urology Flashcards

1
Q

how is an uncomplicated female lower UTI treated?

A

nitrofurantoin/trimethoprim (3 days)

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2
Q

how is an uncatheterised male UTI treated?

A

nitrofurantoin/trimethoprim (7 days)

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3
Q

how is a complex UTI/pyelonephritis treated in primary care?

A

co-amoxiclav/ co-trimoxazole (7days)

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4
Q

how is a complex UTI/pyelonephritis treated in hospital?

A

amoxicillin and gentamicin IV (3 days)
if pen allergic then Co-trimoxazole

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5
Q

how is bladder voiding measured?

A

urodynamic studies

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6
Q

how is prostatitis treated?

A

ciprofloxacin 28days

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7
Q

what are the eGFR variables?

A

creatinine
age
gender
ethnicity
(CAGE)

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8
Q

what is the treatment for suspected epididymo-orchitis if its an unknown organism?

A

ceftriaxone 500mg IM
doxycycline oral
10-14 days

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9
Q

what can cause TURP syndrome?

A

irrigation with glycine

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10
Q

what is a scrotal swelling you cant get above likely to indicate?

A

inguinal hernia

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11
Q

what does periuteric fat indicate?

A

recent stone passage if no uteric calculus is present

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12
Q

how long do you have to wait after prostatitis to measure PSA?

A

1 month

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13
Q

when does urine leak in stress urinary incontinence?

A

upon effort/exertion
urine leaks whenever urethral resistance is exceeded by increased abdo pressure

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14
Q

what is bed wetting in elderly men commonly caused by?

A

increased pressure chronic retention

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15
Q

what is the medical management for urinary incontinence?

A

anticholinergic eg tolterodine (inhibits contraction)
B receptor agonists (induces detruser relaxation)

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16
Q

what age group do seminomatous tumours usually affect?

A

35-45 yo

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17
Q

what age group do non seminomatous (teratomas) usually affect?

18
Q

where do seminomas arise from?

A

the seminiferous tubules

19
Q

how are seminomas treated?

A

responsive to radiotherapy

20
Q

how are teratomas treated?

A

very chemo sensitive

21
Q

what tumour markers are present in testicular cancer?

A

AFP and BhCG in teratomas
bHCG in seminomas (but more common in teratomas)

22
Q

what is the most common viral infection to occur after a solid organ transplant eg a kidney?

23
Q

what is the most common cause of peritonitis secondary to peritoneal dialysis?

A

coag -ve staph
staph epi

24
Q

what can indicate a bladder rupture?

A

A pelvic fracture and lower abdominal peritonism should raise suspicions of bladder rupture

25
what can indicate a membranous urethral rupture?
A pelvic fracture and highly displaced prostate should indicate a diagnosis of membranous urethral rupture.
26
should all patients with CKD be started on a statin?
yes
27
when should diabetic patients be started on an ARB/ ACEi?
All diabetic patients with a urinary ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more should be started on an ACE inhibitor or angiotensinII receptor antagonist
28
what is a key diagnostic feature of myeloma?
bence jones protein
29
what is a key diagnostic feature of amyloidosis?
congo red staining on biopsy
30
what is seen on biopsy in goodpastures syndrome?
crescent formation and linear deposition of antibodies across the GBM
31
what is seen on biopsy in membranous nephropathy?
IgG and C3 sub epithelial deposit spikes
32
what causes pyelonephritis?
e coli
33
what is the most common type of renal stone?
calcium oxalate
34
which renal stones are not visible on XRAY?
uric acid stones
35
what are staghorn calculi made from?
struvite
36
where do SGLT2i primarily act?
proximal convoluted tubule (where the majority of glucose absorption takes place)
37
what does efferent arteriole constriction lead to?
Efferent arteriole constriction increases the GFR
38
what renal function changes to compensate for an increase in arterial BP through the baroreceptor reflex?
afferent arteriolar vasodilation
39
what is the function of aldosterone?
stimulates Na+ reabsorption in the distal and collecting tubules and stimulates K+ secretion in the distal tubule
40
what may be seen in the urine of patients taking loop diuretics?
hyaline casts
41
is colchicine contraindicated in ESKD?
yes