urology Flashcards

1
Q

how is an uncomplicated female lower UTI treated?

A

nitrofurantoin/trimethoprim (3 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

how is an uncatheterised male UTI treated?

A

nitrofurantoin/trimethoprim (7 days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

how is a complex UTI/pyelonephritis treated in primary care?

A

co-amoxiclav/ co-trimoxazole (7days)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how is a complex UTI/pyelonephritis treated in hospital?

A

amoxicillin and gentamicin IV (3 days)
if pen allergic then Co-trimoxazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

how is bladder voiding measured?

A

urodynamic studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how is prostatitis treated?

A

ciprofloxacin 28days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the eGFR variables?

A

creatinine
age
gender
ethnicity
(CAGE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the treatment for suspected epididymo-orchitis if its an unknown organism?

A

ceftriaxone 500mg IM
doxycycline oral
10-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what can cause TURP syndrome?

A

irrigation with glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a scrotal swelling you cant get above likely to indicate?

A

inguinal hernia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what does periuteric fat indicate?

A

recent stone passage if no uteric calculus is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how long do you have to wait after prostatitis to measure PSA?

A

1 month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

when does urine leak in stress urinary incontinence?

A

upon effort/exertion
urine leaks whenever urethral resistance is exceeded by increased abdo pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is bed wetting in elderly men commonly caused by?

A

increased pressure chronic retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the medical management for urinary incontinence?

A

anticholinergic eg tolterodine (inhibits contraction)
B receptor agonists (induces detruser relaxation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what age group do seminomatous tumours usually affect?

A

35-45 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what age group do non seminomatous (teratomas) usually affect?

A

<35 yo

18
Q

where do seminomas arise from?

A

the seminiferous tubules

19
Q

how are seminomas treated?

A

responsive to radiotherapy

20
Q

how are teratomas treated?

A

very chemo sensitive

21
Q

what tumour markers are present in testicular cancer?

A

AFP and BhCG in teratomas
bHCG in seminomas (but more common in teratomas)

22
Q

what is the most common viral infection to occur after a solid organ transplant eg a kidney?

A

CMV

23
Q

what is the most common cause of peritonitis secondary to peritoneal dialysis?

A

coag -ve staph
staph epi

24
Q

what can indicate a bladder rupture?

A

A pelvic fracture and lower abdominal peritonism should raise suspicions of bladder rupture

25
Q

what can indicate a membranous urethral rupture?

A

A pelvic fracture and highly displaced prostate should indicate a diagnosis of membranous urethral rupture.

26
Q

should all patients with CKD be started on a statin?

A

yes

27
Q

when should diabetic patients be started on an ARB/ ACEi?

A

All diabetic patients with a urinary ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more should be started on an ACE inhibitor or angiotensinII receptor antagonist

28
Q

what is a key diagnostic feature of myeloma?

A

bence jones protein

29
Q

what is a key diagnostic feature of amyloidosis?

A

congo red staining on biopsy

30
Q

what is seen on biopsy in goodpastures syndrome?

A

crescent formation and linear deposition of antibodies across the GBM

31
Q

what is seen on biopsy in membranous nephropathy?

A

IgG and C3 sub epithelial deposit spikes

32
Q

what causes pyelonephritis?

A

e coli

33
Q

what is the most common type of renal stone?

A

calcium oxalate

34
Q

which renal stones are not visible on XRAY?

A

uric acid stones

35
Q

what are staghorn calculi made from?

A

struvite

36
Q

where do SGLT2i primarily act?

A

proximal convoluted tubule (where the majority of glucose absorption takes place)

37
Q

what does efferent arteriole constriction lead to?

A

Efferent arteriole constriction increases the GFR

38
Q

what renal function changes to compensate for an increase in arterial BP through the baroreceptor reflex?

A

afferent arteriolar vasodilation

39
Q

what is the function of aldosterone?

A

stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules and stimulates K+ secretion in the distal tubule

40
Q

what may be seen in the urine of patients taking loop diuretics?

A

hyaline casts

41
Q

is colchicine contraindicated in ESKD?

A

yes