Pharmacology Flashcards
1
Q
Alpha-1
A
Gq
* Vascular smooth muscle, pupillary dilator contraction, intestinal and bladder sphincter contraction
2
Q
Alpha-2
A
Gi
* Decrease insulin, lipolysis, sympathetic outflow, increase platelet aggregation
3
Q
Beta-1
A
Gs
* HR, contractility, renin, lipolysis
4
Q
Beta-2
A
Gs
* Vasodilation, bronchodilation, increased HR, contractility, lipolysis, insulin; decreased uterus tone, increased aq. humor, ciliary muscle relaxation
5
Q
M1
A
Gq
* CNS, enteric
6
Q
M2
A
Gi
* HR/atria
7
Q
M3
A
Gq
* Exocrine, miosis, accommodation (ciliary muscle contraction)
8
Q
D1
A
Gs
* Relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle
9
Q
D2
A
Gi
* Modulate transmitter release (brain)
10
Q
H1
A
Gq
* Nasal and bronchial mucus production, contraction bronchioles, pruritis, pain
11
Q
H2
A
Gs
* Gastric acid
12
Q
V1
A
Gq
* Vascular smooth muscle contraction
13
Q
V2
A
Gs
* Collecting tubules (2 kidneys)
14
Q
- Match
DAG/PKC
IP3/Ca
A
DAG = PKC IP3 = Ca2+
15
Q
Protein kinase A –>
A
Myosin light chain kinase (smooth muscle)
16
Q
MOA Amphetamine
A
Releases stored catecholamines
17
Q
Indirect sympathomimetics (3)
A
- Amphetamine
- Ephedrine
- Cocaine
18
Q
MOA Ephedrine
A
Releases stored catecholamines
19
Q
Uses Amphetamine
A
Narcolepsy, obesity, ADHD
20
Q
Uses Ephedrine
A
Nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence, hypotension
21
Q
MOA Cocaine
A
Reuptake inhibitor
22
Q
Uses cocaine
A
Vasoconstriction/local anesthesia
23
Q
You should never give beta-blockers with cocaine intoxication because…
A
Can lead to unopposed alpha-1 activation and extreme hypertension
24
Q
Antidote to acetaminophen toxicity
A
N-acetylcysteine (replenishes glutathione)
25
Antidote to salcylates toxicity
NaHCO3 (alkalinize urine), dialysis
26
Antidote to amphetamine toxicity
Nh4Cl (acidify the urine)
27
Antidote to AchE inhibitor (OP) toxicity
Atropine, pralidoxime
28
Antidote to anti-muscarinic toxicity
Physostigmine salicylate, control hyperthermia
29
Antidote to beta-blocker toxicity
Glucagon
30
Antidote to digitalis toxicity
KLAM
- Normalize K
- Lidocaine
- Anti-dig Fab
- Mg2+
31
Antidote to Fe toxicity
Deferoxamine, deferasirox
32
Antidote to lead poisioning
EDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine
33
Antidote to mercury, arsenic, gold
Dimercaprol, succimer
34
Antidote to Cu, arsenic, gold
Penicillamine
35
Antidote to CN toxicity
Nitrate + thiosulfate; hydroxocobalamin
36
Antidote to Methemeglobin
Methylene blue, vitamin C
37
Antidote to CO toxicity
O2
38
Antidote to methanol, ethylene glycol toxicity
Fomepizole > ETOH, dialysis (alcohol DH)
39
Antidote to opioid toxicity
Naloxone, Naltrexone
40
Antidote to benzo toxicity
Flumazenil
41
Antidote to TCA toxicity
NaHCO2 (plasma alk)
42
Antidote to heparin toxicity
Protamine
43
Antidote to warfarin toxicity
Vitamin K, FFP
44
Antidote to TPA/streptokinase/urokinase toxicity
Aminocaproic acid
45
Antidote to theophylline toxicity
Beta-blocker
46
Sulfa drugs
Popular FACTSSS
| Probenecid, Furosemide, Acetazolamide, Celecoxib, Thiazide, Sulfonamide, Sulfasalazine, Sulfonurea
47
Patients with sulfa allergy may develop...
Fever, UTI, pruritic rash, SJ, hemolytic anemia, TBO, agranulocytosis, hives
48
P450 Inducers
APPCR (Chronic ETOH, phenytoin, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, rifampin)
Modafinil
St. John's Wort
Griseofulvin
49
P450 Inhibitors
MAGIC RACKS GQ
Macrolides, Amiodarone, Grapefruit juice, INH, Cimetidine, Ritonavir, acute ETOH, Cipro, Azoles, Sulfonamides, Gemfibrozil, Quinidine
50
ADR: Coronary vasospasm (3)
Cocaine, sumatriptan, ergot alkaloids
51
ADR: Cutaneous flushing (4)
VANC
| Vancomycine, Adenosine, Niacin, CCB
52
ADR: Dilated cardiomyopathy (2)
Doxorubicin (Adriamycin), Daunorubicin
53
ADR: TDP (2)
Class IA: Quinidine
| Class 3: Sotalol
54
ADR: Agranulocytosis (6)
Clozapine, Carbamazepine, Colchicine, Dapsone, PTU, Methimazole
55
ADR: Aplastic anemia (5)
Chloramphenicol, benzene, NSAIDS, PTU, Methimazole
56
ADR: AIHA (Direct Coombs positive)
Methyldopa, penicillin
57
ADR: Gray baby syndrome (1)
Chloramphenicol
58
ADR: Hemolysis in G6PD patients (5)
IS PAIN
| INH, Sulfonamides, Primaquine, ASA, Ibuprofen, Nitrofurantoin
59
ADR: Megaloblastic anemia (3)
Phenytoin, MTX, Sulfa drugs
60
ADR: Thrombotic complications
OCP's (estrogens)
61
ADR: Cough
ACE inhibitors (not ARB's)
62
ADR: Pulmonary fibrosis (3)
Amiodarone, Bleomycin, Busulfan
63
ADR: Acute cholestatic hepatitis, jaundice (1)
Erythromycin
64
ADR: Focal to massive hepatic necrosis (4)
HAVAc
| Halothane, Amantia phalloides, Valproate, Acetaminophen
65
ADR: Hepatitis
INH
66
ADR: C. diff (2)
Clindamycin, ampicillin
67
ADR: Adrenocortical insufficiency (1)
GC withdrawal
68
ADR: Gynecomastia (6)
Some Drugs Create Awkward Knockers
| Spironolactone, Digitalis, Cimetidine, ETOH (chronic), Estrogens, Ketoconazole
69
ADR: Hot flashes (2)
Tamoxifen, clomiphene
70
ADR: Hyperglycemia (5)
Niacin, Tacrolimus, Protease inhibitor, HCTZ, CS
71
ADR: Hypothyroidism (3)
Lithium, amiodarone, sulfonamides
72
ADR: Fat redistribution (2)
PI, GC
73
ADR: Gingival hyperplasia (2)
Phenytoin, Verapamil
74
ADR: Gout
Furosemide, Thiazides, Niacin, Cyclosporin
75
ADR: Osteoporosis
Heparin, CS
76
ADR: Anti-muscarinic (4)
Atropine, TCA, H1 blocker, neuroleptics
77
ADR: Disulfram-like reaction
Metronidazole, CS, Procarbazine, 1st generation sulfonureas
78
ADR: Nephro/ototoxicity
AG, Vanco, Loop diurectics, cisplatin
79
ADR: Tardive dyskinesia
Antipsychotics
80
ADR: Seizures
I BITE My tongue
| INH, Bupropion, Imipenim/cilastatin, Tramadol, Enflurane, Metoclopramide
81
ADR: Parkinson's
Antipsychotics, reserpine, metoclopramide
82
ADR: Cinconism
Quinidine, quinine
83
ADR: SIADH
Carbamazepine, Cyclophosphamide
84
ADR: I/S nephritis
Methicillin, NSAIDS, Ferosemide
85
ADR: Hemorrhagic cystitis
Cyclo/Ifosfamide (mesna)
86
ADR: Fanconi's syndrome
Expired tetracycline
87
ADR: DI
Lithium, democlocycline
88
ADR: Tendonitis, tendon rupture, cartilage damage
FQ's
89
ADR: Teeth kids
Tetracyclines
90
ADR: SLE-like syndrome
HIPP
| Hydralazine, INH, Procainamide, Phenytoin
91
ADR: Myopathy
Fibrates, Niacin, Colchicine, Hydroxychloroquine, IFN-alpha, Penicillamine, Statins, GC
92
ADR: Osteoporosis (2)
CS, heparin
93
ADR: Photosensitivity (3)
Sulfonamides, Tetracycline, Amiodarone
94
ADR: SJ/Rash
PEC SLAPP
| Penicillin, Ethosuximide, Carbamazepine, Sulfa, Lamotrigine, Allopurinol, Phenytoin, Phenobarbital
95
Platelet aggregation inhibitors (4 classes)
1. COX inhibitors: ASA
2. PDE inhibitors: Dipyramidole, Cilastazol
3. ADP R blockers: Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine,
4. Gp2b/3a blockers: Abciximab, Eptifibratide, Tirofiban
96
ADP receptor blockers (4)
Clopidogrel, Ticlopidine, Ticagrelor, Prasugrel
97
Clopidogral and Omeprazole interaction
Omeprazole inhibits CYP and clopidogrel requires CPY2C19 to be activated
98
Four classes of anti-coagulants
1. Indirect thrombin (UFH) & 10 ( LMWH = Fondaparinaux, Enoxaparin/Dalteparin/Tiazaparin)
2. DTI (Lepirudin, Bivalirudin, Argatroban PO = dabigatrin etexilate)
3. D10I (Rivaroxiban, Apixiban)
4. Courmarin (Warfarin)
99
Thrombolytics
SK, UK, Alteplase, Reteplase, Tenecleplase
100
Chemical antagonist of heparin
Protamine sulfate
101
TPAi drug
Aminocaproic acid
102
Describe HIT
Heparin complexes with platelet factor 4; anti-IgG Ab attack and deposit on platelets; more Factor 4 released.
d/c heparin; DTI/Fondaparinaux & protamine sulfate
103
Part of nephron: CAI
Uses
AE's
PCT: Acetazolamide
Use: metabolic alkalosis, mountain sickness, glaucoma, pseudotumor cerebri
AE: metabolic acidosis
104
Drug used in treatment of pseudotumor cerebri
Acetazolamide
105
Mannitol contraindications
Anuria, CHF; pulmonary edema/dehydration = AE
106
Mannitol uses
Drug overdose, elevated ICP/IOP
107
Loop diuretic that can be used in a patient with sulfa allergy
Ethacrynic acid
108
AE Furosemide
Ototoxicity, hypokalemia, dehydration, sulfa, IS nephritis, gout
109
Which diuretic stimulates PGE release and is inhibited by NSAIDS?
Furosemide
110
MOA HCTZ
NaCl channel in DCT
111
List 3 thiazide diuretics
1. HCTZ
2. Chlorthalidone
3. Metalozone
112
Indicated for treatment of Liddle's syndrome
Triamtrene, Amiloride
113
Drugs associated with tubulointerstitial nephritis
Sulfonamides (thiazide diurectice), methicillin, cipro, cephalosporins, allopurinol, PPI, rifampin, cimetidine, NSAIDS
114
What should you think of when the urine dipstick reveals large blood, but the UA shows no RBC's on microscopy
Rhabdomyolisis (statin)
115
Which antibiotics are most associated with acute renal failure when combined with cephalosporins?
Aminoglycosides
116
Which HIV protease inhibitor is associated with crystal induced nephropathy?
Indinavir
117
In patients with impaired renal function, the loading dose should be the same/higher/lower and the maintenance dose should be the same/higher/lower
LD: same
MD: lower
118
The 7 classes of anti-hypertensives.
1. ACEi/ARB
2. Beta blocker
3. CCB
4. Diuretics
5. Alpha antagonists
6. Alpha-2 agonists
7. Vasodilators
119
The 3 major classes of angiotensin drugs used to treat HTN
1. ACEi (-opril)
2. ARB (-artan)
3. Renin inhibitors: aliskiren
120
Aliskiren
Renin inhibitor
121
The 2 major CI for the use of ACEi's
1. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
| 2. Pregnancy
122
Some of the major AE of ACEi's
1. Angioedema
2. Cough
3. Hyperkalemia
123
The 2 major classes of calcium channel blockers
1. Dihydropyrmidines: Amlodipine, Nifidepine
| 2. Non-dihydropyrimidines: Verapamil, Diltiazem
124
Among the CCB's, which class of drugs is much more selective for the blood vessels vs the heart?
The Dihydropyrmidines (Amlodipine and Nifedipine)
125
The major AE of Verapamil & its major contraindication
AE: constipation
CI: CHF (2/2 negative inotropic)
126
The two types of anti-hypertensive treatments useful in black and elderly patients
1. Thiazides
| 2. CCB's
127
The preferred beta-blocker in pregnancy
Pindolol
128
Non-selective beta blockers vs. selective beta blockers
Non-selective: Propranol, pindolol
| Selective: Atenolol, metopropol
129
Should beta-blockers be tapered gradually?
Yes
130
Beta-blockers are contraindicated in patients with...
COPD and asthmatics
131
When would it be appropriate to use an alpha-1 blocker to treat a patient with HTN?
If the patient also has BPH
132
Major AE of alpha-1 blockers? What can be given to prevent this AE?
Reflex tachycardia; give beta-blocker
133
A mixed alpha-beta blocker example
Labetalol
134
Labetalol MOA
Mixed alpha-beta blocker
135
Which alpha-2 agnoist is associated with a positive Coombs test: hemolytic anemia, hepatitis, drug fever?
Methyldopa
136
Among anti-hypertensive drugs, which one is associated with anti-histone antibodies?
Hydralizine
137
Which direct vasodilator can be used for the PO treatment of malignant hypertension and can be used topically to treat male pattern baldness?
Minoxidil
138
What drugs can be used to treat pulmonary hypertension?
PGE (epoprostenol)
| Inhibitors of endothelin synthesis (bosentan)
139
Which pharmacologic treatment of pulmonary hypertension is pregnancy category X?
Bosentan (endothelin receptor blocker)
140
First line treatment for HTN in pregnancy (along with methyldopa)
Hydralazine
141
Hydralazine is often administered with a ________________ to prevent this adverse effect
Beta-blocker; reflex tachycardia
142
MOA Hydralazine
Increases cGMP vasodilates arterioles>veins
143
2 of the most popular treatments of malignant hypertension
1. Nitroprusside
| 2. Fenoldopam: D1 agonist; decreases BP and increases natriuresis
144
Drug of choice for patients with catecholamine-related emergencies
Phentolamine
145
Often used for aortic dissection or postoperative hypertension
Esmolol
146
Drug of choice in treating hypertensive emergencies in pregnancy related to eclampsia
Hydralazine
147
Famous AE of sodium nitroprusside
CN toxicity (adminster sodium thiocyanate)
148
Can CCB's be used for Prinzmetal's angina and Raynaud's phenomenon?
Yes
149
Are beta-blockers contraindicated in cardiogenic shock?
Yes
150
Arteries, veins, both: hydralazine, nitrates, ACEi
A: Hydralazine
V: Nitrates
Both: ACEi
151
What are 2 reasons patients with advanced heart disease have elevated levels of aldosterone?
1. Angiotensin stimulation
| 2. Reduced hepatic clearance
152
Mild digoxin toxicity is treated with...
| Severe toxicity...
Mg, Lidocaine, adjust K to high normal
| Severe: pacer, digitalis Ab
153
Inotrope/Chronotrope: Digoxin
Positive inotrope
| Negative chrontrope
154
HR: nitrates vs. B-blockers/CCB
Nitrates: reflex increase
| BB/CCB: decrease
155
Arterial pressure nitrates vs. B-blockers/CCB
Nitrates: decrease
| BB/CCB: decrease
156
EDV nitrates vs. B-blockers/CCB
Nitrates: decrease
| BB/CCB: increase
157
Contractility nitrates vs. B-blockers/CCB
Nitrates: reflex increase
| BB/CCB: decrease
158
Ejection time nitrates vs. B-blockers/CCB
Nitrates: decrease
| BB/CCB: increase
159
First line treatment of angina
Nitroglycerin
160
Treatment of unstable angina; 2nd line; 3rd line
NG + beta-blocker
| 2nd line: CCB; 3rd line Ranolazine
161
Beta blockers used in the treatment of variant angina?
No
162
Acute treatment of ventricular arrhythmias from
| myocardial infarction or cardiac manipulation
Lidocaine (Class 1B)
163
Class 1A anti-arrhythmics
Quinidine, Procainamide, Disopyramide
| * Intermediate association/dissociation, non-specific K+ channel blockade
164
Class 1B anti-arrhythmics
Lidocaine, Mexiletine; fast association/dissociation; do not directly block K+ channels
165
Class 1C anti-arrhythmics
Flecainide, Propafenone; slow association/dissociation; do not directly block K+ channels
166
Hyper or hypokalemia can increase toxicity for all class 1 anti-arrhythmics
Hyperkalemia
167
AE Class IA anti-arrhythmics
Diso: heart failure
Quin: cinchonism
Procainamide: SLE
168
AE Amiodarone
Pulmonary fibrosis, hypothyroidism
169
Peaked T waves and prolonged PR intervals (which electrolyte disturbance?)
Hyperkalemia
170
Which anti-arrhythimics are associated with TDP?
Class IA & 3
171
Drug useful in acute ventricular arrhythmia (post MI) and in digitalis-induced arrhythmias
Lidocaine
172
Increase, Decrease, No Change in AP duration
| Class IA, IB, IC anti-arrhythmics
1A: Increase
1B: Decrease
1C: No change
173
Which anti-arrhythmics work by decreasing the slope of phase 4?
Class 2 (beta-blockers)
174
Lipid lowering agents: lower LDL
Statin
175
Lipid lowering agents: increase HDL
Niacin
176
Lipid lowering agents: lower TG
Fibrates
177
Lipid lowering agents: can paradoxically increase TG
Resins
178
AE: statins
Hepatotoxicity, rhabdomyolysis
179
Lipid lowering agents: can cause cholesterol gallstones
Fibrates, Resin
180
Lipid lowering agents: can cause hepatotoxicity
Statin, Fibrate, Ezetimbe
181
Lipid lowering agents: Can cause red, flushed face, hyperglycemia, acanthosis nigricans, gout
Niacin
182
Lipid lowering agents: Best for pregnant women and children
Resins
183
Lipid lowering agents: inhibit conversion of HMG coA to mevalonte
Statin
184
Lipid lowering agents: inhibits lipolysis in adipose tissue; reduced VLDL secretion
Niacin
185
Lipid lowering agents: upregulates LPL which increases TG clearance
Fibrates
186
Lipid lowering agnets: decreases HSL vs. upregulates LPL
Niacin; fibrates
187
Aldesleukin
IL-2: RCC, metastatic melanoma
188
Filgrastim vs. Sargramostim
G-CSF
| GM-CSF
189
Alpha-interferon
HBV, HCV, KS, Leukemia, Malignant melanoma
190
Beta-interferon
MS
191
Gamma-interferon
CGD
192
Oprelvekin
IL-11 (TBOcytopenia)
193
Il-11
TBOpenia (Oprelvekin)
194
TNF-alpha agents
Infliximab, Adalimumab
195
Infliximab
TNF-alpha
196
Adalimumab
TNF-alpha
197
Trastuzumb
Herceptin (HER2 overexpressing breast cancer)
198
Rituximab
CD20
199
Omalizumab
IgE: Additional line treatment for severe asthma
200
Muromonab-CD3 (OKT3)
CD3 target (prevent acute rejection)
201
What agent can be used to treat sickle cell anemia? What is its effect? AE?
Hydroxyurea; increases HbF
| * AE = cutaneous vasculitis
202
3 drugs which can deplete folate
1. MTX
2. Trimethoprim
3. Pyrimethamine
203
2 reactions requiring B12
1. Methylmalonyl coA --> succs CoA
| 2. Homocysteine --> methionine
204
Anti-CD20-Ab
Rituximab
205
Rituximab
Anti-CD20-Ab
206
Cituximab
Anti-EGFR-Ab
207
Anti-EGFR-Ab
Cituximab
208
CNI (2)
Cyclosporine, Tacrolimus
209
mTOR inhibitor
Sirolimus
210
IL-2 receptor antagonists
Basiliximab, Daclizumab
211
Anti-TNF-alpha agents
Adalimumab, Etanercept, Infliximab
212
Stimulates IL-2 (can be used for RCC)
Aldesleukin
213
Anti-CD3-Ab
Muromonab
214
First line treatment in multiple myeloma
Thalidomide
215
Thalidomide MOA
Decreases TNF-alpha production; anti-androgenic
216
Nitroglycerin increases/decreases myocardial O2 consumption; whereas dobutamine does the opposite
NG: decreases
Dobutamine: increases
217
Major toxicity: Cyclophosphamide & Ifosfamide
Hemorrhagic cystitis
218
Major toxicity: Bleomycin
Pulmonary fibrosis
219
Major toxicity: Cisplatin
Nephrotoxicity & deafness
220
Major toxicity: Doxorubicin & Daunorubicin
Dilated cardiomyopathy
221
Major toxicity: Vincristine
Peripheral neuropathy
222
Major toxicity: Etoposide, MTX and Vinblastine
BM suppression
223
Major toxicity: L-Asparaginase
Pancreatitis & bleeding
224
Prevention of Hemorrhagic cystitis by cyclophosphamide & ifosfamide
MESNA
225
Prevention of Cisplatin induced nephrotoxicity
Good hydration & amifostine
226
Prevention of Doxorubicin & daunorubicin induced dilated cardiomyopathy
Dexrzoxane
227
Prevention of BM suppression by CTX agents
Filgrastim
228
Prevention of MTX induced BM supression
Leucovorin (THF)
229
Major toxicity: Trastuzumab
Cardiotoxicity
230
Cell cycle specific CTX agents: G1, S, G2, M
G1: Topo 2 (Etoposide)
S: Anti-metabolites
G2: Bleomycin
M: Vinca & taxanes (MT)
231
Non cell cycle specific CTX agents
ABX (minus bleomycin), Alkylators, Topo 1 (Camptothecins)
232
Differentiate between adjuvant and neo-adjuvant CTX
Adjuvant: post SX/Radiation
| Neo-adjuvant: pre-surgery
233
Hydroxyurea affects what stage of the cell cycle?
S phase
234
The major alkylating CTX agents:
1. N mustards (Cyclophosphamide)
2. Busulfan - PF, hyperpig
3. Carmustine - CNS tumor
4. Platinum compounds (cisplatin)
5. Dacarbazine, procarbazine
235
The toxic compound of cyclophosphamide once it is activated by the liver
Acrolein
236
All TNF-alpha inhibitors predispose to...
Infection, including re-activation of latent TB since TNF blockade prevents activation of macrophages and destruction of phagocytosed microbes
237
Dronates, i.e. Aldendronate MOA
Pyrophosphate analogs; bind hydroxyapatite in the bone; inhibits osteoclastic activity
238
Dronates, i.e. Aldendronate use
Osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget's disease
239
Dronates, i.e. Aldendronate AE
Osteonecrosis of the jaw; corrosive esophagitis
240
Dose of 6-MP or Azathioprine must be reduced if co-administered with...
Allopurinol
241
Myelosupression of MTX is reversible with
Leucovorin
242
5-FU inhibits
Thymidylate synthase
243
Supplementing leucovorin with ________ leads to a stronger CTX effect, yet stronger cytotoxic effects
5-FU
244
AE 5-FU
Skin exfoliation on palm and feet (hand-foot syndrome), photosensitivity
245
Use Gemcitabine
Pancreatic cancer
246
ara-C CTX MOA
Competitively inhibits DNA polymerase
247
Differentiate between the vinca alkaloids and the taxanes MOA
Both are microtubule inhibitors working on M phase; Vinca = prevent MT polymerization; Taxanes = hyperstabalize polymerized MT's
248
AE Vincristine
Neuropathy; bone marrow sparing
249
The 2 bone marrow sparing CTX agents
Vincristine and bleomycin
250
AE taxanes
Skin toxicity, fluid retention
251
CTX agent: topoisomerase 2 inhibition
Etoposide and Tenoposide
252
CTX agent: topoisomerase 1 inhibition
Camptothecin: topotecan, irinotecan
253
MOA anti-tumor antibiotics
Free radical mediated DNA strand breaks
254
Radiation recall reaction
Anthracyclines: Doxo/Daunorubicin, Dactinomycin
255
Dactinomycin is primarily used for...
Childhood tumors
256
Glaucoma drugs that decrease synthesis of aq humor
Alpha Agonist: Epi, Brimonidine
Beta blocker: timolol, betaxolol, carteolol
Acetazolamide
257
Glaucoma drugs that increase aq humor outflow
Direct M: Pilocarpine, carbachol
Indirect M: Physostigmine, echothiophate
PGE2-alpha: Latanoprost
258
Opioid used for cough supression
Dextromethorphan
259
Opioid used for diarrhea (2)
Lopiramide, Diphenoxylate
260
Opioid receptors: mu, delta, kappa
Mu: morphine
Delta: Enkephalin
Kappa: dynorphin
261
Partial mu agonist and kappa agonist that can precipitate pain if used with a full Ag
Butorphanol
262
Weak opioid gnoist; inhibits serotonin and NE reuptake; used for chronic pain. What is the AE?
Tramadol; increased risk for seizures
