiology in HbS?
HbS polymerizes when deoxygenated; polymerizes aggregate into needle-like structures resulting in sickle cells [not covalent bonding; reversible]
Increased risk of sickling under what conditions…
Any protective medicine?
Hypoxemia, Dehydration, Acidosis
* HbF / hydroxyurea
Target cells in SCA?
Yes; redundancy of membrane
Massive erythroid hyperplasia in SCA?
Yes
Pathology in SCA is 2/2
- RBC damage
2. Irreversible sickling
Swollen hands and feet in an African American infant (dactylitis)
SCA: common presenting sign 2/2 vasoocclusive infarcts of bones
What patients have an increased risk of Salmonella osteomyelitis?
SCA
AA pt p/w chest pain, SOB, lung infiltrates often precpitipated by PNA
Acute chest syndrome / SCA
* Vaso-occlusion in pulmonary microcirculation
Most common cause of death in SCA adults
Acute chest syndrome
Most common cause of death in SCA children
Infection with encapsulated organisms
Can SCA p/w acute papillary necrosis?
Yes
What is the one area of the body most susceptible to damage in pts w sickle cell trait?
Renal medulla: extreme hypoxia, hypertonicity; microinfarctions; microscopic hematuria and decreased ability to concentrate urine
Metabisfulfite screen
Causes cells with any degree of HbS to sickle: both disease and trait
AR mutation in beta chain of Hb where glutamate is replaced by lysine. What do you see on peripheral smear?
HbC [ly-seeeeee-ine]
* Characteristic HbC crystals
Acquired defect in myeloid stem cell whereby GPI is no longer present in cell membranes. Results in…
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinura [breath shallow overnight, acidosis / activate complement]
DAF [c3 convertase] & MIRL protect RBC’s against complement ** GPI anchoring protein **
Is PNH genetic or acquired?
Acquired
Intravascular or Extravascular hemolysis: PNH
Intravascular
Sucrose test is used to screen for…
PNH: confirmatory test is acidified serum test of flow cytometery to detect lack of CD55 (DAF)
CD55
DAF (GPI-linked membrane protein)
Main cause of death in patients with PNH
Thrombosis: destroyed platelets release cytoplasmic contents into circulation inducing thrombosis of hepatic, portal or cerebral veins
Complications of PNH
Fe-aneima; AML
XLR disorder that reduces RBC t1/2 and renders cells susceptible to oxidative damage
G6PD deficiency
[h2o2 –> glutathione –> h2o]
* NADPH *
2 variants of G6PD
Mediterranean: marked reduction
African: Mild
Heinz bodies
Oxidative stress (infections, drugs, fava beans) results in (Hb precipitates) Heinz bodies in RBC’s that are removed by the spleen and then you get bite cells
G6PD: Intra or Extravascular hemolysis
Intravascular
Hemoglobinuria and back pain
G6PD deficiency
How do you screen for G6PD deficiency? How do you confirm it?
Heinz preparation; confirm w/ enzymatic studies – not during an episode, but afterward b/c during, all the bite cells will have been consumed
IgM vs. IgG AI hemolytic anemia
IgM: Cold, intravascular; fixes complement in extremities
* M. pna, Mono
IgG: Warm, extravascular / spherocytes (similar to HS)
* SLE, CLL, drugs (causes auto-Ab, i.e. methyldopa)
To diagnose hemolytic anemia
Coombs test
- Direct: Anti IgG Ab [are the cells already coated with Ih]
- Indirect: Does pt have Ab in serum?
What drug is associated with AIHA (warm)
Methyldopa
Schistocytes are the hallmark of…
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia [TTP/HUS, ITP, prosthetic valve, AS]
Malaria is transmitted by which mosquito?
Anopheles
Daily fever vs. QOD fever in malaria
Daily: P. f
QOD: P vivax, ovale
Empty fatty marrow; treatment?
Aplastic anemia; drug cesation, transfusion, EPI, GM-CSF, IS, BMT
Pathologic process that replaces bone marrow
Myelophthisic process
Myeloid stem cell can produce
RBC
Myeloblast (BEN-G)
Monocyte
Megakaryo
2 major causes of neutropenia
- Drug toxicity
2. Severe infection
Major causes of lymphopenia
Immunodeficiency (DiGeorge), high cortisol (apoptosis of lymphocytes), AI destruction (SLE), whole body radiation (most sensitive cell)
Most sensitive cell to whole body radiation
Lymphocytes
Neutrophilic leukocytosis
Bacterial infection, tissue nex, high cortisol
Cortisol and its effect on blood elements
High PMN [less adhesion of marginated PMN’s to endothelium], low lymphocyte
L-shift leukocytosis results in neutrophils with a decreased surface concentration of CD__
Immature, decreased Fc receptors [CD16]
CD16
Marker of mature WBC’s, decreased Fc receptors [CD16]
Monocytosis
Chronic inflammation, malignancy
Eosinophilia
Allergy, parasite, Hodgkin lymphoma (IL-5)
Basophilia
CML
Lymphocytic leukocytosis is seen in which bacterial infection? Think an unvaccinated child.
B. pertussis [lymphocytosis promoting factor]
EBV infection results in lymphocytosis with reactive CD8+ T cells
Oropharynx, liver, B cells
- Mono *
- LAD, splenomegaly (PALS), high white count with atypical lymphocytes
Which part of lymph node is hyperplasied in EBV mono?
Paracortex
Which part of spleen is hyperplasied in EBV mono?
White pulp; PALS (periarterial lymphatic sheath)
IgM heterophile Ab are positive with _____
Mono; Sheep or horse RBC
Can be negative with CMV
Definitive test for mononucleosis
EBV viral capsid antigen
Complications of mononucleosis
Splenic rupture, rash with PCN, dormancy of virus in B cells
Acute leukemia requires what percentage of blasts in BM?
> 20%
Hallmark marker for ALL
TdT (DNA polymerase marker)
Hallmark marker for AML
MPO (Auer rod crystallization)
Leukemia & Down Syndrome
AML: < 5 yo [megakary]
ALL: > 5 yo
B-ALL surface markers
CD 10, 19, 20
Patients with B-ALL have an excellent response to CTX. However, CTX does not cross several barriers and prophylaxis is required in 2 areas.
- Scrotum
2. CSF
t(12,21) vs. t(9,22) ALL
t(12,21): good PGX, more commonly seen in kids
t(9,22): poor PGX, more commonly seen in adults
T-ALL surface markers
CD2 thru CD8; do not express CD10
T-ALL p/w
Thymic mass in a teenager (Acute lymphoblastic lymphoma)
t(15, 17)
t(15, 17) = APML
- RAR receptor disrupted and promyelocytes acumulate; contain numerous Auer rods and hence increased risk for DIC
- ATRA causes blasts to mature
Acute monocytic leukemia p/w
Proliferation of monoblasts; lack MPO & blasts characteristically infiltrate the gums
Acute megakaryoblastic leukemia
Proliferation of megakaryoblasts; lack MPO; association with Down Syndrome before age 5
Myelodysplastic syndromes
Cytopenias with hypercellular marrow; abnormal maturation with inc blasts (20% blasts)
Alkylating agents; rads
Co-expression of CD5, CD20 leukemia
CLL: naive B cells; lymphocytes and smudge cells
Smudge cells
CLL –> LAD –> SLLymphoma
CLL complications
Hypogammaglobulimenia, AIHA, Transformation to DLBL
TRAP + cells
Hairy cell leukemia
* Splenomegaly (red pulp), dry tap, no LAD
Splenomegaly with expansion of red pulp and negative LAD and dry tap is seen which which leukemia?
Hairy cell leukemia
Hairy cell leukemia has an excellent response to what therapy?
2-CDA (ADA inhibitor)
Adenosine accumulates to toxic levels in neoplastic B cells
HTLV-1
ATLL; Cd4+ T cells
* Rash, LAD, HSM, lytic bone lesions with hypercalcemia
Lytic bone lesions with hypercalcemia & a rash
Multiple myeloma w/o rash, but also HTLV-1 with rash
Neoplastic proliferation of mature CD4+ T cells
Mycosis fungoides: rash, plaque, nodules
Pautrier microabscesses
Aggregates of neoplastic T-cells in epidermis in mycosis fungoides
Sezary syndrome
Characteristic lymphocytes with cerebriform nuclei in mycosis fungoides that spreads to the blood
Complications of MDS
Hyperuricemia, marrow fibrosis, acute leukemia
Basophils are characterizsticaly increased in…
CML
t(9,22)
CML; BCR-ABL fusion [oncogene] with increased TK activity; first line treatment is imatinib
Phases of CML
- Chronic: large spleen
- Acceleration: enlarging spleen
- Blast: 2/3 to AML, 1/3 ALL
[mutation in a pluripotent stem cell]
When CML progresses to acute leukemia, where is the mutation?
CD34+ hematopoietic stem cell
CML vs. Leukemoid reaction: LAP
CML: LAP negative
CML: basophilia
CML: t(9,22)
JAK2 kinase mutation drives which myeloproliferative disorders?
PV: blurry vision, thrombosis, flushed face, itching after bathing [mast cells]
& Essential thrombocythemia & MF
Treatment PV
Phlebotomy, hydroxyurea
PV vs. Reactive polycythemia
PV: EPO decreased
Reactive: EPO increased
OR RCC with ectopic EPO
Increased platelets seen in
ET, Fe-deficiency anemia
T/F ET rarely progresses to marrow fibrosis, acute leukemia, hyperuricemia
True: platelets do not have nuclei!
Why does MF have marrow fibrosis?
[JAK2] Increased megakaryocytes which produce excess PDGF
Leukoerythroblastic smear
Myelofibrosis [reticulin gates don’t prevent immature blood cells from leaving the spleen with extra-medullay hematopoesis]
Teardrop cell
Myelofibrosis
Malignant proliferation of plasma cells in bone marrow; most common primary malignancy of bone. What IL is characteristically elevated?
MM; serum IL-6 is high
Why does MM result in bone pain with hypercalcemia?
Neoplastic plasma cells activate RANK receptor on osteoclasts
M spike on SPEP. Which Ig?
IgG, IgA
Multiple myeloma most common cause of death
Infection
Rouleaux formation of blood smear
Multiple Myeloma
Free light chain circulating in multiple myeloma results in
Primary AL amyloidosis
Bence-Jones proteinuria
Free light chain in urine in multiple myeloma
Isloated M spike without MM signs/symptoms
MGUS
B cell lymphoma with monoclonal IgM
Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia; retinal hemorrhage, stroke, bleeding
Pentamer Ig
IgM
Acute complications of Waldenstrom Macroglobulinemia
Plasmapheresis
What are Langerhans cells?
Specialized dendritic cells found predominantly in the skin; derived from bone marrow monocytes and present Ag to naive T cells
Neoplastic proliferation of Langerhans cells
Langerhans cell histiocytosis: Birbeck (tennis racket) granules on EM
What cells are CD1a and S100+ on IHC?
Langerhans cell histiocytosis
Skin rash, cystic skeletal defects in an infant < 2 y.o. (Langerhan cell histiocytosis)
Letterer-Siew (Malignant proliferation of Langerhans cells)
General rules for the subtypes of Langerhans cell histiocytosis
- Person’s name = Malignant
- 2 names = child < 2 y.o.
- 3 names = child 3 y.o.
Skin involvement = malignant
Subtypes of Langerhan cell histiocytosis
- Letterer Siew
- Eosinophilic granuloma
- Hand-Schuller-Christian
Benign proliferation of Langerhans cells in the bone; classic p/w pathologic fx in adolescent; no skin involvement
Eosinophilic granuloma
Malignant proliferation of Langerhans cells p/w scalp rash, lytic skull defects, DI, exopthalmos in a child > 3
Hand Schuller Christian disease
Painless inflammation
Chronic inflammation, metastatic carcinoma, lymphoma
LAD involving:
Follicles, paracortex, sinus histiocytes
Follicles: RA, early HIV [follicles]
Paracortex: Viral [mono/EBV]
Sinus histiocytes: LN draining tx w ca
Cortex, paracortex, medulla of lymph node. Which cells?
Cortex: B cells
Paracortex: T cells
Medulla: sinus histiocytes
T/F Lymphoma forms a mass in lymph or extra-nodal tissues
True
Name the normal zones of the cortex of a lymph node
In the corex: Follicle, Mantle, Margin
Name the small, medium and large cell lymphomas
Small: Follicular, Mantle, Marginal, SLL
Medium: FL
Large: DLBL
t(14, 18)
FL; bcl2 over-expression
* Neoplastic small B cells p/w late adulthood and painless LAD
Treatment for symptomatic follicular lymphoma
Low-dose CTX or Rituximab
Complication FL
DLBL: p/w enlarging lymph node
Lack of tingible body macrophages in germinal centers of follices: follicular hyperplasia or follicular lymphoma
Follicular lymphoma
* They indicate active apoptosis
Expression of BCL2 follices: follicular hyperplasia or follicular lymphoma
Follicular lymphoma
t(11,14)
Mantle cell lymphoma (immediately adjacent to follicle); Cyclin D1 [promotes G1/S] – phosphorylates
Marginal zone lymphoma
MALToma
* Hashimotos, Sjogren’s, H. pylori
Most lymph nodes don’t typically have marginal zones, thus marginal zone lymphoma is associated with…
Chronic inflammatory states
BL of the jaw vs. abdomen
c-myc
- Jaw = endemic
- Abdomen = sporadic
t(8,14)
c-myc oncogene in BL
High mitotic rate and starry sky appearance on histology of lymph node
Burkitt’s lymphoma
Most common form of NHL; clinically aggressive
DLBL
Reed-Sternberg cells
Call in cytokines and drive the inflammatory response
- CD 15, 30
- Hodkins lymphoma
Reed-Sternberg cell surface marker
CD15, 30
Hodkin’s lymphoma subtypes
Nodular sclerosis: mediastinal mass in a young adult female
Lymphocyte rich (best pgx)
Mixed cellularity (IL-5, eosino)
Lymphocyte depleted: worst pgx (HIV)
Mixed cellularity HL
IL-5 production by RS cells; eosinophilia
Remnant of the mesonephric duct in the lateral vaginal wall.
Gartner duct cyst
Prolactin inhibits the release of
GnRH
GH adenoma: children vs. adults. What condition is usually present?
Children: gigantism
Adults: acromegaly
* 2 DM
Most common cause of death in acromegaly
HF
Lack of GH suppression with oral glucose is present in which pituitary disease?
Acromegaly
Treatment of Acromegaly
Octreatide, GHR antag, surgery
Common cause of hypopituitarism in a child
Craniopharyngioma
Poor lactation and loss of pubic hair 2/2 pregnancy
Sheehan syndrome
Central DI
2/2 ADH deficiency: hypothalamus or posterior pituitary
Nephrogenic DI 2/2 what drug?
Lithium
Hyponatremia, low serum osmolality, MS changes and seizures. Common causes
SIADH
- SCLC
- CNS trauma
- Pulmonary infection
- Drugs, i.e. cyclophosphamide
Medical treatment of SIADH
Demclocycline
Anterior neck mass; cystic dilation of thyrossal duct remnant
Thyroglossal duct cyst
Persistence of thyroid tissue at the base of the tongue; P/W base of tongue mass
Lingual thyroid
Differentiate between mechanism of increase in BMR vs. SNS activity in hyperthyroidism
BMR: Na-K ATPase
SNS: B1 adrenergic R
Heat intolerance vs. Cold intolerance: Hyper/Hypo-thyroidism
Heat intolerance: Hyperthyroid
T/F An elderly pt w hyperthyroidism can p/w afib
T
Hyperthyroidism: cholesterol and sugar (increased or decresed)
Hypocholesterolemia, Hyperglycemia [GNG/Glycogenolysis]
Pre-tibial myxedema & exopthalmos; explain the pathophysiology
Hyperthyroidism
* Fibroblasts with TSH R; secrete excess GAG’s
Scalloping of thyroid follicle is classically present in which disease
Grave’s disease
Thyroglobulin is derived from what AA?
Tyrosine
Peroxidation involves (thyroid)
Oxidation, organification, coupling of TG w/ I
Treatment of thyroid storm
PTU, beta-blockers, steroids
Does PTU block peripheral conversion of T4 to T3?
Yes
What is the classicaly cause of multi-nodular goiter?
Iodine deficiency
Mental retardation, short stature with skeletal abnormalities, coarse facial features, enlarged tongue and umbilical hernia in a child
Cretinism 2/2 maternal hypothyroidism, thyroid agenesis, dyshormonogeneetic goiter, I deficiency
The most important cause of dyshormonogenetic goiter.
Lack of TPO
Another name for hypothyroidism in an adult
Myxedema: weight gain, slowing of mental activity, muscle weakness, cold intolerance with decreased sweating
2 classic anatomic areas for myxedema in an adult
Larynx (deepening of voice)
Tongue (enlarged)
Can Lithium case hypothyroidism?
Yes
HLA-DR5
Hashimoto thyroiditis
Which HLA is associated with Hashimoto thyroiditis?
HLA-DR5
Anti-microsomal Ab
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
[markers of damage, rather than mediators of disease]
In what condition do you get chronic inflammation with germinal centers and Hurthle cells? Increased risk of marginal zone lymphoma?
Hypothyroidism (Hashimoto’s)
* Yes
Young woman with a tender thyroid
Subacute deQuervain granulomatous thyroiditis
Chronic inflammation with extensive fibrosis of thyroid that p/w hard-as-wood nontender thyroid. Complications?
Reidel Fibrosing Thyroiditis
* Involvement to local structures, i.e. airway
Anaplastic thyroid ca vs. Reidel Fibrosing thyroiditis
Anaplastic: old people
Reidel: young people
They key way by which you bx the thyroid
FNA
Benign proliferation of thyroid follicles surrounded by fibrous capsule.
Thyroid follicular adenoma
4 types of thyroid ca
- Papillary (LN, orphan Annie)
- Follicular (Blood)
- Medullary (calcitonin, MEN)
- Anaplastic
Major risk factor for the most common type of thyroid carcinoma
Papillary / exposure to ionizing radiation in childhood [radiated for severe acne]
Orphan Annie eyes with nuclear grooves & psammoma bodies
Papillary ca of thyroid
T/F In both follicular adenoma and follicular carcinoma of the thyroid, the tumor is surrounded by a fibrous capsule.
True! (Ca obviously invades capsule)
Can FNA be used to distinguish follicular adenoma from follicular carcinoma of the thyroid?
No
The 4 carcinomas that tend to spread hematogenously
- RCC
- HCC
- FC thyroid
- Choriocarcinoma
Calcitonin, amyloidosis: Thyroid cancer
MTC
MEN 2A & B are associated with which oncogene?
RET
3 major tissues that PTH acts on
- Kidney: PTH
- GIT: inc Ca and PO4
- Bone: clastic
Does PTH act on osteoblasts or clasts?
!!Blasts!!: RANKL –> RANKR (clasts)
Most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism
PTH adenoma
Osteitis fibrosis cystica is caused by
Hyperparathyroidism
Increased or Decreased: Urinary cAMP & Alk Phos in hyperparathyroidism
Increased
Is alk phos a sign of osteoblastic or clastic activity?
Blastic
Most common cause of 2 hyperparathyroidism
Chronic renal failure
* Excess serum phosphate binds free Ca
Alk phos in all hyperparathyroidism disorders is increased because
Increased osteoblastic activity
Causes of hypoparathyroidism
AI damage, surgical excision, DiGeorge syndrome
Trousseau sign vs. Chovstek sign
Chovstek: tapping facial n.
Trousseau: fill BP cuff, spasm
AD disorder associate with short stature, short 4th and 5th digits, hypocalcemia with increased PTH levels
Pseudohypoparathyroidism
* End organ resistance to PTH (Gs)
PTH is associated with Gs or Gq
Gs
HLA-DR3 & DR4 in the context of islet cell inflammation
DM1
Why does stress predispose a pt w/ DM1 to p/w DKA
Stress –> Epi –> Glucagon
Treatment DKA
Fluids, insulin, K
Amyloid deposition in islets
DM2
NEG of large/medium vessels and small vessels in DM
Lg/Med: atherosclerosis
Small: hyaline
Which cells in the body are particularly prone to osmotic damage? What is the key enzyme?
Schwann cells, pericytes of retinal blood vessels, lens
* Aldose reductase *
Episodic hypoglycemia with MS changes relieved by glucose
Insulinoma
ZES ulcers can extend into…
Treatment-resistant peptic ulcers; may be multiple and can extend into the jejunum
Achlorhydria, cholelithiasis, steatorrhea
Somatostatinoma [gastrin/CCK]
Watery diarrhea, hypokalemia, achlorhydria
VIPoma
Adrenal hormones are derived from…
Cholesterol
Why do you see muscle weakness with thin extremities in Cushing syndrome?
Muscle breakdown for GNG; storage for fat in face, neck, trunk
Why do you see abdominal striae in Cushings?
Cortisol impairs synthesis of collagen
Why do you see HTN in Cushing’s?
Cortisol increases alpha-1 R on arterioles
Immune suppression in Cushing’s syndrome is mediated by:
- Inhibit PLA2
- Inhibit IL-2
- Inhibits histamine release
Most common cause of Cushing syndrome
Excess CS: will shut down ACTH production and lead to atrophic adrenal glands
2 difference cells aldosterone works on in the kidney
- Principal cell: dumps K
2. Alpha intercalated cell: dumps H+
Most common cause of AR congenital adrenal hyperplasia
21-hydroxylase deficiency
* Clitoral enlargement in females/precocious puberty in males
Acute adrenal insufficiency
Waterhouse-Friderichensen syndrome * sac of blood * [lack of cortisol]
Chronic adrenal insufficiency
- AI destruction
- TB
- Mets (Lung ca)
A high yield cause of hypotension, hyponatremia, hypovolemia, hyperkalemia, weakness, hyperpigmentation, vomiting, diarrhea. Where is the primary malignancy?
Chronic adrenal insufficiency
* Mets to adrenal from lung
Why do you seen hyperpigmentation with excess ACTH?
POMC – > melanocyte stimulating hormone
Color of pheo?
Brown
10% rule of pheo
10% b/l, 10% familial, 10% malignant, 10% located outside of adrenal medulla [tihnk about wall of bladder]
Several causes of pheo
- MEN2A, B
- VHL
- NF-1
A ‘myelophthisic’ process that reduces normal hematopoiesis and leads to a peripheral ‘leukoerythroblastic’ picture with immature RBC’s and WBC’s in the peripheral blood, as seen here with nucleated RBCs and white cells even more immature than bands (metamyelocytes, myelocytes) on the smear
Metatstatic ca
AD impaired cartilage proliferation in the growth plate due to activating mutation of…
FGFR3; AD, thought most mutations are new
Short extremities with N size head and chest
Achondroplasia
IM ossofication vs. EC ossification: Achondroplasia
Achondroplasia: long bone growth problems / problems with endochondral ossification [long bones, cartilage replaced]
AD defect in collagen 1 synthesis
Osteogenesis imperfecta; multiple bone fractures, blue sclera and hearing loss [bones of ear]
Why are sclera blue in OI?
Exposure of choriodal veins
Inherited defect of bone resorption resulting in abnormally thick, heavy bone that fractures easily
Osteopetrosis
The carbonic anhydrase II mutation can lead to what disease…
Osteopetoris: lack of acidic environment required for resorption of bone
[acid down pipes can remove calcium]
Bone fractures, pancytopenia, vision/hearing loss, hydrocephalus and renal tubular acidosis
Osteopetrosis
Treatment of osteopetoris
BMT (monocytes)
Defective mineralization of osteoid
Rickets/Osteomalacia 2/2 low vitamin D
Pigeon breast deformity, frontal bossing, rachitic rosary [costo-chondro junction deposition of osteoid] and bowing of legs in a child
Rickets
Labs in osteomalacia, weak bones with increased risk for fracture
Decreased Ca, PO4
Increased PTH, ALP
Alkaline phosphate creates an acidic/basic environment for osteoblastic activity
Basic environment
Loss of trabecular bone mass that results in porous bone
Osteoporosis
3 determinants of peak bone mass
- Diet
- Exercise
- Vitamin D receptor
Is estrogen protective for bone mass?
Yes
Bone pain and fractures in weight bearing areas; bone density low in DEXA scan; normal labs
Osteoporosis
Treatment of osteoporosis
Exercise, vitamin D, ca, bisphosphonates, ERT, GC contraindicated
Imabalance between osteoblastic and clastic function: viral etiology. Name the disease, its phases and its characteristic histology.
Paget’s disease of the bone
- Clastic
- Mixed
- Blastic
- Sclerotic
- Cement lines / puzzle pieces / mosaic!
Etiology of Paget’s disease
Possibly viral
Isolated elevated ALP
Paget’s disease
Treatment of early Paget’s disease
Calcitonin, bisphosphonates
Complications of Paget’s disease
High output cardiac failure; osteosarcoma
Infection of marrow space and bone; usually occurs in children. What part of the bone does it seed in kids vs. adults?
- Osteomyelitis
Kids: Metaphysis
Adults: Epiphysis
Name the parts of bone.
Distal to proximal: EMD
Lytic focus of a bone surrounded by sclerosis on X-ray. How do you make the diagnosis?
Osteomyelitis
* Blood culture
Ischemic necrosis of bone / bone marrow 2/2 trauma, fracture, steroids, SCD, Caisson disease (N-emboli)
Avascular, aspectic necrosis
Classic example of Avascular, aspectic necrosis in bone of SCD patient
Dactylitis
Benign tumor of bone that most commonly arisies on surface of facial bones; can be associated with Gardner syndrome
Osteoma
Gardner syndrome
- FAB
- Neurofibromatosis retroperit
- Osteoma
Benign tumor of osteoblasts surrounded by rim of reactive bone; occurs in young adults and arises in cortex of long bones
Osteoid osteoma
Bone pain of osteoid osteoma is resolved with ___________. What does imaging reveal?
ASA; imaging reveals a bony mass w radiolucent (osteoid) core
Bone pain similar to osteoid osteoma that does not resolve with ASA
Osteoblastoma (Arises in vertebreae); > 2cm
Most common benign tumor of bone; tumor of bone with an overlying cartilage cap; arises from a lateral projection of growth plate
Osteochondroma
Overyling cartilage of an osteochondroma can transform into…
Chondrosarcoma
Malignant proliferation of osteoblasts; peak incidence in teenagers & elderly. Risk factors?
Osteosarcoma
* Familial Rb; Paget disease; radiation exposure
Osteosarcoma arises in what part of bone?
Metaphysis of long bones; distal femur/proximal tibia
Classic X-ray findings on osteosarcoma. Histology?
Drags periosteum off of the bone = Codman’s angle & hazy burst of sunlight
* Large pleomorphic cells producing pink osteoid
Bone tumor in the epiphysis of long bones (usually distal femur or proximal tibia) with soap-bubble appearance on X-ray. Locally aggressive and may recur.
Giant cell tumor
The only tumor that arises in the epiphysis of bone
Giant cell tumor
Malignant proliferation of poorly-differentiated cells derived from…. Arises in the diaphysis of long bones in male children. Onion-skin appearance on X-ray
Ewing sarcoma
X-ray appearance of bone tumor:
- Soap bubble
- Codman angle/rays of sun
- Onion-skin
- Soap bubble: Giant cell
- Codman angle/rays of sun: osteosarcoma
- Onion-skin: Ewing sarcoma
Ewing sarcoma is a malignant proliferation of cells derived from
Neuroectoderm
Small round blue cells of a bone tumor with tumor. Can resemble what conditions?
Ewing sarcoma = t(11,22)
- Bone swelling & fever = osteomyelitis
- Lymphoma
t(11,22)
Ewing sarcoma
Benign tumor of cartilage; usually arises in medulla of small bones of hand and feet. Malignant arises in the pelvis or skeleton
Chondroma vs. Chondrosarcoma
Cartilage tumors usually arise in medulla or cortex of bones?
Medulla
Usually, bone mets produce osteolytic, punched out lesions. The one exception is that produces osteoblastic lesions…
Prostate cancer classically produces osteoblastic lesions
Describe the anatomy of a synovial joint
Bone, articular cartilage surrounded by joint capsule/synovium that secretes hyaluronic acid
Degenerative joint disease
Progressive degeneration of articular cartilage; most often due to wear and tear. Additional risk factors (to age) include obesity and trauma
DIP & PIP stiffness, hip, lower spine, knees that worsens during the day
Degenerative joint disease
Eburnation of subchondral bone 2/2 disruption of articular cartilage with osteophyte formation (H+B nodes)
Osteoarthritis; Degenerative joint disease
HLA-DR4
RA
Synovitis leading to pannus
RA
* Inflammed granulation tissue. Leads to destruction of cartilage and ankylosis of joint
Pathologic features of RA
Ankylosis: fusion of joints Joint deviation (myofibroblasts) Disruption of cartilagel joint space narrowing, osteopenia
w/ fever, malaise, weight loss, myalgia
Morning, symmetric stiffness that improves with activity
RA
DIP is usually spared in: RA or OA?
RA
Central necrosis surrounded by epithelioid histiocyte: what type of nodule?
Rheumatoid nodule
Swelling of bursa behind the knee: OA or RA
RA
Pleural effisions, LAD, interstitial lung fibrosis: RA or OA?
RA
anti-Fc IgG IgM Ab
Rheumatoid factor
Several complications of anklysoing spondylitis
Uveitis, aortitis [AR]
Reiter syndrome
Arthritis, urethritis, conjunctivitis
* Young male weeks after GI or Chlamydia infection
Sausage finger or toe associated with psoriasis
Psoriatic arthritis
Infectious arthritis in an adult is caused by
N. gonorrohea
2 mechanisms of gout
Increased production urate, poor excretion
HGPRT responsible for
HX, G salvage [Lesch-Nyhann syndrome]
Podagra
Painful arthritis of the great toe [gout]
Why meat and ETOH can trigger gout?
Meat: DNA/RNA
ETOH: compete w/ urate at kidney
Chronic gout manifestations
Tophi, renal failure
Needle-shaped crystals with negative birefringence under polarized light
- Gout
Lay low = yellow
Parallel light = yellow
Pseudogout is 2/2 deposition of
Calcium pyrophosphate; rhomboid shaped crystals with weak + birefringence under polarized light
Inflammation of skin and skeletal muscle of unknown etiology (could be associated with carcinoma, i.e. gastric)
Dermatomyositis
Bilateral proximal muscle weakness [hair, stairs]; distal involvement; rash of upper eyelids [helioptrope], malar rash, red papules on elbows, knuckles and knees
Dermatomyositis
Malar rash that is not SLE; ANA+, Anti-Jo-1 Ab +
Dermatomyositis
Anti-Jo-1 Ab
Dermatomyositis
Perimysial inflammation (CD4) vs. Endomysial inflammaion (CD8)
Dermatomyositis [closer to the skin] / Polymyositis
Treatment of dermatomyositis
CS
Replacement of skeletal muscle by adipose tissue occurs in
XLR MD
The largest gene in the human genome
Dystrophin (anchors cytoskeletal to the ECM)
Proximal muscle weakness at 1 year of age with elevated CK
DMD
Death in DMD
Cardiac failure (or resp)
What NMJ disorder is associated with Thymic hyperplasia/thymoma
MG
Most common benign and malignant soft tissue tumor of adults. What is the characteristic cell in the malignant tumor?
Lipoma/Liposarcoma
*Lipoblast is characteristic cell
Cardiac rhabdomyoma is associated with what syndrome?
Tuberous sclerosis
Bening tumor of skeletal muscle
Rhabdomyoma
Most common malignant soft tissue tumor in children [think young girl]. What is the positive stain?
Rhabdomyosarcoma; rhabdomyoblast that is desmin+; H+N (vagina in young girls)
Derivates
Neural crest cells
Neural tube / wall
Lumen
PNS
CNS
Ventricles/SC canal
T/F Anencephaly leads to maternal polyhydramnios
True [absence of CNS swallowing]
Congenital stenosis of the channel that drains CSF from the 3rd to 4th ventricle
Cerebral aqueduct stenosis
Lateral –> 3rd ventricle
Foramen of Monroe
Congenital failure of the cerebellar vermis to develop. P/W massively dilated 4th ventricle with absent cerebelleum
Dandy-Walker Malformation
Congenital extension of cerebellar tonsils through Foramen Magnum
Arnold Chiari Malformation
Type 1: no symptoms
Type 2: hydrocephalus
* Meningomyelocele; syringomyelia
Cystic degeneration of the spinal cord; arises with trauma or Arnold-Chiari malformation. What level and what sensory loss?
Syringomyelia; C8-T1. Loss of pain and temperature [knocking out of anterior commissure]; also LMN +/- lateral horn
Sympathetic innervation to the face and its spinal cord association
Lateral horn of T1
Damage to the anterior motor horn 2/2 infection. LMN signs.
Poliomyelitis
Inherited degeneration of anterior motor horn. Inheritance pattern and disease
AR; floppy baby [Werdnig Hoffmann disease]
Degenerative disorder of upper and lower motor neurons (CS tract)
ALS
Anterior: LMN signs
Lateral CS: UMN signs
What distinguishes ALS from syringomyelia?
Lack of sensory impairment in ALS
What is the earliest sign of ALS?
Atrophy and weakness of hands
In familial cases of ALS, what mutation is present?
Zn-Cu SOD mutation
Degenerative disorder of cerebellum and spinal cord tracts; P/W ataxia w/ loss of vibration/proprioception, muscle weakness in LE and loss of DTR
Freidreich Ataxia
* GAA frataxin gene [cannot regulate Fe properly]
What is the underlying pathophysiology in Friedreich Ataxia?
AR unstable GAA repeat in frataxin gene; inability to properly regulate Fe
What is the disease associated with Freidreich Ataxia?
Hypertrophic CM
Leptomeninges consist of
Pia and arachnoid
Meningitis in neonates
GBS, E. coli, L. monocytogenes
Meningitis in children/teenagers
N. m
Meningitis in adults and elderly
S. pna
Meningitis in nonvaccinated infants
H. flu
What is the route of transmission of N. m?
Nasopharyngeal
What level do you do an LP?
L4-L5: level of iliac crest
Spinal cord ends at
L2
Normal glucose is approximately what percentage of serum glucose?
66%
Complications of bacterial meningitis
Death, hydrocephalus, hearing loss, seizures
Etiology of cerebrovascular disease
85% ischemia (focal, global)
15% hemorrhage
Global cerebral ischemia etiology
Low perfusion (atherosclerosis), shock, chronic hypoxia (anemia), repeated hypoglycemia (insulinoma)
- Mild
- Moderate: infarcts in watershed areas
- Severe
Describe mild, moderate and severe global cerebral ischemia
Mild: insulinoma
Moderate: infarcts in watershed areas
Severe: death
What histological layers of the brain are most susceptible to damage during global ischemia?
- End of ACA, MCA
- Pyramidal neurons of the cortex layers 3, 5, 6 = Cortical laminar necrosis
- Pyramidal neurons of hippocampus
- Purkinje layer of cerebellum
What is cortical laminar necrosis?
Areas of the brain most susceptible to damage during decreased perfusion: layers 3, 5, 6 of cortex (also pyramidal neurons of the hippocampus)
Focal ischemia of the brain results in…
Stroke (<24 h = TIA)
3 ways to develop an ischemic stroke
- Thrombotic [pale at periphery of cortex]
- Embolic [red]
- Lacunar [hyaline arteriolosclerosis – most commonly involves the lenticulostriate vessels]
Lacunar stroke
Ischemic stroke 2/2 hyaline arteriolosclerosis most commonly involves the lenticulostriate vessels
Lenticulostriate vessels arise from and supply the…
MCA / deep structures of the brain
Ischemic stroke leads to what type of necrosis?
Liquefactive; red neurons are early finding; PMN/microglial/granulation tx; results in a fluid-filled cystic space surroudned by gliosis
What is the earliest change (histologically) in an ischemic stroke?
Red/pink neurons [12-24 hours]
What are the 2 types of cerebral hemorrhage?
- Intracerebral
2. SA
Intracerebral hemorrhage is classisically 2/2
Rupture of Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysm as a complication of HTN; basal ganglia is the most common site
Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysm p/w
HA, nausea, vomiting, coma
LP with xanthochromia
SA hemorrhage
Most frequent cause of SA hemorrhage
Rupture of berry aneurysm; thin-walled saccular outpouching that lacks a media layer; most often located in anterior circle of Willis
What layer of a blood vessel’s wall is absent in a berry aneurysm?
Media
Lucid interval is seen in…
Epdural hematoma
Lethal complication of epidural hematoma
Brain herniation
Lethal complication of subdural hematoma
Brain herniation
Tonsillar herniation
Herniation of cerebellar tonsils through FM –> CP arrest
Subfacline herniation
Cingulate gyrus herniates under falx –> compress the ACA
Uncal herniation
Uncus of temporal lobe; CN 3, PCA, Duret hemorrhages
Duret hemorrhages
Consequence of uncal herniation
Inherited mutation in ezymes necessary for production or maintenance of myelin
Leukodystrophy
Deficiency of arylsulfatase; myelin cannot be degraded and thus accumulates in lysosomes
Metachromatic leukodystrophy
Deficiency of galactocerebroside B- galactosidase
Krabbe disease
Impaired addition of coenzyme A to LCFA; fatty acids accumulate damaging adrenal gland and white matter
Adrenoleukodystrophy
HLA DR-2
MS
AI destruction of CNS myelin and oligodendrocyte; seen in regions away from the equator
MS
Blurred vision in one eye, vertigo/scanning speech and internuclear opthalmoplegia
MLF
LP with lymphocytes, Ig with oligoclonal IgG bands and myelin basic protein
MS
Acute attack of MS treated with vs. LTM
Acute: high dose steroids
LTM: IFN-beta
Progressive, debilitating encephalitis leading to death. Due to slowly progressing, persistent infection of brain by what virus?
Mealses; SSPE
* Viral inclusions in gray /white matter
JC infection of oligodendrocytes p/w rapidly progressing neurology and death
PML; IS leads to reactivation of latent virus
PML vs. SSPE
SSPE: Measles [white and gray]
PML: JC virus
Focal demyelination of the pons that p/w locked in syndrome
Central pontine myelinosis; due to rapid IV correction of hyponatremia
Degeneration of gray neurons in cortex vs. basal ganglia
Cortex: dementia
Basal ganglia: gray matter
Degenerative disease of the cortex
Alzheimer disease
APP receptor broken down to a beta product which is then deposited as… [in the brain]
AB amyloid
Major risk factor for sporadic Alzheimer’s is…
Age, APOE4
APOE4 vs. APOE2 and Alzheimer’s risk
APOE4: higher number/increased risk
APOE2: lower/decreased risk
Early onset Alzheimer’s a/w
- Pre-synelin 1 [mutation] & 2
2. Down’ syndrome [APP on Ch. 21]
Presenilin 1 mutation
Alzheimers
Gross specimen of an Alzheimer’s brain
Diffuse cerebral atrophy, narrowing of gyri, widening of sulci
* Hydrocephalus ex vacuo [atrophy of brain 2/2 loss of parenchyma]
Hydrocephalus ex vacuo
[atrophy of brain 2/2 loss of parenchyma]
* Alzheimer’s
A neuritic plaque in Alzheimer’s
- AB amyloid (from APP)
- -can deposit around BV/cerebral amyloid amylopathy - Neuritic processes
NF tangles are seen in…
Alzhemier’s: intracellular / tau proteins (MTOC proteins)
Hyperphosphorylated tau proteins
Microtubular associated protein seen in intracellular accunulations in Alzheimers [hyperphosphorylated]
Multifocal infarction and injury 2/2 HTN, atherosclosis, or vasculitis
Vascular dementia
Degenerative disease of frontal and temporal cortex
Pick disease (tau protein aggrgates) * Behavior and language
NF tangles vs. round aggregates of tau proteins
Tangles: Alzheimer’s
Round: Pick disease
The striatum receives input from
Cortex and SN pars compacta; can send stimulatory or inhibitory signals to the cortex
D1 vs. D2 receptors
D1: increase stimulation
D2: decrease inhibition
Rare exposure to MPTP in drugs can lead to what disease?
Parkinson’s disease
Lewy bodys
Parkinson’s [composed of alpha synuclein]
Synuclein vs. Sineilin
Synuclein: Parkinson’s
Sinelin: Alzheimer’s
Early-onset dementia in Parkinson’s = (vs. late onset)
Lewy body dementia
Degeneration of GABAeric neurons in the caudate nucleus of the basal ganglia
Huntington disease
The striatum is composed of
Caudate & Putamen
GABA is a stimulatory/inhibitory NT
Inhibitory (GABAeric neurons and Huntington’s disease)
What structures sit just laterally to the lateral ventricles?
Striatum (caudate—-IC—-putamen)
Anticipation is due to…
Further expansion of the trinucleotide repeat during spermatogenesis
Chorea, athetosis, demention, depression, suicide
Huntington’s disease
Increased CSF that leads to dilated ventricles
NPH; can cause dementia in adults; LP releives symptoms
NPH vs. Hydrocephalus ex. vacuo
NPH:
Ex vacuo:
NPH triad
Dementia, gait instability, urinary incontinence [wet, wacky, wobbly]
The nerve fibers running along the ventricles
Corona radiata
Treatment of wet, wobbly, wacky disorder?
LP/shunt [NPH]
Arachnoid granulations
Drain the CSF
Degenrative disease 2/2 prion protein
Spongiofrm encephalopathy
PrP –> PrP SC
Beta-pleated sheet
- Pathologic / cannot degrade
- Spongy holes in white gray matter [intracellular vaculoes]
Etiology of spongiform encephalopathy
- Sporadic
- Inherited
- Transmitted
CJD is usually sporadic; but can arise due to exposure to prion infected human tissue
Human growth hormone; corneal transplant
* P/W rapidly progressive dementia a/w ataxian and startle myoclonus; spike-wave complexes seen on EEG
Spike-wave complexes on EEG
CJD
vCJD is related to exposure to…
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (mad cow disease)
Familial fatal insomnia
Inherited form of prion disease characterized by insomnia and exaggerated startle response
What 3 cancers classically metastasize to the brain?
Lung, breast, kidney
What cells in the brain form the blood brain barrier?
Astrocytes
Malignant high grade tumor of astrocytes; most common malignant CNS tumor in adults
GBM; crosses corpus collosum
GBM histologic hallmarks & IHC marker
- Large amount of necrosis
- Edge of necrosis/ pseudopallasading
- Endothelial cell proliferation
- GFAP + (derived from glial cell)
Most common benign brain tumor in adults
- Meningoma
Benign tumor of arachnoid cells; F>M; p/w seizure.
What receptor is expressed by meningioma brain tumor?
Estrogen receptor
Benign brain tumor with wholrled cells & psammoma bodies
Meningioma
Benign tumor of Schwann cells; IHC marker
Schwannoma, S100+, B/L NF-2
S100+ brain tumor
Schwannoma
Calcifed tumor in white matter of frontal lobe p/w seizure
Oligodendroglioma; malignant
Histology of oligodendroma
Fried egg
Most common brain tumor of chidlren p/w cyst + neural nodule on MRI
Pilocytic astrocytoma (benign)
Histologic hallmark of pilocytic astrocytoma
Rosenthal fibers
Malignat tumor derived from the granular cells of the cerebullum. Histology
Medulloblastoma [neuroectoderm]
* Arises in children; small, round blue cells w/ Homer-Wright rosettes. Poor pgx
Homer-Wright rosettes vs. Rosenthal fibers
HW: Medulloblastoma
Rosenthal: pilocytic astrocytoma
T/F A medulloblastoma grows rapidly, spreads via CSF and can p/w drop mets
T
Malignant brain tumor of children. Most commonly arises in the 4th ventricle; may p/w hydrocephalus
Ependymona
Homer-Wright rosettes vs. Perivascular pseudo-rosettes vs. Rosenthal fibers
Homer W: Medulloblastoma
Perivascuar pseudorosettes: Ependymoma
Rosenthal fibers: pilocytic astrocytoma
Tumor that arises from he epithelial remnants of Rathke’s piouch
Carniopharyngioma
Upward protrusion of the floor of the mouth
Rathke’s pouch = AP
T/F Craniopharyngioma is calcified on imaging
True
Hypospadias
Opening of the urethra on the inferior surface of the penis (ventral)
* Failure of the urethral folds to close
Epispadias
Opening of the urethra on the superior surface of the penis 2/2 abnormal positioning of the genital tubercle
* A/W Bladder extrosphy
Epispadias is a/w
Bladder extrosphy
Condyloma acuminatium
Benign warty growth on genital skin 2/2 HPV 6, 11 characterized by koilocytic change [raisin like nuclei]
Necrotizing granulomatous inflammation of inguinal lymphatics and lymph nodes
Chlamydia trachomatis [OIC]
* Heals w fibrosis and perianal involvement may result in rectal strictures.
LGV vs. chancroid vs. condyloma lata vs. condyloma accuminatum
LGV: C. trachomatis
Chancroid: H. ducreyi
CL: Syphillis
CA: HPV
Chlamydia serotypes
A-c: trachoma
D-k: UG + conjunvtivitis
L1-L3: LGV
Risk factors for SCC penis
High risk HPV (2/3); lack of circumcision
Precursor lesions to SCC penis
Bowen disease: shaft
Erythroplasia of queyrat: glans
Bowenoid papulosis: reddish papules
Bowen disease
Precursor lesions to SCC penis (shaft); in situ carcinoma – leukoplakia
Erythroplasia of Queyrat
Precursor lesions to SCC (glans) penis – erythroplakia
Bowenoid papulosis
Precursor lesions to SCC penis (reddish papules)
Failure of testicle to descend into the scrotal sac
Cryptoorchidism
1 congenital male reproductive abnormality
Cryptoorchidism
Complications of cryptoorchidism
Testicular atrophy w/ infertility [lower temperature] and increased risk for seminoma
Orchitis 2/2
Chlamydia D-K, Neisseria, E. coli, Pseudomonas, Mumps, AI
Hallmark of AI orchitis
Tubular granulomas (non nex)
Twisting of spermatic cord; leads to hemorrhagic infarction 2/2 congenital failure of testes to attach to inner lining of scrotum
Testicular torsion
Adolescent with sudden onset testicular pain and absent cremasteric reflex
Testicular torsion
Dilation of spermatic vein 2/2 impaired drainage. P/W scrotal swelling with bag of owrms appearance
Varicocele; usually left-sided with L- RCC
T/F Varicocele is seen in a large percentage of infertile males
T
Fluid collection within the tunica vaginalis; a/w incomplete closure of processus vaginalis (infants) or blocakge of lymphatic drainage (adults); transillumination +
Hydrocele
2 types of testicular tumors
- Germ cell
2. Sec-cord stroma
Are testicular tumors biopsied?
No – risk of seeding scrotum; must be removed via radical irchiectomy
> 95% of testicular tumors are categorized …
Risk factors
Germ cell tumor; ages 15-40
- Risk factors = cryptochidism and Klinefelter syndrome
- Divided into seminoma & non-seminoma
Dysgerminoma in the ovary. _____________ in the testes
Seminoma
Seminoma vs. Non-seminoma: Responds to radiation, metastazies late and has an excellent prognosis
Seminoma
Seminoma vs. Non-seminoma: Poor/variable response to treatment and metastazies early
Non-seminoma
Can rare cases of seminomas produce beta-HCG?
Yes
Homogenous malignant tumor of testicle with no hemorrhage or necrosis
Seminoma [lg cells with clear cytoplasm]
Malignant testicular tumor of immature, primtive cells that may form glands; hemorrhage w nex; agressive; CTX can result in differentiation [i.e. a teratoma]. Increased AFP/beta-HCG
Embryonal carinoma
Relief of pain with lifting tests
Positive Prenh sign: epididymitis (vs. torsion)
Can embryonal ca of testes form glands?
Yes
Most common testicular tumor in children. Serum marker? Histology?
Yolk sac tumor; AFP positive
* Schiller Duvall body
What can male chioriocarcinoma lead to? Why?
Hyperthyroidism or gynecomastia (alpha subunit of beta-HCG is similar to FSH, LH, TSH)
What is the one cancer (classically) that p/w a tiny primary, but massive secondaries?
Choriocarcinoma
Teratoma is benign or malignant in males?
Malignant
T/F Most male germ cell tumors are mixed.
T
Sex cord stomal tumors of testes
Leydig cell: androgen [Reinke cell crystals]
Sertoli cell: tubules
Most common cause of testicular mass in males over 60
Lymphoma; often B/L & usually DLBL
Acute prostatitis in young vs. old males
Young: C/Ng
Old: E coli, Pseudomonas
BPH is related to what hormone?
DHT
BPH occurs in what zone of the prostate?
Periuretheral
Treatment of BPH
Prazosin (alpha-antag), Tamsulosin; 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor
Risk factors for prostate AC
Age, race (AA vs. Asians), diet high in saturated fats
Most common location for prosate AC
Posterior periphery
Decreased % of free PSA in the serum
Suggestive of PRCA. Cancer makes bound PSA
T/F Nuclei contain dark nucleoli in PRCA
True
Gleason grading is based on architecture or nuclear atypia
Archictecture
Low back pain with increased ALP, PSA, PAP
PRCA (osteoblastic mets)
PRCA local disease treatment
Prostatectomy
Continuous GnRH analog used to treat PRCA
Leuprolide
Androgen receptor inhibitor used to treat PRCA
Flutamide
Type I HSR of the skin a/w asthma and allergic rhinitis
Atopic dermatitis (Eczema) * Pruritic, erythematous, oozing rash with vesicles and edema
Ezema usually involes
The face & flexor surfaces
Contact dermatitis irritants
Poson ivy, nickel (type 4 HS), detergents, drugs (PCN)
Comedones, pustules, nodules
Acne (Comedone = white/blackhead)
The pathophysiology of Acne
Excess sebum & keratin; P. acnes /lipases break down sebuml inflammation leads to pimples
What skin condition can isotretinoin be used for?
Acne (vitamin A derivative)
* Decereases keratin production
Well-circumscribed salmon-colored plaques with a silvery scale on extensor surfaces and scalp with pitting of nails
Psoriasis
HLA-C
Psoriasis
Psoriasis is 2/2
Excessive keratinocyte proliferation [ often in an area of trauma]
Acanthosis
Excessive epidermis
Parakeratosis
Nucleated keratinocytes
Monroe microabscesses
Collection of PMN’s in the S. corneum (psoriasis)
Elongation of dermal papillae contributes to what sign seen in psoriasis?
Psoriasis
* Pinpoint bleeding = Auspitz sign
PUVA treatment for what skin condition?
Psoriasis (psoralen + UVA light)
Pruritic, planar, polygonal, purple papules w/ reticular white lines on surface (Wickham striae) involving wrists, elbows and oral mucosa
Lichen planus
Inflammation at the dermal-epidermal junction is seen in what skin disorder? Saw-tooth appearance
Lichen planus
Lichen planus is associated with what virus?
HCV
Anti-desmoglein IgG
PV
Acantholysis
Separation of keratinocytes
Oral mucosa: PV or BP
PV
Blisters that rupture easily vs. those that don’t rupture easily
Easily: PV
Not easily: BP
AI deposition of IgA at the tips of dermal papillae that pw/ pruritic vesicles and bullae that are grouped
Dermatitis herpetiformis [celiac disease cross-reactive Ab]
HSR with targetoid rash and bullae; most commonly seen with HSV, but can be seen w infections, i.e. mycoplasma, PCN, SLE, malignancy
Erythema multiforme
Erythema multiforme with oral mucosa involvement and fever. What is the most severe form called?
SJS; TEN (2/2 ADR)
Benign proliferation of squamous cells in the skin p/w pseudocyts on histology and a raised, stuck on lesion; common in the elderly
Seborrheic keratosis [raised discolored, stuck on]
Leser-Trelat sign
Sudden onset multiple seborrheic keratoses; suggests and underlying carcinoma of GIT
Epidermal hyperplasia with darkening of skin (velvet-like); involves the groin/axilla; associated with insulin resistance or malignancy (gastric ca)
Acanthosis nigricans
Risk factors squamous and basal cell ca
Prolonged exposure to sunlight, albinism, xeroderma pigmentosum
UV- A, B, or C is most dangerous
UV-B
Xeroderma pigmentosum
AR: nucleotide excision repair pathway
[thymidine dimers]
Which skin cancer is surrounded by teleangectasias (w peripheral palisading)? Where is the most classic location?
Basal cell ca; upper lip
Additional risk factors for SCC skin
IS therapy, arsenic poisoning, chronic inflammation (scar from burn or draining sinus tract)
Upper lip vs. lower lip skin cancer
Upper: Basal
Lower: Squamous
Precursor to squamous cell carcinoma of the skin; p/w hyperkeratotic, scaly plaque on face, back or neck
Actinic keratosis
Very well-differentiated SCC of skin; develop rapidly and regresses spontaneously; presents as a cup-shaped tumor filled with keratin debris
Keratoacanthoma
Melanocytes are dervied from
Neural crest
Melain is synthesized in what organelle?
Melanosomes –> passed to keratinocytes
AI destruction of melanocytes
Vitiligo (localzied loss of skin pigmentation)
What enzyme defect in albinism?
Tyrosinase
What are freckles?
Small, tan-brown macules; darkens when expsed to sunlight; due to increased numbers of melanosomes
Mask like hyperpigmentation of cheeks A/W pregnancy and OCP
Melasma
Benign neoplasm of melanocytes
Nevus (congenital p/w hair)
Nevus vs. melanoma
Nevus: has hair growing from it
Junctional nevus
Grows along the dermal-epidermal junction [children]
Compound nevus
Nevus that grows down into the dermis
Intradermal nevus
Most common in adults
Junvtional vs. Intradermal nevus
Junctional: children
Intradermal: adults
Inheritance: Dysplastic nevi that may progress to melanoma
Dysplastic nevus syndrome: AD
Growth phases of melanoma & most important feature for mets
- Radial (horizontally) – low risk mets
2. Vertical (key feature for mets)
Subtypes of melanoma (4)
- Lentigo (radial - good pgx)
- Superficial spreading (radial - good pgx)
- Nodular (early vertical - poor pgx)
- Acral lentigionus: palms/soles in dark-skinned individuals; not related to UV light exposure
Superficial bacterial skin infection 2/2 S. aureus or S. pyogenes p/w erythematous macules that progress to pustules on face (honey-colored serum)
Impetigo
Deeper dermal infection 2/2 S. aureus or S. pyogenes p/w/ red, tender, swollen rash with fever
Cellulitis (surgery, trauma, insect bite)
Necrosis of SC tissue 2/2 anaerobic flesh eating bacteria
Necrotizing fasciitis: CO2/crepitus
Sloughing of skin with erythematous rash and fever
Staph Scalded Skin Syndrome [epidermolysis of s. granulosum / exfoliative A & B toxin]
SSS vs. TEN
SSS: S. granulosum
TEN: DEJ
Verruca on hand/feet is 2/2
Wart: flesh-colored papule with rough surface 2/2 HPV infection of keratinocytes
Firm, pink umbilicated papules 2/2 pox virus [bodies = inclusions]
Molluscum contagiousm