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Step 1 Prep > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3)

A

Target: CD3
Use: Prevent acute rejection

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2
Q

Digoxin immune Fab

A

Target: Digoxin
Use: Digoxin toxicity

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3
Q

Infliximab

A

Target: TNF-alpha
Use: Crohn’s, RA, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis

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4
Q

Adalimumab

A

Target: TNF-alpha
Use: Crohn’s, RA, psoriatic arthritis

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5
Q

Abciximab

A

Target: Gp2b/3a
Use: PCI; unstable angina

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6
Q

Trastuzumab (Herceptin)

A

Target: Her2
Use: Her2 overexpressing BRCA

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7
Q

Rituximab

A

Target: CD20
Use: B-cell non-Hodgkins lymphoma

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8
Q

Omalizumab

A

Target: IgE
Uses: Additional line treatment for severe asthma

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9
Q

Anti-nuclear Ab

A

Non-specific AI, SLE

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10
Q

Anti-dsDNA Ab

A

SLE

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11
Q

Anti-Smith Ab

A

SLE

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12
Q

Anti-histone Ab

A

Drug-induced SLE

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13
Q

Anti-CCP Ab

A

RA

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14
Q

Anti-centromere Ab

A

CREST

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15
Q

Anti-Scl-70 Ab

A

Scleroderma

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16
Q

Anti-DNA topoisomerase I Ab

A

Scleroderma

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17
Q

Anti-mitochondrial Ab

A

PBC

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18
Q

Anti-TTG

A

Celiac disease

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19
Q

Anti-GBM

A

Goodpasture’s

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20
Q

Anti-desmoglein Ab

A

Pemphigus vulgaris

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21
Q

Anti-microsomal Ab

A

Hashimoto’s

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22
Q

Anti-thyroglobulin Ab

A

Hashimoto’s

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23
Q

Anti-Jo-1 Ab, anti-SRP Ab

A

Polymyositis, dermatomyositis

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24
Q

Anti-SSA Ab (anti-Ro)

A

Sjogren’s

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25
Q

Anti-SSB Ab (anti-La)

A

Sjogren’s

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26
Q

Anti-smooth muscle Ab

A

AI hepatitis

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27
Q

Anti-glutamate decarboxylase Ab

A

DM1

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28
Q

c-ANCA (PR-3 ANCA)

A

Wegener’s (GWP)

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29
Q

p-ANCA (MPO-ANCA)

A

CS, Microscopic polyangiitis

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30
Q

HLA A3

A

Hemochromatosis

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31
Q

HLA B27

A

Psoriasis, AS, IBD, Reiter’s

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32
Q

HLA DQ2/DQ8

A

Celiac disease

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33
Q

HLA DR2

A

MS, SLE, Goodpasture’s, Hay Fever

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34
Q

HLA DR3

A

DM1, Grave’s

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35
Q

HLA DR4

A

DM1, RA

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36
Q

HLA DR5

A

Pernicious anemia, Hashimoto’s

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37
Q

Describe the different regions of a lymph node

A

Cortex = follicle (primary/secondary B cells)
Paracortex = T cells + HEV
Medullary cords = plasma cells + lymphocytes
Medullary sinuses = macrophages + reticular

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38
Q

Where in the lymph node are the high endothelial venules?

A

Post-capillary venules in the paracortex

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39
Q

What is the difference between a primary and secondary LN follicle?

A

Primary: inactive (dormant)
Secondary: Pale, germinal centers (active)

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40
Q

What is the difference between medullary cords and sinuses in a lymph node?

A

Cords: Plasma cells
Sinuses: Macrophages + reticular cells

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41
Q

Lymph drainage: upper limb + lateral breast

A

Axillary nodes

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42
Q

Lymph drainage: stomach

A

Celiac nodes

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43
Q

Lymph drainage: duodenum and jejunum

A

SM nodes

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44
Q

Lymph drainage: sigmoid colon

A

Colic / IM nodes

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45
Q

Lymph drainage: rectum (AP)

A

Internal iliac

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46
Q

Lymph drainage: anal canal (BP)

A

Superficial inguinal

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47
Q

Lymph drainage: scrotum

A

Superficial inguinal

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48
Q

Lymph drainage: superficial thigh

A

Superficial inguinal

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49
Q

Lymph drainage: testes

A

Para-aortic

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50
Q

Lymph drainage: lateral dorsum of foot

A

Popliteal

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51
Q

In what zone of the spleen are APC’s found?

A

Marginal zone (between red/white pulp)

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52
Q

What are the 2 major divisions of the spleen

A

Red pulp

White pulp w/ PALS & Follicles

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53
Q

What is the role of splenic macrophages?

A

Removal of encapsulated bacteria (i.e. SHiN SKiS)

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54
Q

Howell-Jolly bodies

A

Post-splenectomy

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55
Q

The thymus is derived from what branchial pouch?

A

3rd

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56
Q

Lymphocytes in the thymus are derived from what cell line?

A

Mesenchymal

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57
Q

Positive vs. Negative selection in the thymus

A

Positive: Cortex
Negative: Medulla

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58
Q

Where are Hassall’s corpuscles found?

A

Thymic medulla

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59
Q

NK cells are of myeloid or lymphoid origin

A

Lymphoid

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60
Q

NK cells use _________________ & __________________ to induce necrosis/apoptosis of virally infected and tumor cells.

A

Perforin & Granzyme

* Apoptosis

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61
Q

IL-2, IL-12, IFN-alpha & IFN-beta enhance the activity of…

A

NK cells

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62
Q

NK cells’ activity is enhanced by which cytokines?

A

IL-2, IL-12, IFN-alpha & IFN-beta

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63
Q

Which MHC pairs with beta-2 microglobulin?

A

MHC 1

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64
Q

Expressed on all nucleated cells: MHC1 or MHC2?

A

MHC-1

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65
Q

T/F MHC-1 expressed on RBC

A

False! No nuclei

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66
Q

MHC1 or MHC2: Antigen is loaded following release of invariant chain in an acidified endosome.

A

MHC2

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67
Q

HLA-A, B, C vs. HLA-DP, DQ, DR

Which is MHC-1 vs. 2?

A

ABC = MHC1

DP, DQ, DR = MHC2

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68
Q

In MHC1, Ag is loaded in what organelle?

A

RER

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69
Q

Cytotoxic hypersensitivity: T2 or T3 HSR?

A

T2

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70
Q

Hypersensitivity: IgM or IgG

A

IgG

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71
Q

Which Ig neutralizes virus: IgM or IgG?

A

IgG

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72
Q

Th1 vs. Th2 helper T cells: Il-12 vs. IL-4

A

Th1: Il-12
Th2: Il-4

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73
Q

Which are the only Ag presenting cells that have the ability to activate naive T cells?

A

Dendritic cells

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74
Q

The professional Ag presenting cells

A
  1. Dendritic cells
  2. B cells
  3. Macrophages
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75
Q

Co-stimulatory signals for T-cell vs. B-cell activation

A

T-cell: B7/CD28

B-cell: CD40L/CD40

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76
Q

Th1 cytokines are stimulated by… & inhibited by…

What do they secrete?

A

IL-12
Inhibited: IL-4, 10
Secrete: IFN-gamma

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77
Q

Th2 cytokines are stimulated by… & inhibited by…

A

IL-4
Inhibited: IFN-gamma
Secrete IL-4, 5, 10, 13

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78
Q

Activated lymphocytes release which cytokine?

A

IFN-gamma

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79
Q

Activated macrophages release which cytokines?

A

IL-1, TNF

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80
Q

Cytotoxic T cells release what 3 substances to induce apoptosis?

A
  1. Perforin
  2. Granzyme: serine protease / induce apoptosis
  3. Granulysin: antimicrobicidal / apoptosis
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81
Q

Anti-inflammatory cytokines, such as, _____ & _____ are released by activated T-regs.

A

IL-10 & TGF-beta

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82
Q

T-regs help maintain specific immune tolerance by suppressing CD4 & CD8 T-cell effector functions. They express which cell surface receptors?

A

CD3, 4, 25 (alpha-chain of IL-2 R)

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83
Q

CD25

A

Expressed on cell surface of T-regs

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84
Q

T/F In opsonization, Ab promotes phagocytosis

A

T

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85
Q

Antibody idiotype vs. isotype

A

Idiotype: Ag diversity
Isotype: IgG, IgM, etc.

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86
Q

Which chain contributes to both Fab & Fc component of Ab: heavy or light chain?

A

Heavy chain (Light chain only contributes Fab)

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87
Q

Complement and Macrophages bind to Fab or Fc portion of Ab?

A

Fc
Complement: CH2
Macrophage: CH2 & CH3

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88
Q

Mature lymphocytes express … on their surfaces

A

IgM & IgD

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89
Q

Mature lymphocytes may differentiate by isotype switching into plasma cells that secrete IgE, IgA, IgG. What interaction mediates this?

A

CD40/CD40L

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90
Q

Somatic hypermutation

A

Making the Ab’s even more specific for the Ag

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91
Q

Who crosses placenta: IgG or IgM

A

IgG

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92
Q

B cells have Ag receptor for IgG or IgM

A

Both!

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93
Q

Most abundant Ig

A

IgG

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94
Q

Least abundant Ig

A

IgE

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95
Q

Ig that is a monomer in circulation, but dimer when secreted

A

IgA

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96
Q

Ig that is pentameric when not bound to B cells

A

IgM

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97
Q

Ig that cross-links when bound to eosionphils

A

IgE

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98
Q

Ig part of colostrum

A

IgA

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99
Q

Role of tdt

A

Adds nucelotides for random recombination of VJ, VDJ chains during Ab maturation

100
Q

Thymus independent Ag vs. Thymus dependent Ag

A

Independent: Ag lack peptide component; cannot be presented by MHC to T cells (i.e. LPS from cell envelope of GN bacteria and polysaccharide capsular Ag). No immunologic memory

Dependent: Protein component (i.e. diptheria vaccine / class switching occurs)

101
Q

MAC of complement defends against G+ or G- bacteria

A

Gram negative

102
Q

What activates classical complement pathway?

A

IgM or IgG

103
Q

What activates alternative complement pathwat?

A

Microbe surface molecules

104
Q

What activates lectin complement pathway?

A

Mannose or other sugar on microbe surface

105
Q

The two primary opsonins.

A

C3b & IgG

106
Q

Role of C3b

A

Opsonization

107
Q

Role of C3a and C5a

A

Anaphylataxis

108
Q

Which complement component is an anaphylataxin and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis?

A

C5a

109
Q

What is the role of C5b-9?

A

Cytolysis by MAC

110
Q

Two inhibitors of complement activation

A
  1. DAF (CD55)

2. C1 esterase inhibitor

111
Q

C3 convertase: Classical pathway vs. Alternative pathway

A

Classical: C4b2a
Alternative: C3bBb

112
Q

C5 convertase: Classical pathway vs. Alternative pathway

A

Classical: C4b2a3b
Alternative: C3bBb3b

113
Q

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in what disorder of complemenet?

A

Hereditary angioedema (C1 esterase inhibitor)

114
Q

C3 deficiency results in…

A

Severe, recurrent pyogenic sinus and RT infections; increased susceptibility to type 3 HSR

115
Q

C5-C9 deficiency results in recurrent…

A

Neisseria bacteremia

116
Q

DAF (GPI enzyme) deficiency results in…

A

Complement-mediated lysis of RBC’s and PNH

117
Q

What cytokines are secreted by macrophages? What are their roles?

A 
IL-1
IL-6
IL-8
IL-12
TNF-alpha
118
Q

What cytokines are secreted by all T cells? What are their roles?

A

IL-2

IL-3

119
Q

What cytokines are secreted by Th1 cells? What are their roles?

A

IFN-gamma:

120
Q

What cytokines are secreted by Th2 cells? What are their roles?

A

IL-4:
IL-5:
IL-10:
IL-13:

121
Q

What is the mechanism of IFN?

A

Proteins that place uninfected cells in an antiviral state; unduce the production of ribonucease that inhibits viral protein synthesis by degrading viral mRNA, but no host mRNA.

Alpha, Beta: inhibit viral protein synthesis
Gamma: Increase MHC 1 & 2 expression
Activates NK cells

122
Q

All cells except for mature _______ have MHC 1.

A

RBC

123
Q

Major chemotactic factor for neutrophils

A

IL-8 (and C5a)

124
Q

T cell cell surface proteins

A

TCR
CD3 (associated with TCR for signal transduction)
CD28 (binds B7 on APC)

125
Q

B cell receptor for EBV

A

CD21

126
Q

B cell surface markers

A

CD19, 20, 21, 40

MHC2, B7

127
Q

Macrophage cell surface markers

A

CD14, CD40
MHC2, B7
Fc, C3b receptors

128
Q

NK cell surface markers

A

CD16 (binds Fc of IgG), CD56

129
Q

What are superantigens?

A

S. aureus, S. pyogenes; cross link beta-region of T cell receptor to the MHC Class 2 on APC’s. Can activate any T cell leading to massive cytokine storm

130
Q

Endotoxins/LPS directly stimulate macrophages by binding to

A

CD14; Th1 cells are not involved

131
Q

Several examples of Ag variation

A

Bacteria:
Salmonella: 2 flagellar variants
B. burgdorferi: Relapsing fever
N. gonorrohea: Pilus protein

Virus:
Influenza shift/drift

Parasite:
Trypanosomes - programmed rearrangement

132
Q

Infuenza major shift

A

DNA rearrangement and RNA reassortment

133
Q

Difference between antigenic drift and shift

A

Drift: minor over time
Shift: major over short period of time

134
Q

Role of IL1-5

A

Hot T-Bone stEAk

IL-1: Fever
IL-2: T cell
IL-3: BM
IL-4: IgE
IL-5: IgA
135
Q

IL-1

A

An endogenous pyrogen; causes fever and acute inflammation. Activates endothelium to express adhesion molecules; induces chemokine secretion to recruit WBC’s

136
Q

An endogenous pyrogen; causes fever and acute inflammation. Activates endothelium to express adhesion molecules; induces chemokine secretion to recruit WBC’s

A

IL-1

137
Q

Il-6

A

Endogenous pyorgen. Secreted by macrophages, Th2. Causes fever and stimulates production of acute phase proteins.

138
Q

Endogenous pyorgen. Secreted by macrophages, Th2. Causes fever and stimulates production of acute phase proteins.

A

Il-6

139
Q

IL-8

A

Major chemotactic factor for neutrophils.

140
Q

IL-12

A

Induces differentiation into Th1 cells, activates NK cells.

141
Q

Induces differentiation into Th1 cells, activates NK cells.

A

IL-12

142
Q

TNF-alpha

A

Mediates septic shock; activates endothelium. Causes leukocyte recruitment, vascular leak

143
Q

Mediates septic shock; activates endothelium. Causes leukocyte recruitment, vascular leak

A

TNF-alpha

144
Q

Stimulates growth of helper, cytotoxic and regulatory T cells

A

IL-2

145
Q

Cytokine that functions like GM-CSF

A

IL-3

146
Q

This cytokine activates macrophages and Th1 cells; suppresses Th2 cells. Has antiviral and antitumor properties.

A

IFN-gamma

147
Q

This cytokine induces differentiation into Th2 cells. Promotes growth of B cells and class switching of IgE & IgG.

A

IL-4

148
Q

This cytokine enhances class switching to IgA. It stimulates the growth and differentiation of eosinophils

A

IL-5

149
Q

________ has a similar action to IL-10 because it is involved in inhibiting inflammation.

A

TGF-beta

150
Q

Modulates inflammatory response. Inhibits Th1 and T cells. Also secreted by Tregs.

A

IL-10

151
Q

Passive immunity examples

A

To Be Healed Rapidly

- Tetanus, Botox, HBV, Rabies

152
Q

This type of immunity involves receiving pre-formed Ab. Rapid onset of action; short life-span of Ab (3 weeks). Examples include IgA in breast milk, antitoxin, humanized mAb

A

Passive immunity

153
Q

This type of immunity involves exposure to foreign Ag. It is slow and long lasting.

A

Active immunity

154
Q

Live attenuated vaccines induce …. response

A

Cellular

155
Q

Inactivated, or killed vaccines, induce … response

A

Humoral

156
Q

Booster shots are required for live or killed vaccines?

A

Killed (aka inactivated)

157
Q

Examples of vaccines inducing cellular response

A
  • Live attenuated

MMR, Sabin-oral, VZV, Yellow fever

158
Q

Examples of vaccines inducing humoral response

A
  • Killed, inactivated

Cholera, HAV, Salk polio, rabies

159
Q

3 mechanisms of cytotoxic hypersensitivity

A
  1. Opsonization
  2. Complement mediated
  3. ADCC
160
Q

Test for type 2 hypersensitivity reaction

A

Coombs

161
Q

Serum sickness & Arthus reaction are Type 2 or Type 3 HSR?

A

Type 3

162
Q

Most serum sickness is now caused by ________ acting as ___________. P/W fever, urticaria, arthralgia, proteinuria, LAD 5-10 days 2/2 Ag exposure

A

Drugs; haptens.

163
Q

Local, subacute T3 hypersensitivity reaction. Intradermal injection of Ag induces Ab, which form complexes in the skin

A

Arthus reaction

164
Q

Any Ab involved in T4 HSR?

A

No

165
Q

Contact dermatitis is what type of HSR reaction?

A

Type 4

166
Q

Type of HSR: Anaphylaxis

A

1

167
Q

Type of HSR: Allergic and atopic disorders

A

1

168
Q

Type of HSR: AIHA

A

2

169
Q

Type of HSR: Pernicious anemia

A

2

170
Q

Type of HSR: ITP

A

2

171
Q

Type of HSR: Erythroblastialis fetalis

A

2

172
Q

Type of HSR: Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

2

173
Q

Type of HSR: Rheumatic fever

A

2

174
Q

Type of HSR: Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

2

175
Q

Type of HSR: Bullous pemphigold and pemphigus vulgaris

A

2

176
Q

Type of HSR: SLE

A

3

177
Q

Type of HSR: PAN

A

3

178
Q

Type of HSR: PSGN

A

3

179
Q

Type of HSR: Serum sickness

A

3

180
Q

Type of HSR: Swelling/inflammation 2/2 tetanus rxn

A

3

181
Q

Type of HSR: MS

A

4

182
Q

Type of HSR: GBS

A

4

183
Q

Type of HSR: GVHD

A

4

184
Q

Type of HSR: PPD test

A

4

185
Q

Type of HSR: Contact dermatitis, i.e. poison ivy, nickel allergy

A

4

186
Q

Type 1 HSR against plasma proteins in transfused blood. What to treat with?

A

Allergic reaction; anti-histamine

187
Q

Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

T2 HSR against donor HLA Ag on leukocytes

188
Q

Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

T2 HSR against ABO [IV or EV hemolysis]

189
Q

Anti-glutamate DC Ab

A

DM1

190
Q

Recombinant IL-2 is called ____________-

Can be used to treat….

A
  • Aldesleukin

RCC, Metastatic melanoma

191
Q

Which therapeutic Ab can be used to treat severe asthma?

A

Omalizumab (IgE)

192
Q

IL-2 R antagonist

A

Basiliximab, Daclizumab

193
Q

Recurrent bacterial infections after 6 months 2/2 opsoinization defect.

A

XLR/Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia

* Defect in BTK kinase (tyrosine kinase / no B cell maturation)

194
Q

Most common primary immunodeficiency

A

Selective IgA deficiency

195
Q

What immunodeficiency p/w false positive beta-HCG due to presence of heterophile Ab

A

IgA deficiency

196
Q

Defect in B-cell maturation; acquired in 20-30s. Increased risk of AI disease, lymphoma, sinopulmonary infections.

A

CVID

197
Q

22q11 deletion

A

DiGeorge; failure of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches

198
Q

IL-12 deficiency p/w

A

Disseminated mycobacterial infections; decreased IFN-gamma

199
Q

Hyper-IgE syndrome also called … p/w

A

Job syndrome; Coarse facies, cold staph abscesses, retained primary teeth, increased IgE, eczema

200
Q

Recurrent candida infections

A

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis

201
Q

Several types of this disorder that p/w FTT, chronic diarrhea, thrush and pan-infections. Absence of thymic shadow, germinal centers and B cells

A

SCID

  • ADA deficiency
  • IL2 receptor deficiency
202
Q

Defects in ATM gene, which codes for DNA repair enzymes. Serum marker?

A

Ataxia-telangiectasia

AFP, low IgA

203
Q

Defective CD40L on helper T cells

A

Hyper IgM syndrome

204
Q

T cells unable to reorganize actin cytoskeleton in this disorder. What is the inheritance?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (XLR)

* TBOpenia, infections, eczema [decreased IgM]

205
Q

Defect in Cd18 (LFA-1) integrin on phagocytes

A

LAD Type 1

206
Q

Recurrent bacterial infections, lack of pus, delayed separation of umbilical cord

A

LAD Type 1

207
Q

AR defect in lysosomal trafficking regulator (LYST); aka microtubule dysfunction in phagosome-lysosome fusion

A

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

208
Q

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome p/w

Histology?

A

P/W: recurrent pyogenic infections, partial albinism and peripheral neuropathy; giant granules in PMN’s

209
Q

Recurrent pyogenic infections, partial albinism and peripheral neuropathy; giant granules in PMN’s

A

Chediak-Higashi Syndrome

210
Q

Absent didydrorhodamine flow cytometry

A

CGD (Nitroblue tetrazolium dye reduction test no longer preferred)

211
Q

Patients with which disorder p/w increased frequency of catalase + infections, i.e. S. aureus, E. coli, Aspergillus

A

CGD (NADPH oxidase)

212
Q

What is a syngeneic graft?

A

From identical twin or clone

213
Q

What is the difference between an autograft and an allograft?

A

Auto: From self
Allo: From other

214
Q

Vasculitis of graft vessels with dense interstitial lymphocytic infiltrate

A

Acute graft rejection; cell-mediated 2/2 CTL reacting against foreign MHC. Reversible with IS

215
Q

Maculopapular rash, jaundice, HSM, diarrhea

A

GVHD

216
Q

No thymic shadow in…

A

DiGeorge & SCID

217
Q

Treatment of Bruton’s X-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

IVIG

218
Q

X-linked disorder of BTK kinase

A

XLA

219
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome has elevated levels of which Ig?

A

IgA

220
Q

Cobalophilin is also referred to

A

R-binder

221
Q

Anti-microsomal Ab are seen in…

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

222
Q

Symmetric priximal muscle weakness; characteristic heliotrope rash; elevated serum muscle enzymes; myopathic changes on EMG and muscle bx abnormalities

A

Polymyosititis, dermatomyositis

223
Q

Anti-IgG Ab

A

RF/ Rheumatoid arthritis

224
Q

NADPH oxidase deficiency results in…

A

CGD

225
Q

T/F PNPP deficiency causes SCID with near normal levels of Ig

A

True

226
Q

The most common paraneoplastic syndromes a/w thymoma

A

RBC aplasia, MG, hypogammaglobulinemia

227
Q

Derivatives of neural crest cells

A

Adrenal medulla, Schwann cells, sensory and autonomic ganglia; melanocytes

228
Q

Neuroectoderm gives rise to…

A

CNS, astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, pineal gland

229
Q

T/F DPT vaccine is contraindicated in patients with a hx of seizure disorder

A

T

230
Q

Eczema is a Type ___ HSR

A

Type 1

231
Q

Anti-MPO Ab

A

P-ANCA (CA, Microscopic polyangiitis)

232
Q

Anti-Proteinase 3 Ab

A

C-ANCA (Wegener’s)

233
Q

CD59

A

MAC inhibitory factor (think PNH)

234
Q

Genetic defect in ataxia telangiectasia? Associated with a deficiency of what Ig?

A

Defect in DNA repair enzymes; IgA

235
Q

T/F Exposure to hydrocarbons in dry cleaning solvents has been associated with Goodpasture’s syndrome

A

T

236
Q

Large lysosome vesicles in neutrophils are characteristic of

A

Chediak-Higashi disease

237
Q

Low IgM with elevated IgE & IgE are characteristic of

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

238
Q

T/F In ITP, platelets can be larger than normal

A

True

239
Q

Drepanocytes

A

Sickle cells

240
Q

Pappenheimer bodies

A

Excess iron (siderosomes)

241
Q

Mutation in fatty aldehyde DH gene

A

Sjogren-Larsson syndrome: a/w congenital ichthyosis and mental retardation/spastic paraplegia

242
Q

A toxoid is a toxin that…

A

Has been modified to the extent that it is no longer toxic but still maintains some antigenic similarity; therefore toxoid cross-reacts with the toxin

243
Q

What type of vaccine is diptheria vaccine?

A

Toxoid

244
Q

T/F Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune disease.

A

True (T2 HSR)

245
Q

T/F In DiGeorge’s syndrome, the patient’s BM contains a full assortment of immune system progenitors

A

True

Step 1 Prep (15 decks)

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