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Step 1 Prep > Microbiology > Flashcards

Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Bug: Pus, empyema, abscess

A

S. aureus

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2
Q

Bug: Pediatric infection

A

H. influenza

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3
Q

Bug: PNA in CF or Burn patients

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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4
Q

Bug: Branching rods in oral infection; sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

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5
Q

Bug: Traumatic open wound

A

C. perfringens

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6
Q

Bug: Surgical wound

A

S. aureus

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7
Q

Bug: Dog or cat bite

A

Pasturella multocida

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8
Q

Bug: Currant jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella

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9
Q

Bug: Positive PAS stain

A

Tropheryma whipplei (Whipple’s disease)

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10
Q

Bug: Sepsis/meningitis newborn

A

GBS

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11
Q

Bug: Health care provider needlestick

A

HBV

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12
Q

Bug: Fungal infection in DM or IC host

A

Mucor or Rhizopus

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13
Q

Bug: Asplenic patient

A

Encapsulated: S. pna, H. influenza B, N. meningitis

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14
Q

Bug: Chronic granulomatous disease

A

Catalase-positive: S. aureus

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15
Q

Bug: Facial nerve palsy

A

Borreilia burgdorferi (Lyme disease)

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16
Q

Nosocomial: newborn nursery

A

CMV, RSV

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17
Q

Nosocomial: urinary catheterization

A

E. coli, Proteus mirabilis

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18
Q

The 2 most common causes of nosocomial infection:

A
  1. E. coli (UTI)

2. S. aureus (wound infection)

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19
Q

Nosocomial: respiratory therapy equipment

A

Pseudomonas (with air or burns)

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20
Q

Nosocomial: working in a renal dialysis unit

A

HBV

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21
Q

Nosocomial: TPN

A

Candida albicans

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22
Q

Nosocomial: water aerosols

A

Legionella

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23
Q

Unimmunized child with rash:

  1. Head down with post-auricular LAD
  2. Head down preceded by cough, coryza, conjunctivitis w/ Koplik spots
A
  1. Rubella

2. Measles

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24
Q

Unimmunized child with meningitis

A

H. influenza B [colonizes nasopharynx]

Poliovirus [myalgia and paralysis]

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25
Q

Unimmunized child with pharyngitis

  1. Grayish OP exudate
  2. Cherry-red epiglottitis, difficulty breathing
A
  1. Corynebacterium diptheriae

2. H. influenza B

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26
Q

Peds: Vesicular rash on palms & soles; ulcers in oral mucosa

A

Coxsackie A “Hand-foot-mouth disease”

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27
Q

Peds: Erythematous, sandpaper-like rash with fever & sore-throat

A

S. pyogenes “Scarlet fever”

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28
Q

Peds: Slapped cheek rash on face (that can cause hydrops fetalis in pregnant women)

A

Parvovirus B19 “Erythema infectiosum”

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29
Q

Peds: A macular rash over body that appears after several days of high fever; can present with febrile seizures

A

HHV-6 “Roseola”

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30
Q 
UTI Bugs
\+ LE
\+ Nitrite
\+ Urease
- Urease
A

+ LE = bacterial
+ Nitrite = GN
+ Urease = Proteus, Klebsiella
- Urease = E. coli, Enterococcus

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31
Q

UTI: blue-green pigment and fruity odor; usually nosocomial and drug resistant

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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32
Q

UTI: motility causes “swarming” on agar; produces urease; associated with struvite stones

A

Proteus mirabilis

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33
Q

UTI: nosocomial and drug resistant (3 examples)

A

Pseudomonas, enterobacter, serratia

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34
Q

UTI: some strains produce red pigment; often nosocomial and drug resistant

A

Serratia

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35
Q

UTI: top 3 causes

A
  1. E. coli: green metallic sheen
  2. Staph sapro (Coag-negative): sexually active women
  3. Klebsiella: large mucoid capsule and viscous colonies
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36
Q

Osteomyelitis: Assume if no other information is available

A

S. aureus

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37
Q

Osteomyelitis: sexually active

A

N. gonorrhoeae [Septic arthritis more common]

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38
Q

Osteomyelitis: diabetics & IVDU

A

Pseudomonas and Serratia

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39
Q

Osteomyelitis: Sickle Cell Disease

A

Salmonella

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40
Q

Osteomyelitis: prosthetic replacement

A

S. aureus & S. epidermidis

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41
Q

Osteomyelitis: vertebral disease

A

M. tb (Pott’s disease)

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42
Q

Osteomyelitis: cat/dog bite/scratch

A

Pasturella multocida

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43
Q

Osteomyelitis: classic lab finding

A

Elevated ESR/CRP

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44
Q

UTI: predisposing risk factors
Male risk factors
WBC casts in pyelo or cystitis

A

Female; obstruction; renal surgery; catheterization; GU malformation; diabetes; pregnancy
Male: congenital defect, VUR, BPH
WBC casts: pyelo

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45
Q

3 bugs that can mimic appendicitis

A

Yersinia; non-typhoidal Salmonella; Campylobacter jejuni

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46
Q

PNA: nosocomial (2)

A

Staph

Enteric GNR’s

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47
Q

PNA: IC hosts

A 
Staph
Enteric GNR
Fungi
Viral
PCP (HIV)
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48
Q

PNA: aspiration

A

Anaerobes

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49
Q

PNA: ETOH/IVDU

A

Staph, S. pna, Klebsiella

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50
Q

PNA: CF

A

Staph, S. pna, Pseudomonas

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51
Q

PNA: Post-viral

A

Staph, S. pna, H. influenza

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52
Q

PNA: atypical

A

Mycoplasma, Legionella, Chlamydia

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53
Q

PNA: elderly

A 
S. pna
Influenza
Anaerobes
H. influenza
GNR
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54
Q

PNA: adults 40-65 yo

A 
S. pna
H. influenza
Anaerobes
Viruses
Mycoplasma
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55
Q

PNA: adults 18-40 yo

A

S. pna
C. pna
Mycoplasma

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56
Q

PNA: children < 18 yo

A

RSV, Mycoplasma, Chlamydia trachomatas (<3yo), C. pna (school-age), S. pna [Runts may cough chunky sputum]

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57
Q

PNA: neonates

A

GBS, E. coli

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58
Q

Normal dominant flora: skin

A

S. epi

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59
Q

Normal dominant flora: nose

A

S. epi; S. aureus colonization

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60
Q

Normal dominant flora: oropharynx

A

S. viridans

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61
Q

Normal dominant flora: colon

A

Bacteroides > E. coli

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62
Q

Normal dominant flora: vagina

A

Lactobacillus, E. coli, GBS

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63
Q

Culture medium: H. influenza

A

Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) & X (hematin)

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64
Q

Culture medium: NM + NG

A

Thayer-Martin: V

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65
Q

Virulence factor of E. coli that causes neonatal meningitis.

A

K-capsular polysaccharide

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66
Q

Inactivated toxin vaccines

A

C. diptheria

C. tetani

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67
Q

Live attenuated bacteria vaccines

A

M. tb, Francisella, Salmonella

68
Q

Heat-killed bacterial vaccine

A

B. pertussis, V. cholera, Yersinia

69
Q

Recombinant bacterial outer membrane protein vaccine

A

B. burgdorgeri

70
Q

Aseptic meningitis in children generally caused by…

A

Enteroviruses: echo, polio, coxsackie

71
Q

CMV cellular receptor

A

Cellular integrins

72
Q

EBV cellular receptor

A

CR2 (CD21)

73
Q

Rabies cellular receptor

A

Nicotinic ACh receptor

74
Q

Rhinovirus cellular receptor

A

ICAM1 (CD54)

75
Q

Pharynx –> lymphatics –> meninges. Bug?

A

H. flu

76
Q

Pharynx –> mucosal epithelium –> B/S –> choriod plexus

A

N. m

77
Q

Congenital toxo classic triad

A

Hydrocephalus, intracranial calcifications, chorioretinitis

78
Q

Who has LOS: N. m or N. g?

A

N. m

79
Q

Anti-phagocytic capsule is a primary virulence factor for:

A

S. pna, H. flu, N species

80
Q

Hypervariable pili are characteristic of what bugs?

A

N. m/N. g

81
Q

Protein A of this bug binds to the Fc portion of IgG preventing opsonization, phagocytosis, complement fixation

A

S. aureus

82
Q

Varicella, mumps and adenovirus are spread by…

A

Respiratory secretions

83
Q

T/F Cryptococcus polysaccharide capsule antigen is useful for diagnosis.

A

True

84
Q

What fungus is present in soil and pigeon droppings?

A

C. neoformans

85
Q

How is cryptococcus neoformans transmitted?

A

Respiratory route

86
Q

T/F Oropharynx & nasopharynx are colonized by N. m. If so, what attaches the meningococci to the nasopharnyx?

A

True; pilus

87
Q

T/F Staph epidermidis is a common cause of foreign body infections due to its ability to produce adherent biofilms.

A

True

88
Q

The clinical presentation of restlessness, agitation, dysphagia and coma 30-50 days following exposure to cave bats is strongly associated with…

A

Rabies encephalitis

89
Q

Mycoplasma vs. Mycobacterial (sterols vs. mycolic acid; cell wall?)

A

Mycoplasma: sterols; no cell wall
Mycobacterial: mycolic acid; high lipid content in cell wall

90
Q

These bugs do not gram stain.

A

These rascals may microscopically lack color.
Treponema (thin), Rickettsia (IC), Mycobacteria (high lipid, AF), Mycoplasma (no cell wall), Legionella (IC), Chlamydia (IC; no muramic acid)

91
Q

Most sensitive test for T. pallidum

A

Dark-field microscopy and fluorescent Ab staining

92
Q

Giemsa stain

A

Certain bugs really try patience

Chlamydia, Borrelia, Rickettsiae, Trypanosomes, Plasmodium

93
Q

PAS stain

A

Stains glycogen; mucopolysaccharides; used to diagnose Whipple’s disease (T. whipplei)

94
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain (carbol fuchsin)

A

AF: Nocardia, Mycobacterium

95
Q

India ink stain

A

Cryptococus neoformans (mucicarmine can be used to stain capsule)

96
Q

Silver stain

A

Fungi (PCP), Legionella, H. pylori

97
Q

Special culture: H. influenza

A

Chocolate agar with factors V (NAD+) and X (hematin)

98
Q

Special culture: N. gonorrhea, N. meningitidis

A

Thayer-Martin media

VPN: Vanco (gram+), Polymyxin (gram-), Nystatin (fungi)

99
Q

Special culture: B. pertussis

A

Bordet-Gengou (potato agar)

100
Q

Special culture: C. diphtheriae

A

Tellurite, Loffler’s media

101
Q

Special culture: M. tb

A

Lowenstein-Jensen agar

102
Q

Special culture: M. pna

A

Eaton’s agar

103
Q

Special culture: lactose-fermenting enterics

A

MacConkey’s agar (pink colonies)

104
Q

Aside from MacConkey’s agar, E. coli can be grown on…

A

Eosin-methylene blue (EMB) as colonies with green metallic shenn

105
Q

Special culture: Legionella

A

Charcoal yeast extract agar buffered with cysteine and Fe

106
Q

Special culture: Fungi

A

Sabouraud’s agar

107
Q

OIC bugs

A

Rickettsia, Chlamydia

* Cannot make own ATP

108
Q

Facultative IC bugs

A

Some nasty bugs may live facultativeLY

Salmonella, Neisseria, Brucella, Mycobacterium, Listeria, Francisella, Legionella, Yersinia

109
Q

Zoonosis: Bartonella

A

Cat scratch disease

110
Q

Zoonosis: Borrelia burgdorferi

A

Lyme disease

Ixodes tick; lives on deer/mice

111
Q

Zoonosis: Borrelia recurrentis

A

Recurrent fever

Louse

112
Q

Zoonosis: Brucella

A

Brucellosis/undulant fever

Unpasturized dairy

113
Q

Zoonosis: Campylobacter

A

Bloody diarrhea

Puppies, livestock (fecal-oral), undercooked

114
Q

Zoonosis: Chlamydophilia psittaci

A

Psittacosis

Parrots/birds

115
Q

Zoonosis: Coxiella burnetti

A

Q fever

Aerosols of cattle/sheep amniotic fluid

116
Q

Zoonosis: Ehrlichia chaffeensis

A

Ehrlichoisis

Lone star tick

117
Q

Zoonosis: Francisselala tularensis

A

Ticks, rabbits, derr fly

118
Q

Zoonosis: Leptospira

A

Animal urine

119
Q

Zoonosis: M. leprae

A

Armadillos and humans with lep. leprosy

120
Q

Zoonosis: Pasteurella multocida

A

Cellulitis/osteomyelitis

Animal bite

121
Q

Zoonosis: Rickettsia prowazekii

A

Epidemic typhus

Louse

122
Q

Zoonosis: Rickettsia rickettsii

A

RMSF

Dermacentor tick bite

123
Q

Zoonosis: Rickettsia typhi

A

Endemic typhus

Fleas

124
Q

Zoonosis: Yersinia pestis

A 
Plague
Fleas (rats and prarie dogs = reservoirs)
125
Q

Food poisoning: contaminated seafood

A

V. parahemolyticus, V. vulnificus

126
Q

Food poisoning: reheated rice

A

Bacillus cereus

127
Q

Food poisoning: Meats, mayonnaise, custard (preformed toxin)

A

S. aureus

128
Q

Food poisoning: reheated meat dishes

A

C. perfringens

129
Q

Food poisoning: improperly canned foods (bulging)

A

C. botulinum

130
Q

Food poisoning: undercooked meat

A

E. coli 0157:H7

131
Q

Food poisoning: poultry, meat, eggs

A

Salmonella

132
Q

Bugs that can mimic appendicitis

A

Yersinia (mesenteric adenitis), Salmonella, Campylobacter

133
Q

Most common cause of mesenteric adenitis

A

Yersinia enterocolitica

134
Q

Antibiotics to avoid in pregnancy (And one antiviral, one antifungal)
* Explain the AE

A 
SAFE Children Take Really Good Care
Sulfonamides: kernicterus
AG: Ototoxicity
FQ: Cartilage damage
Clarithromycin: Embryotoxic
Tetracyclines: Teeth, bone growth
Ribavirin: Teratogenic (antiviral)
Griseofulvin: Teratogenic (antifungal)
Chloramphenicol: Gray baby
135
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

Nagging pests must breath

Nocardia, Pseudomonas, M. tb, Bacillus

136
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

Actinomyces, Bacteroides, Clostridium

137
Q

Killed/inactivated vaccines include…

A

Salk (IM), rabies, IM influenza, HAV

138
Q

Killed/inactivated vaccines induce humoral/cell-mediated immunity or both.

A

Humoral only (Salk (IM), rabies, IM influenza, HAV)

139
Q

Recombinant viral vaccines include…

A

HBV, HPV

140
Q

Live attenuated viral vaccines include…

A

Smallpox, yellow fever, VZV, Sabin (oral), MMR, intranasal influenza

141
Q

Beta-inferferon can treat…

A

MS

142
Q

Gamma-interferon can treat…

A

CGD

143
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma can be treated by…

A

Alpha-interferon

144
Q

The only DNA virus not replicated in the nucleus.

A

Pox virus

145
Q

The 2 RNA viruses not replicated in the cytoplasm

A

Retrovirus & Orthomyxovirus

146
Q

The only DNA virus to acquire its envelope from the nucleus vs. the plasma membrane

A

Herpes virus

147
Q

The only diploid RNA virus

A

Retrovirus

148
Q

CD4 Cut off: AIDS oral thrush

A

< 400

149
Q

CD4 Cut off: AIDS Cryptosporidium

A

< 200

150
Q

CD4 Cut off: AIDS JC/PML

A

< 200

151
Q

CD4 Cut off: AIDS PCP

A

< 200

152
Q

CD4 Cut off: AIDS esophageal thrush

A

< 100

153
Q

CD4 Cut off: AIDS histoplasmosis

A

< 100

154
Q

CD4 Cut off: AIDS toxoplasmosis

A

< 100

155
Q

CD4 Cut off: AIDS CMV retinitis

A

< 50

156
Q

CD4 Cut off: AIDS cryptococcal meningitis

A

< 50

157
Q

CD4 Cut off: AIDS MAC

A

< 50

158
Q

The three HIV genes

A

Env: gp120, 41
Pol: p24
Gag: RT, P, Integrase

159
Q

Early HIV uses this co-receptor on T cells; late uses

What about on macrophages?

A

CCR5; CXCR4

Macrophages: CCR5

160
Q

UTI large mucoid capsule with viscous colonies

A

Klebsiella pneumonia

161
Q

UTI red pigment

A

Serratia

162
Q

UTI struvite

A

Proteus

163
Q

UTI blue-gree pigment

A

Pseudomonas

164
Q

UTI: What does leukocyte esterase mean?

A

Bacteria

165
Q

UTI: What does nitrite positive mean?

A

Gram negative

166
Q

UTI: What does urease positive mean?

A

Proteus, Klebsiella

167
Q

UTI: What does urease negative mean?

A

E. coli, Enterococcus

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