Microbiology Flashcards
1
Q
Bug: Pus, empyema, abscess
A
S. aureus
2
Q
Bug: Pediatric infection
A
H. influenza
3
Q
Bug: PNA in CF or Burn patients
A
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4
Q
Bug: Branching rods in oral infection; sulfur granules
A
Actinomyces israelii
5
Q
Bug: Traumatic open wound
A
C. perfringens
6
Q
Bug: Surgical wound
A
S. aureus
7
Q
Bug: Dog or cat bite
A
Pasturella multocida
8
Q
Bug: Currant jelly sputum
A
Klebsiella
9
Q
Bug: Positive PAS stain
A
Tropheryma whipplei (Whipple’s disease)
10
Q
Bug: Sepsis/meningitis newborn
A
GBS
11
Q
Bug: Health care provider needlestick
A
HBV
12
Q
Bug: Fungal infection in DM or IC host
A
Mucor or Rhizopus
13
Q
Bug: Asplenic patient
A
Encapsulated: S. pna, H. influenza B, N. meningitis
14
Q
Bug: Chronic granulomatous disease
A
Catalase-positive: S. aureus
15
Q
Bug: Facial nerve palsy
A
Borreilia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)
16
Q
Nosocomial: newborn nursery
A
CMV, RSV
17
Q
Nosocomial: urinary catheterization
A
E. coli, Proteus mirabilis
18
Q
The 2 most common causes of nosocomial infection:
A
- E. coli (UTI)
2. S. aureus (wound infection)
19
Q
Nosocomial: respiratory therapy equipment
A
Pseudomonas (with air or burns)
20
Q
Nosocomial: working in a renal dialysis unit
A
HBV
21
Q
Nosocomial: TPN
A
Candida albicans
22
Q
Nosocomial: water aerosols
A
Legionella
23
Q
Unimmunized child with rash:
- Head down with post-auricular LAD
- Head down preceded by cough, coryza, conjunctivitis w/ Koplik spots
A
- Rubella
2. Measles
24
Q
Unimmunized child with meningitis
A
H. influenza B [colonizes nasopharynx]
Poliovirus [myalgia and paralysis]
25
Unimmunized child with pharyngitis
1. Grayish OP exudate
2. Cherry-red epiglottitis, difficulty breathing
1. Corynebacterium diptheriae
| 2. H. influenza B
26
Peds: Vesicular rash on palms & soles; ulcers in oral mucosa
Coxsackie A "Hand-foot-mouth disease"
27
Peds: Erythematous, sandpaper-like rash with fever & sore-throat
S. pyogenes "Scarlet fever"
28
Peds: Slapped cheek rash on face (that can cause hydrops fetalis in pregnant women)
Parvovirus B19 "Erythema infectiosum"
29
Peds: A macular rash over body that appears after several days of high fever; can present with febrile seizures
HHV-6 "Roseola"
30
```
UTI Bugs
+ LE
+ Nitrite
+ Urease
- Urease
```
+ LE = bacterial
+ Nitrite = GN
+ Urease = Proteus, Klebsiella
- Urease = E. coli, Enterococcus
31
UTI: blue-green pigment and fruity odor; usually nosocomial and drug resistant
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
32
UTI: motility causes "swarming" on agar; produces urease; associated with struvite stones
Proteus mirabilis
33
UTI: nosocomial and drug resistant (3 examples)
Pseudomonas, enterobacter, serratia
34
UTI: some strains produce red pigment; often nosocomial and drug resistant
Serratia
35
UTI: top 3 causes
1. E. coli: green metallic sheen
2. Staph sapro (Coag-negative): sexually active women
3. Klebsiella: large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies
36
Osteomyelitis: Assume if no other information is available
S. aureus
37
Osteomyelitis: sexually active
N. gonorrhoeae [Septic arthritis more common]
38
Osteomyelitis: diabetics & IVDU
Pseudomonas and Serratia
39
Osteomyelitis: Sickle Cell Disease
Salmonella
40
Osteomyelitis: prosthetic replacement
S. aureus & S. epidermidis
41
Osteomyelitis: vertebral disease
M. tb (Pott's disease)
42
Osteomyelitis: cat/dog bite/scratch
Pasturella multocida
43
Osteomyelitis: classic lab finding
Elevated ESR/CRP
44
UTI: predisposing risk factors
Male risk factors
WBC casts in pyelo or cystitis
Female; obstruction; renal surgery; catheterization; GU malformation; diabetes; pregnancy
Male: congenital defect, VUR, BPH
WBC casts: pyelo
45
3 bugs that can mimic appendicitis
Yersinia; non-typhoidal Salmonella; Campylobacter jejuni
46
PNA: nosocomial (2)
Staph
| Enteric GNR's
47
PNA: IC hosts
```
Staph
Enteric GNR
Fungi
Viral
PCP (HIV)
```
48
PNA: aspiration
Anaerobes
49
PNA: ETOH/IVDU
Staph, S. pna, Klebsiella
50
PNA: CF
Staph, S. pna, Pseudomonas
51
PNA: Post-viral
Staph, S. pna, H. influenza
52
PNA: atypical
Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia
53
PNA: elderly
```
S. pna
Influenza
Anaerobes
H. influenza
GNR
```
54
PNA: adults 40-65 yo
```
S. pna
H. influenza
Anaerobes
Viruses
Mycoplasma
```
55
PNA: adults 18-40 yo
S. pna
C. pna
Mycoplasma
56
PNA: children < 18 yo
RSV, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia trachomatas (<3yo), C. pna (school-age), S. pna [Runts may cough chunky sputum]
57
PNA: neonates
GBS, E. coli
58
Normal dominant flora: skin
S. epi
59
Normal dominant flora: nose
S. epi; S. aureus colonization
60
Normal dominant flora: oropharynx
S. viridans
61
Normal dominant flora: colon
Bacteroides > E. coli
62
Normal dominant flora: vagina
Lactobacillus, E. coli, GBS
63
Culture medium: H. influenza
Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) & X (hematin)
64
Culture medium: NM + NG
Thayer-Martin: V
65
Virulence factor of E. coli that causes neonatal meningitis.
K-capsular polysaccharide
66
Inactivated toxin vaccines
C. diptheria
| C. tetani
67
Live attenuated bacteria vaccines
M. tb, Francisella, Salmonella
68
Heat-killed bacterial vaccine
B. pertussis, V. cholera, Yersinia
69
Recombinant bacterial outer membrane protein vaccine
B. burgdorgeri
70
Aseptic meningitis in children generally caused by...
Enteroviruses: echo, polio, coxsackie
71
CMV cellular receptor
Cellular integrins
72
EBV cellular receptor
CR2 (CD21)
73
Rabies cellular receptor
Nicotinic ACh receptor
74
Rhinovirus cellular receptor
ICAM1 (CD54)
75
Pharynx --> lymphatics --> meninges. Bug?
H. flu
76
Pharynx --> mucosal epithelium --> B/S --> choriod plexus
N. m
77
Congenital toxo classic triad
Hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, chorioretinitis
78
Who has LOS: N. m or N. g?
N. m
79
Anti-phagocytic capsule is a primary virulence factor for:
S. pna, H. flu, N species
80
Hypervariable pili are characteristic of what bugs?
N. m/N. g
81
Protein A of this bug binds to the Fc portion of IgG preventing opsonization, phagocytosis, complement fixation
S. aureus
82
Varicella, mumps and adenovirus are spread by...
Respiratory secretions
83
T/F Cryptococcus polysaccharide capsule antigen is useful for diagnosis.
True
84
What fungus is present in soil and pigeon droppings?
C. neoformans
85
How is cryptococcus neoformans transmitted?
Respiratory route
86
T/F Oropharynx & nasopharynx are colonized by N. m. If so, what attaches the meningococci to the nasopharnyx?
True; pilus
87
T/F Staph epidermidis is a common cause of foreign body infections due to its ability to produce adherent biofilms.
True
88
The clinical presentation of restlessness, agitation, dysphagia and coma 30-50 days following exposure to cave bats is strongly associated with...
Rabies encephalitis
89
Mycoplasma vs. Mycobacterial (sterols vs. mycolic acid; cell wall?)
Mycoplasma: sterols; no cell wall
Mycobacterial: mycolic acid; high lipid content in cell wall
90
These bugs do not gram stain.
These rascals may microscopically lack color.
Treponema (thin), Rickettsia (IC), Mycobacteria (high lipid, AF), Mycoplasma (no cell wall), Legionella (IC), Chlamydia (IC; no muramic acid)
91
Most sensitive test for T. pallidum
Dark-field microscopy and fluorescent Ab staining
92
Giemsa stain
Certain bugs really try patience
| Chlamydia, Borrelia, Rickettsiae, Trypanosomes, Plasmodium
93
PAS stain
Stains glycogen; mucopolysaccharides; used to diagnose Whipple's disease (T. whipplei)
94
Ziehl-Neelsen stain (carbol fuchsin)
AF: Nocardia, Mycobacterium
95
India ink stain
Cryptococus neoformans (mucicarmine can be used to stain capsule)
96
Silver stain
Fungi (PCP), Legionella, H. pylori
97
Special culture: H. influenza
Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin)
98
Special culture: N. gonorrhea, N. meningitidis
Thayer-Martin media
| VPN: Vanco (gram+), Polymyxin (gram-), Nystatin (fungi)
99
Special culture: B. pertussis
Bordet-Gengou (potato agar)
100
Special culture: C. diphtheriae
Tellurite, Loffler's media
101
Special culture: M. tb
Lowenstein-Jensen agar
102
Special culture: M. pna
Eaton's agar
103
Special culture: lactose-fermenting enterics
MacConkey's agar (pink colonies)
104
Aside from MacConkey's agar, E. coli can be grown on...
Eosin-methylene blue (EMB) as colonies with green metallic shenn
105
Special culture: Legionella
Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine and Fe
106
Special culture: Fungi
Sabouraud's agar
107
OIC bugs
Rickettsia, Chlamydia
| * Cannot make own ATP
108
Facultative IC bugs
Some nasty bugs may live facultativeLY
| Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia
109
Zoonosis: Bartonella
Cat scratch disease
110
Zoonosis: Borrelia burgdorferi
Lyme disease
| Ixodes tick; lives on deer/mice
111
Zoonosis: Borrelia recurrentis
Recurrent fever
| Louse
112
Zoonosis: Brucella
Brucellosis/undulant fever
| Unpasturized dairy
113
Zoonosis: Campylobacter
Bloody diarrhea
| Puppies, livestock (fecal-oral), undercooked
114
Zoonosis: Chlamydophilia psittaci
Psittacosis
| Parrots/birds
115
Zoonosis: Coxiella burnetti
Q fever
| Aerosols of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid
116
Zoonosis: Ehrlichia chaffeensis
Ehrlichoisis
| Lone star tick
117
Zoonosis: Francisselala tularensis
Ticks, rabbits, derr fly
118
Zoonosis: Leptospira
Animal urine
119
Zoonosis: M. leprae
Armadillos and humans with lep. leprosy
120
Zoonosis: Pasteurella multocida
Cellulitis/osteomyelitis
| Animal bite
121
Zoonosis: Rickettsia prowazekii
Epidemic typhus
| Louse
122
Zoonosis: Rickettsia rickettsii
RMSF
| Dermacentor tick bite
123
Zoonosis: Rickettsia typhi
Endemic typhus
| Fleas
124
Zoonosis: Yersinia pestis
```
Plague
Fleas (rats and prarie dogs = reservoirs)
```
125
Food poisoning: contaminated seafood
V. parahemolyticus, V. vulnificus
126
Food poisoning: reheated rice
Bacillus cereus
127
Food poisoning: Meats, mayonnaise, custard (preformed toxin)
S. aureus
128
Food poisoning: reheated meat dishes
C. perfringens
129
Food poisoning: improperly canned foods (bulging)
C. botulinum
130
Food poisoning: undercooked meat
E. coli 0157:H7
131
Food poisoning: poultry, meat, eggs
Salmonella
132
Bugs that can mimic appendicitis
Yersinia (mesenteric adenitis), Salmonella, Campylobacter
133
Most common cause of mesenteric adenitis
Yersinia enterocolitica
134
Antibiotics to avoid in pregnancy (And one antiviral, one antifungal)
* Explain the AE
```
SAFE Children Take Really Good Care
Sulfonamides: kernicterus
AG: Ototoxicity
FQ: Cartilage damage
Clarithromycin: Embryotoxic
Tetracyclines: Teeth, bone growth
Ribavirin: Teratogenic (antiviral)
Griseofulvin: Teratogenic (antifungal)
Chloramphenicol: Gray baby
```
135
Obligate aerobes
Nagging pests must breath
| Nocardia, Pseudomonas, M. tb, Bacillus
136
Obligate anaerobes
Actinomyces, Bacteroides, Clostridium
137
Killed/inactivated vaccines include...
Salk (IM), rabies, IM influenza, HAV
138
Killed/inactivated vaccines induce humoral/cell-mediated immunity or both.
Humoral only (Salk (IM), rabies, IM influenza, HAV)
139
Recombinant viral vaccines include...
HBV, HPV
140
Live attenuated viral vaccines include...
Smallpox, yellow fever, VZV, Sabin (oral), MMR, intranasal influenza
141
Beta-inferferon can treat...
MS
142
Gamma-interferon can treat...
CGD
143
Kaposi's sarcoma can be treated by...
Alpha-interferon
144
The only DNA virus not replicated in the nucleus.
Pox virus
145
The 2 RNA viruses not replicated in the cytoplasm
Retrovirus & Orthomyxovirus
146
The only DNA virus to acquire its envelope from the nucleus vs. the plasma membrane
Herpes virus
147
The only diploid RNA virus
Retrovirus
148
CD4 Cut off: AIDS oral thrush
< 400
149
CD4 Cut off: AIDS Cryptosporidium
< 200
150
CD4 Cut off: AIDS JC/PML
< 200
151
CD4 Cut off: AIDS PCP
< 200
152
CD4 Cut off: AIDS esophageal thrush
< 100
153
CD4 Cut off: AIDS histoplasmosis
< 100
154
CD4 Cut off: AIDS toxoplasmosis
< 100
155
CD4 Cut off: AIDS CMV retinitis
< 50
156
CD4 Cut off: AIDS cryptococcal meningitis
< 50
157
CD4 Cut off: AIDS MAC
< 50
158
The three HIV genes
Env: gp120, 41
Pol: p24
Gag: RT, P, Integrase
159
Early HIV uses this co-receptor on T cells; late uses
| What about on macrophages?
CCR5; CXCR4
| Macrophages: CCR5
160
UTI large mucoid capsule with viscous colonies
Klebsiella pneumonia
161
UTI red pigment
Serratia
162
UTI struvite
Proteus
163
UTI blue-gree pigment
Pseudomonas
164
UTI: What does leukocyte esterase mean?
Bacteria
165
UTI: What does nitrite positive mean?
Gram negative
166
UTI: What does urease positive mean?
Proteus, Klebsiella
167
UTI: What does urease negative mean?
E. coli, Enterococcus
